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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man has his appendix removed due to appendicitis and sends it...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man has his appendix removed due to appendicitis and sends it for histopathological examination. What is the most probable microscopic identification that will be made?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The most frequently encountered cell type in acute inflammation is neutrophil polymorphs.

      Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.

      The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.

      Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.

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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man, Tom, is brought into the emergency department after a fall....

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    • A 75-year-old man, Tom, is brought into the emergency department after a fall. He was discovered by his daughter. Tom is disoriented and unable to provide a clear explanation of what happened. His daughter knows that Tom takes a blood thinner but cannot recall its name. She does know that Tom began taking it after having a metallic heart valve and that he can no longer eat grapefruit for breakfast.

      A CT scan of Tom's head reveals a significant acute subdural hemorrhage, and the emergency department physician prescribes IV vitamin K.

      How does IV vitamin K assist in this situation?

      Your Answer: Activates clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K plays a crucial role as a co-factor in the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X through carboxylation. The patient’s use of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, suggests that they have a metallic heart valve. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-epoxide-reductase (VKOR), which is responsible for converting vitamin K into its active state. By inhibiting VKOR, warfarin prevents the activation of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. However, administering the active form of vitamin K can reverse the effects of warfarin by allowing the activation of these clotting factors without VKOR. It is important for patients taking warfarin to be mindful of their diet, as some foods can interact with the medication and affect its effectiveness. Clotting factors III, IV, V, and VIII are not affected by warfarin as they function independently of vitamin K. Vitamin K does not bind directly to warfarin or affect its metabolism.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

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  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his...

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    • A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his legs and tingling sensation in his feet. His wife noticed a problem with his gait over the past few weeks. The patient also reports increasing forgetfulness. During examination, the Romberg test is positive. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently on treatment with 5-aminosalicylic acid and prednisone. A peripheral blood smear shows the presence of larger than normal and pale red blood cells. What laboratory finding is most likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Elevated methylmalonic acid levels

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia can be caused by either folate deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is important to differentiate between the two. In this case, the patient’s neurological symptoms suggest a diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency. This can be confirmed by checking methylmalonic acid levels, which are normal in folate deficiency but elevated in vitamin B12 deficiency. Homocysteine levels are raised in both conditions and cannot be used to differentiate between them. Reduced iron and elevated ferritin levels are common in anemia of chronic disease, which is associated with inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

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  • Question 4 - You are a GP and your next patient is a 5-year-old girl who...

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    • You are a GP and your next patient is a 5-year-old girl who has developed a maculopapular rash. The rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. Her mother noticed some white spots in her mouth before the rash appeared. The child has been lethargic, irritable and had a fever during this time. Upon checking her medical records, you find out that she has not been vaccinated and has had chickenpox before. Which family of viruses is most likely responsible for causing this in the child?

      Your Answer: Paramyxoviridae

      Explanation:

      Measles is caused by a virus in the paramyxovirus family. The child in this question is exhibiting classic symptoms of measles, including the presence of Koplik spots. Since the child has not received the MMR vaccine, they are at risk for contracting the virus.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease

      Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.

      The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with his son after experiencing a fall...

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    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with his son after experiencing a fall at home. He has a history of alcoholism and is currently being treated by the gastroenterology team.

      In the past few days, he has been feeling increasingly unsteady on his feet and has fallen once, but denies any head injury. His son made the appointment as he has noticed his father becoming more forgetful over the past week.

      During the examination, the patient exhibits reduced sensation in his lower legs and nystagmus when looking to the side.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis responsible for his recent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 6 - A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and...

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    • A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and shortness of breath for the past 4 days. The child has poor appetite and has not received any vaccinations. Upon examination, the child is febrile, tachypnoeic, and tachycardic with nasal flaring and subcostal retractions. Bilateral crepitations are heard on auscultation, and there is decreased air entry bilaterally. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 94%. Sputum culture reveals Gram-negative bacilli that did not grow on blood agar but grew on chocolate agar. What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman receives a letter from her doctor informing her that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman receives a letter from her doctor informing her that her initial smear test revealed mild dyskaryosis and she tested positive for Human papillomavirus (HPV). As a result, she was referred to the colposcopy clinic where she received treatment for stage 1 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN).

