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Question 1
Correct
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The following statements about leukotrienes as chemical mediators of the acute inflammatory response are all true EXCEPT?
Your Answer: They decrease vascular permeability
Explanation:Leukotrienes increases (not decrease) vascular permeability during acute inflammation.All the other statements are correct
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due to facial oedema. Her lab workup shows proteinuria of 7 g/24 hours and serum albumin levels of 15 g/L. A diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome is made, and corticosteroid therapy is initiated. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this patient?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in the paediatric population. It may be caused by NSAID use. Electron microscopy shows the fusion of foot processes while light microscopy will appear normal.Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis causes Nephrotic Syndrome in adults. It is associated with Heroin use and HIV infection. There is a limited response to steroids, and the disease progresses to end-stage renal failure in 5-10 years.Diabetic nephropathy occurs after a long period of diabetes due to the deposition of amyloid protein leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration. There is no history of Hepatitis B in this patient and no symptoms of liver disease such as jaundice. Membranous glomerulonephritis would present with features of Nephritic Syndrome. These would be oedema, haematuria; red blood cell casts in the urine and hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old female presents with painful wrist following a fall while skating. X-rays shows fracture of the ulna.The initial phase of bone healing is?
Your Answer: Haematoma at the fracture site
Explanation:Haemorrhage occurs into the fracture site from the ruptured vessels in the bone marrow and those supplying the periosteum immediately after fracture. This hematoma formation is the first phase of bone healing.The 4 stages of bone healing are:Haematoma at the fracture site (provides a framework for healing)Callus formationLamellar bone formationRemodelling
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a solid, well circumscribed, lump measuring 0.8 cm in diameter.Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?
Your Answer: Nodule
Explanation:A nodule is a solid, well circumscribed, raised area that lies in or under the skin and measures greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. They are usually painless.A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter. A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin.A papule is a solid, well circumscribed, skin elevation measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.A plaque is a palpable skin lesion that is elevated and measures >1cm in diameter
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman has reduced urine output, nausea, and confusion. Renal function tests and other investigations done leads to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).Which one of these is consistent with a diagnosis of AKI?
Your Answer: A 25% increase in serum creatinine within the preceding seven days
Correct Answer: A rise in serum creatinine of 30 μmol/L within 48 hours
Explanation:AKI is diagnosed based on an acutely rising serum creatinine and/or reduction in urine output.
AKI can often be non-oliguric.
AKI is present if any one or more of the following criteria is met:
- A rise in serum creatinine of ≥26 micromol/L (≥0.3 mg/dL) within 48 hours
- A rise in serum creatinine to ≥1.5 times baseline, which is known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days (in practice you can use the lowest value from the past 3 months as the baseline for the patient)
- Urine volume <0.5 ml/kg/hour for at least 6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 6
Correct
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A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?
Your Answer: Pustule
Explanation:A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus. A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together. A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus. A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus.Which ONE of these statements about ANAs is true?
Your Answer: ELISA is the most reliable method for testing
Correct Answer: They can be of any immunoglobulin class
Explanation:Anti-nuclear antibodies(ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus. They can be of any immunoglobulin class.CREST syndrome is usually associated with anti-centromere antibodies.ELISA testing is cheaper but not the most accurate means of testing for ANAs. Indirect immunofluorescence testing is the most reliable.Nucleolar staining is suggestive of scleroderma, while homogenous staining is suggestive of lupus.Anti-dsDNA antibodies are found in 80 – 90% of patients with SLE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive bleeding from her upper arm following a fall from a bicycle onto a fence. On inspection her biceps brachii muscle has been lacerated.How will the muscle heal from this injury? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Satellite cells will produce a small number of regenerated myocytes
Explanation:Muscle heals with fibrous tissue to form a scar. Once cut, it will never regain its previous bulk or power. Within the scar a small number of myocytes (muscle cells) may be seen, which are formed from satellite cells but they contribute little to the function of the muscle overall.In more widespread ischaemic injury, such as critical ischaemic limb due to arterial compromise, or in compartment syndrome, damaged myocytes are replaced diffusely with fibrous tissue. This fibrous tissue contracts and reduces movement, and in extreme cases can pull the limb into abnormal positions such as in Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling in the left knee joint. On examination, the left knee is swollen, tender and erythematous. The patient is booked for joint aspiration, and a diagnosis of pseudogout is made following the aspiration. Which types of crystals would be seen in the joint aspirate to lead to this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals
Correct Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterised by crystal deposition in the affected joints. The deposition of urate crystals causes gout, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals cause pseudogout. The crystals can be distinguished microscopically because urate crystals are negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals, whilst calcium pyrophosphate crystals are positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old man who has come to the department with a very tender right elbow. On examination, the elbow is very hot and red, and appears to be acutely inflamed.Which SINGLE statement regarding acute inflammation is FALSE?
