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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Right carotid artery angioplasty
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
Which of the following new agents would you add in?Your Answer: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.
Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.
Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.
According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and incontinence presents to you with a complaint of increased urinary incontinence when coughing or sneezing after starting a new medication. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Memantine
Correct Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Relaxation of the bladder outlet and urethra caused by doxazosin can exacerbate stress incontinence symptoms. This medication, classified as an alpha blocker, is commonly prescribed for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia-related urinary retention. Therefore, doxazosin is the appropriate response.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of diarrhoea and intermittent abdominal pain. He has also noticed blood mixed with his stools over the past week. He is referred to secondary care where he has a colonoscopy and is diagnosed with Crohnâs disease.
Which of the following medications would be used to induce remission in this patient with a first presentation of Crohnâs disease?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. There are several treatment options available for patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the severity of their symptoms and the stage of their disease.
Prednisolone is a commonly used corticosteroid for patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease or a single inflammatory exacerbation within a 12-month period. Azathioprine may be added to glucocorticoid treatment to induce remission if there are more than two exacerbations in a 12-month period or difficulty in tapering the glucocorticoid dose. Infliximab is recommended for adults with severe active Crohn’s disease who have not responded to or are intolerant to conventional therapy.
Mesalazine, an aminosalicylate, may be used for a first presentation of Crohn’s disease if glucocorticoids are contraindicated or not tolerated. It may also be used in addition to oral steroid treatment. Methotrexate should not be used as a monotherapy to induce remission. Instead, corticosteroids are the first-line treatment for inducing remission in patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease. If an adjuvant treatment is required, azathioprine or mercaptopurine can be taken with the corticosteroid. If these medications cannot be tolerated, methotrexate may be added instead.
In summary, the treatment options for Crohn’s disease vary depending on the severity of the disease and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of bilateral ringing in his ears. He noticed the symptoms shortly after beginning a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of his condition?Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Common Medications and Their Side Effects
Furosemide: A loop diuretic that carries the risk of ototoxicity, especially in patients with renal impairment or given a rapid intravenous infusion. Hearing loss and tinnitus are potential side effects.
Ciprofloxacin: A broad-spectrum quinolone antibiotic that is not commonly associated with ototoxicity, but has an increased risk of Clostridium difficile infection. Rupture of the Achilles tendon is a known side effect.
Amlodipine: A calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension. Common side effects include flushing, headaches, and ankle swelling due to vasodilation.
Indapamide: A thiazide-like diuretic that is not associated with ototoxicity. Possible side effects include electrolyte imbalances, dry mouth, and gastrointestinal disturbance.
Paracetamol: Not associated with ototoxicity and has few side effects listed in the British National Formulary. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, which have similar indications for use, can cause ototoxicity.
Understanding the Side Effects of Common Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried about contracting the disease. What is the recommended prophylaxis in this situation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Meningitis: Recommended Drugs and Dosages
Meningitis is a serious infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment for meningitis, and prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended for close contacts of infected individuals. Here are the recommended drugs and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis:
Ciprofloxacin: This antibiotic is now the preferred choice for prophylaxis in all age groups and in pregnancy. It is a single dose and readily available in pharmacies, and does not interact with oral contraceptives. It should be given to all close contacts of probable or confirmed meningococcal meningitis, with dosages ranging from 250 mg to 500 mg depending on age.
Metronidazole: This drug has no role in the treatment of acute meningitis.
Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic has good penetration into inflamed meninges and can be given via intramuscular or oral route. It can be used in monotherapy in adults under 60 years old, or in dual therapy with amoxicillin in older adults.
Co-trimoxazole: This drug is an alternative to cefotaxime or ceftriaxone in older adults, and is also used in individuals with meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes infection.
Vancomycin: This antibiotic is recommended in cases of penicillin resistance or suspected penicillin-resistant pneumococci, but should never be used in monotherapy due to doubts about its penetration into adult CSF.
Chemoprophylaxis: Close contacts of infected individuals should receive prophylactic antibiotics to prevent nasopharyngeal carriage of the organism. Ciprofloxacin is the first-line choice, with dosages ranging from 10 mg/kg to 600 mg depending on age. Rifampicin can be given as an alternative for those unable to take ciprofloxacin.
It is important to seek microbiology and public health advice if in doubt about the appropriate antibiotics and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day history of cough and fever. Her Covid-19 test is negative and she does not sound breathless on the phone. Sarah has been taking paracetamol regularly but despite this, she is still feeling feverish; she has recorded her temperature as 37.8ÂșC. She has a past medical history of eczema, gilbert's syndrome and adrenal insufficiency. She takes hydrocortisone 15 mg in the morning and 10mg at lunchtime, and also takes fludrocortisone 200 micrograms once a day.
What is the most appropriate management plan for Sarah?Your Answer: Double the dose of both his hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone
Correct Answer: Double the dose of his hydrocortisone
Explanation:To manage an Addison’s patient with an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to double the dose of their glucocorticoids, specifically hydrocortisone, while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. This is because the patient’s fever >37.5 indicates a moderate intercurrent illness. Continuing paracetamol regularly is not the main priority in this situation. Advising the patient to call 999 for admission is unnecessary unless there are severe symptoms such as vomiting or persistent diarrhea. Doubling the dose of fludrocortisone is not recommended as it is a mineralocorticoid with weak glucocorticoid activity, and increasing the glucocorticoid is necessary to mimic a stress response.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phalen's sign
Explanation:The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.
Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.
Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Male infertility in cystic fibrosis is mostly due to which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obliteration or failure of development of the vas deferens
Explanation:Understanding the Reproductive and Sexual Health Implications of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the lungs, pancreas, and reproductive system. In over 95% of male patients with CF, infertility is caused by the congenital absence or obliteration of the vas deferens, leading to azoospermia. However, advancements in fertility treatments and surgical techniques have made it possible for some male patients to conceive. Impotence is not a symptom of CF. With significant improvements in diagnosis and treatment, the median survival age of CF patients has increased to around 40 years, with some individuals living into their 60s. Delayed puberty is a common occurrence in both male and female CF patients, but it is not a cause of infertility. Decreased spermatogenesis is not typically seen in CF. Understanding the reproductive and sexual health implications of CF is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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