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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old man presents with lower back pain that has been bothering him...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man presents with lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. There are no signs of trauma or systemic symptoms, and his clinical and neurological examinations are normal. You advise him to stay active and provide him with a list of exercises to do at home. However, he requests pain relief to help him get through the day. What is the best initial medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Oral naproxen

      Explanation:

      The 2016 NICE guidelines suggest considering oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the management of low back pain, while taking into account potential differences in toxicity for the gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal systems, as well as the individual’s risk factors, including age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs for low back pain, appropriate clinical assessment, ongoing monitoring of risk factors, and the use of gastroprotective treatment should be considered. It is recommended to prescribe oral NSAIDs for low back pain at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time. Weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) should only be considered for managing acute low back pain if an NSAID is contraindicated, not tolerated, or has been ineffective. Paracetamol alone should not be offered for managing low back pain.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
      Urine dip shows:
      frank haematuria
      blood 2+
      protein 2+.
      He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
      Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?

      Your Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones

      Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:

      1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.

      2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.

      3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.

      It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During the examination, the PCP notices a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid assessment. The patient displays signs of fatigue and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, and there is paleness in the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrical without skin alterations, moves upward when swallowing, and has a nodular consistency.
      What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism

      When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She also reports haemoptysis. An ECG shows no signs of ischaemia. Her heart rate is 88 bpm and blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. The patient flew from Dubai to the UK yesterday. She has type I diabetes mellitus which is well managed. She had a tonsillectomy two years ago and her brother has asthma. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for six months and uses insulin for her diabetes but takes no other medications.
      What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Assessing Risk Factors for Pulmonary Embolism in a Patient with Sudden Onset of Symptoms

      This patient presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and haemoptysis, suggesting a pulmonary embolism. A history of long-haul flight and use of combined oral contraceptive pill further increase the risk for this condition. However, tonsillectomy two years ago is not a current risk factor. Type I diabetes mellitus and asthma are also not associated with pulmonary embolism. A family history of malignancy may increase the risk for developing a malignancy, which in turn increases the risk for pulmonary embolism. Overall, a thorough assessment of risk factors is crucial in identifying and managing pulmonary embolism in patients with acute symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands. He also says that he suffers from embarrassing grunting which can affect him at almost any time. When he is in lectures at the university he manages to control it, but often when he comes home and relaxes the movements and noises get the better of him. His girlfriend who attends the consultation with him tells you that he seems very easily distracted and often is really very annoying, repeating things which she says to him and mimicking her. On further questioning, it transpires that this has actually been a problem since childhood. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 74 beats/min and regular. His heart sounds are normal, respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations are entirely normal.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 23 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilles de la Tourette syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Movement Disorders: Gilles de la Tourette Syndrome, Congenital Cerebellar Ataxia, Haemochromatosis, Huntington’s Disease, and Wilson’s Disease

      Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is characterized by motor and vocal tics that are preceded by an unwanted premonitory urge. These tics may be suppressible, but with associated tension and mental exhaustion. The diagnosis is based on clinical presentation and history, with an association with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, behavioural problems, and self-mutilation. The pathophysiology is unknown, but treatments include neuroleptics, atypical antipsychotics, and benzodiazepines.

      Congenital cerebellar ataxia typically presents with a broad-based gait and dysmetria, which is not seen in this case. Haemochromatosis has a controversial link to movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily presents with chorea, irregular dancing-type movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic and lack the premonitory urge and suppressibility seen in Tourette’s. Wilson’s disease has central nervous system manifestations, particularly parkinsonism and tremor, which are not present in this case. It is important to distinguish between these movement disorders for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned, as he has had an unusually high-pitched cry and has been drawing his legs up and vomiting. His last nappy revealed some bloody, slimy stools. She has recently started to wean him.
      Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Gastrointestinal Conditions: Symptoms and Differentiation

      Intussusception: A pediatric emergency condition where a bowel segment invaginates into a neighboring part of the bowel, causing obstruction. Symptoms include vomiting, abdominal pain, passing blood and mucous per rectum, lethargy, and a palpable abdominal mass. Diagnosis is via ultrasonography, and treatment can be non-operative or operative depending on the severity.

      Food Intolerance: Occurs following ingestion of an allergen and presents with diarrhea, vomiting, wheezing, pruritus, and rash. Typically seen in children at the age of weaning.