Your Answer: Neutrophils interact with cell adhesion molecules and become ‘activated’
Correct Answer: Reduced extravascular osmotic pressure leads to oedema
Explanation:Inflammation can be divided intoacute inflammation, which occurs over seconds, minutes, hours, and days, andchronic inflammation, which occurs over longer periods.Acute inflammationcommences within seconds or minutes following the injury of tissues. There are numerous potential stimuli for an acute inflammatory response including infections (bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic), tissue necrosis, foreign bodies, and Immune reactions (hypersensitivity reactions). The chief cell type of acute inflammation is the neutrophil.There are three main processesthat occur in the acute inflammatory response:Increased blood flowIncreased capillary permeabilityNeutrophil migration1. Increased blood flow:Vasoactive mediators are released, such as nitric oxide, histamine, bradykinins, and prostaglandin E2. These mediators cause vasodilatation and increased blood flow to the area (causing redness and heat).2. Increased capillary permeability:The vasoactive mediators also cause increased capillary permeability by causing endothelial cell contraction that widens the intercellular gaps of venules. This allows an outpouring of protein-rich fluid (exudate) into the extracellular tissues that results in a reduction of intravascular osmotic pressure and an increase in extravascular/interstitial pressure. The increased interstitial osmotic pressure leads to oedema.3. Neutrophil migration:Neutrophils leave the vasculature through the following sequence of events:Margination and rolling: neutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall, rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination. Following margination the neutrophils begin rolling along the surface of the vascular endothelium.Activation and adhesion: then as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) that is mediated by selectins, the neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium.Transmigration: once bound to the endothelium, neutrophils squeeze through gaps between adjacent endothelial cells into the interstitial fluid, in a process calleddiapedesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the listed cells are typically found in a granuloma?
Your Answer: Monocytes
Correct Answer: Epithelioid cells
Explanation:Typically, granuloma has Langhan’s cells (large multinucleated cells ) surrounded by epithelioid cell aggregates, T lymphocytes and fibroblasts.Antigen presenting monocytic cells found in the skin are known as Langerhan’s cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 12
Correct
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A patient presents to your Emergency Department with a laceration on their buttocks requiring closure with sutures.What stage of wound healing is the first to reach completion?
Your Answer: Haemostasis
Explanation:The stages of wound healing are: haemostasis, inflammatory, proliferative and remodelling (maturation) phases in that order. The first stage in the healing process of a laceration is haemostasis. Haemostasis is the process of the wound being closed by clotting. The inflammatory phase occurs just after and up to 48 hours after injury– Blood vessels dilate to allow white blood cells, antibodies, growth factors, enzymes and nutrients to reach the wounded area leading to the characteristic signs of inflammation seen. Epithelialisation and angiogenesis are not phases of wound healing but occur during the proliferative phase. This ia after haemolysis and inflammation phases have occurred.The maturation phase is the final phase and occurs when the wound has closed. It involves remodelling of collagen from type III to type I. Apoptosis remove unwanted cells, cellular activity reduces and the number of blood vessels in the wounded area regresses and decreases. This can continues for up to 1 year after injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A newborn baby is referred by the community midwife who is concerned the baby is jaundiced because of the yellow appearance of his eyes and skin following a postnatal home visit. The jaundice is visible in the baby’s feet making her worried.Jaundice are visible in the extremities of neonates at what approximate threshold bilirubin level?