      Which protein involved in the cell cycle does the HPV E6 protein inhibit during the process of cell transformation?

      Your Answer: pRB

      Correct Answer: p53

      Explanation:

      The E6 and E7 proteins of the Human papillomavirus (HPV) play a crucial role in causing cervical cancer. HPV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and while most types do not cause cancer, high-risk oncogenic types like 16, 18, 33 and 45 can lead to cell transformation and neoplasia. The cervical screening programme aims to prevent the progression of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia to cancer.

      HPV is a double-stranded DNA virus that infects keratinocytes of the skin and mucous membranes. It uses the host DNA replication machinery to replicate itself and as infected cells migrate upwards, they begin to replicate, leading to a significant increase in viral copy number. Normally, the E2 protein blocks the E6 and E7 proteins, but when HPV DNA integrates into host cell DNA, E2 is inhibited. The E6 protein inhibits the tumour suppressor p53 and the E7 protein inhibits pRb, leading to uncontrolled cell division.

      HPV evades the immune response by disabling antigen presenting cells and inhibiting interferon synthesis. However, most people eventually mount an immune response to HPV. The HPV vaccine contains the non-oncogenic L1 nucleocapsid protein (Gardasil uses L1 proteins from 6, 11, 16 and 18) and is administered via intramuscular injection. This produces a robust antibody response against L1, protecting against HPV infection. The reason why some people are persistently infected with HPV is not fully understood, but it could be related to an inherent problem in immunity, as well as other co-factors like smoking and multiparity.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of constant fatigue. She has no...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of constant fatigue. She has no medical history. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 56 beats per minute and regular. There is thinning of the lateral third of the eyebrows on both sides. Proximal myopathy is evident, with shoulder power of 4+/5. Her body mass index is elevated at 36 kg/mÂČ. The doctor prescribes medication, which successfully resolves her symptoms and signs. What type of receptor does this medication target, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine exerts its effects through nuclear receptors, which are located inside the cell. This is the correct answer. The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, which is commonly associated with fatigue, bradycardia, thinning of the outer third of eyebrows and proximal myopathy, and weight gain. To interact with a nuclear receptor, the substance must be lipid soluble.

      G protein-coupled receptors are not involved in the mechanism of action of levothyroxine. This answer is incorrect. Adrenaline is an example of a substance that acts through this receptor.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors are also not involved in the mechanism of action of levothyroxine. This answer is incorrect. Hormones such as atrial natriuretic peptide (BNP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) act through this receptor by cyclizing guanylate into cyclic GMP.

      Ion channel receptors are not involved in the mechanism of action of levothyroxine. This answer is incorrect. These receptors typically mediate fast responses, such as those mediated by GABA. Zolpidem is an example of a medication that acts through this receptor.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion. She had been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion. She had been receiving outpatient treatment for uncomplicated pyelonephritis but stopped taking her antibiotics three days ago. On examination, her blood pressure is 85/55 mmHg and her temperature is 40.2 ÂșC. Laboratory results show leukocytosis, elevated C-reactive protein (CRP), and procalcitonin. Which cytokine is most likely responsible for her fever?

      Your Answer: Interleukin 4 (IL-4)

      Correct Answer: Interleukin 6 (IL-6)

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a productive cough...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a productive cough and difficulty breathing. After being diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia, she is given initial treatment. However, she suddenly experiences lip swelling and worsening shortness of breath. Upon examination, a widespread rash and an audible expiratory wheeze are discovered. What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5ml (1 in 1,000) IM

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 11 - Which of the following accurately characterizes the mechanisms that drive type IV hypersensitivity...

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    • Which of the following accurately characterizes the mechanisms that drive type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

      Your Answer: T cell mediated response at the site of inflammation

      Explanation:

      ACID represents the four types of hypersensitivity reactions:
      – Type 1 is Anaphylactic
      – Type 2 is Cytotoxic
      – Type 3 is Immune complex
      – Type 4 is Delayed hypersensitivity
      Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and are characterized by the lack of immune complex deposition.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 12 - A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking will reduce his lifespan. You explain that it is not possible to determine this precisely for him but you can tell him what proportion of deaths in drinkers happen due to their alcohol consumption. Select the epidemiological term that describes this and its correct definition.