      Colic: Excessive, high-pitched crying in infants, typically in the evenings. Can relate to a variety of causes, including gastro-oesophageal reflux, overfeeding, incomplete burping following feeds, and food allergy.

      Pyloric Stenosis: Caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle leading to gastric outlet obstruction. Presents in the first weeks of life with projectile non-bilious vomiting, a palpable mass in the abdomen, and visible peristalsis.

      Cystic Fibrosis: An inherited condition associated with mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, affecting the transmembrane transport of chloride ions and leading to thick secretions in the lungs and bowel. Symptoms include meconium ileus, constipation, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, diarrhea, steatorrhea, failure to thrive, and rectal prolapse. Identified by heel-prick screening at birth or around the age of 6-8 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are assessing a pregnant woman who is currently 30 weeks along with...

    Correct

    • You are assessing a pregnant woman who is currently 30 weeks along with her second child. Her first child, who is now 3 years old, had neonatal sepsis caused by Group B Streptococcus (GBS). The patient is inquiring about measures that can be taken to prevent a recurrence of this in her current pregnancy. What treatment will be necessary for the patient and/or baby?

      Your Answer: Maternal intravenous (IV) antibiotics during labour

      Explanation:

      To prevent bacterial sepsis in newborns, maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis should be provided to women who have previously given birth to a baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease. GBS is a common cause of sepsis in newborns, particularly in preterm infants with a birth weight of less than 1500 g. GBS is a commensal of the female genital tract and can cause urinary tract infections, septic abortion, and postpartum endometritis in mothers. In newborns, GBS can cause early or late infection, and antibiotics should be administered if signs of sepsis are present at birth.

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties breastfeeding. She has exclusively breastfed her other two children. She tells you her baby has problems latching, is feeding for a long time and is always hungry. She has sore nipples as a result of the poor latch.
      On examination, you notice that the baby cannot bring his tongue past the lower lip and there is restriction in movement. On lifting the tongue, it acquires a heart shape with a central notch, but you cannot visualise the frenulum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior tongue tie

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Abnormalities in Infants: Tongue Tie, Upper Lip Tie, Cleft Lip, and Cleft Palate

      Tongue tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a condition that affects up to 10% of live births, more commonly in boys than girls. It is characterized by a short, thickened frenulum attaching the tongue to the floor of the mouth, limiting tongue movements and causing difficulties with breastfeeding. Mothers may report that their infant takes a long time to feed, is irritable, and experiences nipple injury. Examination findings include limited tongue movements, inability to lift the tongue high or move it past the lower lip, and a characteristic heart-shaped notch when attempting to lift the tongue. Tongue tie can be anterior or posterior, with the latter being deeper in the mouth and more difficult to see.

      Upper lip tie is a similar condition, with a frenulum attaching the upper lip to the gum line. This can also cause difficulties with breastfeeding due to limited movement of the upper lip.

      Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital malformations that occur when the facial structures fail to fuse properly during development. Cleft lip presents as a gap in the upper lip, while cleft palate is a gap in the roof of the mouth. Both can cause difficulties with feeding and require surgical intervention.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common oral abnormalities in infants and provide appropriate management and referrals to ensure optimal feeding and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man with a history of ischaemic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation is...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of ischaemic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation is admitted to the hospital due to vomiting caused by norovirus. His blood tests from 2 months ago were as follows:
      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 120 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      However, his blood tests today show:
      - Sodium (Na+): 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea: 10.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Digoxin level: 3.1 ng/ml (0.8-2.0)

      Which of his regular medications is likely responsible for his digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Digoxin toxicity is often caused by hypokalaemia, which allows digoxin to bind more easily to the ATPase pump on cardiac myocytes. Normally, potassium would compete for the same binding site as digoxin. However, in the absence of sufficient potassium, digoxin’s inhibitory effects are increased. In this case, the patient’s hypokalaemia was caused by bendroflumethiazide, which also led to vomiting and hyponatraemia. The patient’s renal function was not significantly affected, ruling out acute kidney injury as a cause of the hypokalaemia. Ramipril, aspirin, and amlodipine are unlikely to cause digoxin toxicity, although other calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem can reduce digoxin excretion via the kidneys.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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