Your Answer: 65 μmol/L
Correct Answer: 255 μmol/L
Explanation:Newborn babies have a higher concentration of red blood cells with shorter lifespan leading to higher bilirubin levels than in adults. This condition is short-lived and harmless but with potential serious causes that need to be assessed for if present. The most obvious physical sign of jaundice is a yellow discolouration of the sclera, skin and mucous membranes. At a bilirubin level of 35 μmol/L or higher, the eye is affected. The bilirubin level will need to be higher than 255 μmol/L for the feet and extremities to be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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While on morning rounds in the medical ward, the attending physician asks a medical student about the differences between transudates and exudates and their causes. The student explains that a transudate is an excess fluid that leaks out of an intravascular compartment due to an imbalance between oncotic and hydrostatic pressures. Which ONE of the following conditions will he mention as the cause of a transudate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meig’s syndrome
Explanation:Transudative effusions are caused due to systemic causes leading to increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure. These include:1) Meig’s Syndrome (Ovarian tumour causing ascites and pleural effusion)2) Congestive heart failure3) Nephrotic Syndrome4) Myxoedema5) Cirrhosis6) SarcoidosisAn exudate is caused by local inflammation and results from increased vascular permeability. Causes include:1) Rheumatoid arthritis2) Pneumonia leading to empyema3) Malignancies4) Pericarditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male with a 10-year history of Diabetes Mellitus and Hypertension was rushed to the Emergency Department due to sudden onset crushing chest pain. ECG showed an ST-elevation myocardial infarct in the left anterior descending artery territory. The patient's condition was stabilised and managed with angioplasty, but he sustained significant myocardial damage. Which one of the following statements best agrees with the myocardial healing process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The left ventricle will likely hypertrophy first to maintain cardiac output
Explanation:Following a myocardial infarction scar tissue formation will take place at the site of the damaged muscle. This places increased load on the rest of the myocardium causing it to hypertrophy. The left ventricle will hypertrophy first as it is pumping blood against a greater afterload as compared to the right ventricle. There are three types of cells in the body with regards to the cell cycle: 1. permanent2. labile3. stable cellsPermanent cells do not re-enter the cell cycle and remain in G0. If there is a pool of stem cells the stem cells will enter the cell cycle to form more cells. Myocardial cells are a type of permanent cell and there is no pool of stem cells in the heart muscle. The anterior wall will not hypertrophy as it is formed by the right atrium and ventricle and both of these hypertrophy after the left ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A patient presents with a rash for dermatological examination. A large area of purplish discolouration of the skin that measures 2 cm in diameter and does not blanch when pressure is applied is seen .What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ecchymoses
Explanation:Ecchymosis are discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by extravasation of blood. They are usually red or purple in colour and measure greater than 1 cm in diameter and do not blanch on applying pressure. A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin. Petechiae are discolouration of the skin measuring less than 3 mm in diameterPurpura are discolouration of the skin measuring between 0.3 cm and 1 cm in diameter.Erythema is redness of the skin or mucous membranes caused by hyperaemia of superficial capillaries caused by skin injury, infection or inflammation. Erythema blanches when pressure is applied whereas ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae do not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient with rash is examined. He has some redness of the skin that blanches when finger pressure is applied. What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema
Explanation:Erythema is redness of the skin or mucous membranes caused by hyperaemia of superficial capillaries caused by skin injury, infection or inflammation. Erythema blanches when pressure is applied whereas ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae do not.Ecchymosis are discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by extravasation of blood. They are usually red or purple in colour and measure greater than 1 cm in diameter and do not blanch on applying pressure. A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin. Petechiae are discolouration of the skin measuring less than 3 mm in diameterPurpura are discolouration of the skin measuring between 0.3 cm and 1 cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents to the ED with symptoms suggesting an anaphylactic reaction.Which of these statements about anaphylaxis is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The immunoglobulin-antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells.