      Your Answer: Attributable proportion - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group.

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      The rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group is known as the attributable risk. This measure helps determine the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that can be attributed to the exposure. On the other hand, relative risk compares the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group to that of the unexposed group. Lastly, the attributable proportion indicates the percentage of disease that could be eliminated in a population if the disease rate in the exposed group was reduced to that of the unexposed group.

      Understanding Disease Rates and Relative Risk

      Disease rates are measurements used to monitor and establish causation of diseases, as well as to evaluate interventions. These rates are calculated by comparing the number of individuals with a disease to the total population. The attributable risk is a measure of the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that were caused by the exposure. It is calculated by subtracting the rate of the disease in the unexposed group from the rate in the exposed group.

      The relative risk, also known as the risk ratio, is a measure of the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of the disease in the exposed group by the rate in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference between the two groups, while a relative risk of less than 1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, and a relative risk of greater than 1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group.

      The population attributable risk is a measure of the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It is calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group. Understanding these measures is important for evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and identifying risk factors for diseases.

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  • Question 13 - A 78-year-old male from Somalia visits his doctor complaining of shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male from Somalia visits his doctor complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has been receiving treatment for Parkinson's disease for the past 12 years. He denies experiencing any symptoms of angina and has no history of ischemic heart disease.

      During a heart examination, a high-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible in the aortic area. Upon reviewing his medication list, you suspect that one of the drugs he is taking may be responsible for his current condition.

      Which medication is likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of cabergoline, an ergot-derived dopamine agonist, can lead to cardiac valvulopathy, which is likely the cause of the aortic regurgitation murmur described in the patient’s history. Adverse effects associated with anticholinergics such as benzhexol and orphenadrine include confusion and urinary retention. Tamoxifen and oxytocin are typically used in females and are therefore unlikely to be prescribed to this male patient. While diclofenac is known to increase the risk of ischemic heart disease, there is no indication that the patient takes it regularly.

      Dopamine Receptor Agonists for Parkinson’s Disease and Other Conditions

      Dopamine receptor agonists are medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease, prolactinoma/galactorrhoea, cyclical breast disease, and acromegaly. In Parkinson’s disease, treatment is typically delayed until the onset of disabling symptoms, at which point a dopamine receptor agonist is introduced. Elderly patients may be given L-dopa as an initial treatment. Examples of dopamine receptor agonists include bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine.

      However, some dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are ergot-derived, have been associated with pulmonary, retroperitoneal, and cardiac fibrosis. Therefore, the Committee on Safety of Medicines recommends obtaining an ESR, creatinine, and chest x-ray before treatment and closely monitoring patients. Pergolide was even withdrawn from the US market in March 2007 due to concerns about an increased incidence of valvular dysfunction.

      Despite their effectiveness, dopamine receptor agonists can cause adverse effects such as nausea/vomiting, postural hypotension, hallucinations, and daytime somnolence. Therefore, patients taking these medications should be closely monitored for any adverse effects.

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  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his left knee, middle finger, and heel. He reports a family history of psoriasis. During examination, red, inflamed, and silvery plaques are observed on his elbows and scalp. Additionally, there is tenderness and swelling in the affected joints. What HLA haplotype is linked to his joint pain?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is often observed in individuals who possess the HLA-B27 antigen, as evidenced by the presence of asymmetrical and oligoarticular arthritis with enthesitis in the left heel, along with a history of psoriasis and a familial predisposition to the condition.

      HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens

      HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).

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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye...

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    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye pain, a red eye, and a mid-dilated fixed pupil on the right side. The on-call ophthalmologist suspects acute angle closure glaucoma and prescribes several medications, including pilocarpine, to reduce intraocular pressure.

      What is the mechanism of action of pilocarpine?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic agonist

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic agonist, pilocarpine stimulates muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, which are categorized into 5 subtypes (M1-M5) and are G-protein coupled receptors.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

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  • Question 16 - A study is being conducted to investigate the effectiveness of ibuprofen in providing...