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction. It is IgE mediated. It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation. The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited range of motion in the right elbow for the past two days. On examination, the right elbow is extremely tender with erythema and warmth of the overlying skin due to acute inflammation. Which ONE of the following statements is true with regards to acute inflammation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules
Explanation:Acute inflammation is defined as inflammation occurring within minutes to hours in response to an injury lasting for less than two weeks. Acute inflammation Rapid onset (minutes to hours)Quick resolution (usually days)Chronic inflammationMay last weeks, months, or yearsThere are five cardinal signs of inflammation:1) Pain2) Redness3) Warmth4) Oedema5) Loss of functionDuring acute inflammation, neutrophils are activated and attracted to the site of inflammation in response to various interleukins and cytokines. This process takes place via the following mechanism:1) MarginationNeutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination2) Rolling along the surface of vascular endothelium3) Adhesion to the endothelium by interaction with adhesion molecules (ICAMS and VCAMS)4) Diapedesis is the movement of neutrophils from the endothelial cells into the interstitial space by squeezing through the gaps between adjacent endothelial cellsBradykinin and histamine are both responsible for vasodilation which causes oedema and decreases intravascular osmotic pressure.Neutrophils dominate early (2 days)- Live longer- Replicate in tissues
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old male had a humeral shaft fracture during a road traffic accident and is being followed up in a fracture clinic. He complains of inability to use the limb 6 months after the injury. X-rays of that arm shows non union of his fracture.All the following are responsible for this non-union EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:An imbalance between bone resorption and formation is Osteoporosis. In normal bone, formation and resorption are roughly equal, and the density of bone matrix remains constant but there is more resorption in osteoporosis and the matrix density reduces and bones become weaker. Fractures are more likely to occur but healing is unaffected. Non-union of a fracture occurs when the two sides of a fracture fail to unite after 6 months. Causes include: infection, movement at the fracture site, avascular necrosis, tissue interposed between the fracture and gross misalignment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presented to the Emergency Department after a fall during a hiking expedition caused severe pain in her left arm and wrist drop. An X-ray revealed a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus, which most likely damaged the radial nerve. Which one of the following statements best describes the healing process of peripheral nerves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral nerve fibres regenerate at around 1mm per day
Explanation:Peripheral nerves are nerves that lie outside the brain and spinal cord. Peripheral nerves readily regenerate, while central nervous system axonal injury does not spontaneously regenerate. If there is damage to the axons of peripheral nerves, the nerves will regenerate at a slow rate of 1 mm per day. The slow regeneration process may lead to muscle atrophy before regeneration is complete. Each peripheral nerve has a single cell body that supplies nutrients to the growing nerve fibre. The cell body does not undergo mitosis; only the axon is regenerated.Schwann cells of the peripheral nervous system provide support for this process, while the analogous oligodendrocytes of the central nervous system do not. Schwann cells themselves do not cause regeneration. Schwann cells provide myelin for myelinated fibres and surround non-myelinated fibres with their cytoplasm. If an axon is completely severed, as in the case of amputation, the axonal fibres regenerating from the cell body may never find their original route back to the muscle. Instead, they may form a traumatic neuroma, a painful collection of nerve fibres and myelin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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While studying fluid homeostasis in the body, you encounter the term exudate. Exudate is a fluid that leaks out of the intravascular space due to changes in the permeability of the microcirculation secondary to inflammation. Which ONE of the following conditions would not be listed among the causes of an exudate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myxoedema
Explanation:An exudate is an inflammatory fluid that leaks out of the intravascular space due to increased vascular permeability and intravascular pressure. It is mostly caused by local processes and can occur in the following conditions:1) Infection (e.g. pneumonia)2) Malignancy3) Pericarditis4) Collagen vascular diseases, e.g., Rheumatoid ArthritisMyxoedema is a state of severe hypothyroidism in which deposition of mucopolysaccharides occurs in the dermis. This causes a transudative effusion, typically in the pretibial region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old male was admitted from the Emergency Department due to severe pain in the left forearm and hand, refractory to pain medication along with pallor and hypothermia of the affected limb. Ultrasound doppler showed an arterial embolism. Circulation was restored after vascular surgery, but there was extensive, irreversible muscle damage. How will the muscle heal from an injury of this type?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffuse formation of fibrous tissue
Explanation:Once muscle tissue is damaged, there will be healing via diffuse formation of fibrous tissue, especially due to the widespread ischemia. Callus formation takes place in the healing of bone, not muscle. Organised scar formation occurs when a lacerated wound is approximated by sutures so that primary intention wound healing can occur. Liquefaction degeneration occurs following ischemia in the brain. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture may occur, but it is not the primary type of healing that will take place but rather the effect of the fibrous scar formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient presents to your clinic with fever of unknown origin. His blood results shows a markedly elevated C-Reactive Protein (CRP) level.Which of these is responsible for mediating the release of CRP?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IL-6
Explanation:C-reactive protein (CRP) is an acute phase protein produced by the liver hepatocytes. Its production is regulated by cytokines, particularly interleukin 6 (IL-6) and it can be measured in the serum as a nonspecific marker of inflammation. Although a high CRP suggest an acute infection or inflammation, it does not identify the cause or location of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female presents with a history of morning stiffness and arthritis of her hand joints. She is being investigated for rheumatoid arthritis.Which test is most sensitive and specific for this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-CCP
Explanation:Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) is an antibody present in 60-80% of rheumatoid arthritis patients. It is measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). It may be present years before the onset of the disease and is associated with a more severe disease course.While most patients with anti-CCP antibodies are also positive for rheumatoid factor (RF), RF antibody is not specific for rheumatoid arthritis as it can occur in patients with other conditions such as infections and other autoimmune conditions.ESR, antinuclear antibodies(ANA) and Synovial fluid examination are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community midwife after a home visit due to jaundice and dyspnoea. After history and examination, the relevant blood work is performed, and the baby is found to have conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The paediatric team suspects a hepatic origin for jaundice based on the findings. Which one of the following aetiologies is the most likely cause of jaundice in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:The presence of dyspnoea makes alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the more likely diagnosis as biliary atresia does not cause respiratory symptoms. Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1 antitrypsin causes uninhibited elastase activity and a decrease in elastic tissue. This causes liver cirrhosis leading to an elevation of conjugated bilirubin and emphysema in the lungs.Rhesus disease, hereditary spherocytosis and breast milk jaundice cause an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin thus ruling it out in this case. Breast milk jaundice occurs due to an inability of the newborn to metabolize the proteins in breast milk. Rhesus disease occurs when an Rh negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive baby. The jaundice would have been accompanied by anaemia and oedema. Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to extravascular haemolysis as defective RBCs are removed by the spleen. The patient would present with jaundice, splenomegaly and possibly an aplastic crisis (if Parvovirus B19 infection).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presenting in the department has a history of C3 deficiency.C3 deficiency is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary angioedema
Explanation:C1-inhibitor deficiency is the cause of hereditary angioedema not C3 deficiency,All the other statements are correct
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman was rushed to the Emergency Department due to an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. She responded well to initial treatment but developed anaphylactic symptoms after 6 hours. Her symptoms were resolved after a further dose of adrenaline. Her family threatened legal action as they thought she had not received adequate treatment but withdrew their accusation after the attending physician explained that the woman had suffered a biphasic reaction. What is the approximate percentage of people who suffer this type of reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Anaphylactic reactions are Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions IgE-mediated and can be potentially life-threatening if not treated promptly. There are four well-recognized patterns of anaphylaxis:1) Uniphasic2) Biphasic3) Protracted4) RefractoryBiphasic reactions occur in 20% of the population, although their mechanism is poorly understood. The symptoms of anaphylaxis recur within 4-6 hours, although they may also recur up to 72 hours later. All patients discharged from the hospital after an anaphylactic shock must:1) Be warned to return to the hospital immediately if symptoms recur2) Have a treatment plan in place3) Have a follow-up appointment4) Be considered for an adrenaline auto-injector5) Referred to an allergy clinic
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal circumstances? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:The process of fracture healing occurs naturally after traumatic bone disruption and begins with haemorrhage, then progresses through Inflammatory, reparative, and remodelling stagesAverage healing times of common fractures are:Femoral shaft: 12 weeksTibia: 10 weeksPhalanges: 3 weeksMetacarpals: 4-6 weeksDistal radius: 4-6 weeksHumerus: 6-8 weeks
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one these is an example of a cause of an exudate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subphrenic abscess
Explanation:An exudate is an inflammatory fluid emanating from the intravascular space due to changes in the permeability of the surrounding microcirculation.Some common causes of exudates are: pneumonia, empyema, lung cancer, breast cancer, cancer of the pleura, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, pericarditis, subphrenic abscess, chylothorax.Myxoedema, nephrotic syndrome, congestive cardiac failure, and liver cirrhosis all cause TRANSUDATE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