    Correct

    • A study is being conducted to investigate the effectiveness of ibuprofen in providing pain relief for individuals with recent rotator cuff injuries. A total of 350 participants are recruited and randomly assigned to either the ibuprofen or placebo group. After a few hours of taking the medication, participants are asked about their pain relief experience. The results show that out of 200 participants who took ibuprofen, 120 reported significant pain relief, while only 30 out of 150 participants who took the placebo reported the same. What is the relative risk of experiencing pain relief with ibuprofen compared to the placebo?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 17 - A woman presents to the GP after taking a home pregnancy test, which...

    Correct

    • A woman presents to the GP after taking a home pregnancy test, which revealed that she is 10 weeks pregnant. She has come to ask whether she should start taking folic acid supplements, as she has heard that this can help the baby develop.

      Folic acid helps to prevent neural tube defects. The GP explains that folic acid is only advised during the first trimester of pregnancy, as the neural tube closes around 28 days after conception.

      Your Answer: Week 4

      Explanation:

      The process of neural tube closure takes place during the fourth week of development. Prior to this, during week 3, gastrulation occurs and the neural plate is formed. Primary neurulation, which involves the folding and fusion of the lateral edges of the neural plate to form the neural tube, occurs during week 4. Folic acid is believed to play a role in this process. From week 5 onwards, the central nervous system continues to develop and expand through secondary neurulation and axon guidance.

      Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.

      As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.

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  • Question 18 - A 39-year-old man visits his GP with a recent cut on his left...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man visits his GP with a recent cut on his left forearm surrounded by erythema. The GP prescribes a short course of antibiotics. However, after 5 days, the man goes to the local hospital with a 24-hour history of progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits except for a temperature of 38.2 ÂșC. The erythema has spread to his left axilla. Blood cultures reveal the presence of a bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed by the GP?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The resistance mechanism of penicillins involves the production of beta-lactamase, an enzyme that breaks down the beta-lactam ring present in the antibiotic. This confers resistance to bacteria that possess the enzyme, rendering the antimicrobial therapy ineffective. In this case, the patient’s infection worsened due to the breakdown of amoxicillin by beta-lactamase. However, co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, can protect amoxicillin from beta-lactamase activity. On the other hand, ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, and minocycline belong to different classes of antibiotics and are not affected by beta-lactamase activity.

      Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms

      Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. However, over time, bacteria have developed mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics. These mechanisms vary depending on the type of antibiotic being used.

      For example, penicillins are often rendered ineffective by bacterial penicillinase, an enzyme that cleaves the ÎČ-lactam ring in the antibiotic. Cephalosporins, another type of antibiotic, can become ineffective due to changes in the penicillin-binding-proteins (PBPs) that they target. Macrolides, on the other hand, can be resisted by bacteria that have undergone post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      Fluoroquinolones can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations to DNA gyrase or efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of the antibiotic within the cell. Tetracyclines can be resisted by bacteria that have increased efflux through plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection. Aminoglycosides can be resisted by bacteria that have plasmid-encoded genes for acetyltransferases, adenyltransferases, and phosphotransferases.

      Sulfonamides can be resisted by bacteria that increase the synthesis of PABA or have mutations in the gene encoding dihydropteroate synthetase. Vancomycin can be resisted by bacteria that have altered the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits to which the antibiotic binds. Rifampicin can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations altering residues of the rifampicin binding site on RNA polymerase. Finally, isoniazid and pyrazinamide can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations in the katG and pncA genes, respectively, which reduce the ability of the catalase-peroxidase to activate the pro-drug.

      In summary, bacteria have developed various mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, making it increasingly difficult to treat bacterial infections.

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  • Question 19 - A pair comes to your endocrine clinic. The woman has achondroplasia and her...

    Incorrect

    • A pair comes to your endocrine clinic. The woman has achondroplasia and her partner does not. They want to discuss with you the factors to consider before having a baby. What is accurate about achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: There are many available treatments for achondroplasia

      Correct Answer: It is unlikely to respond to growth hormone therapy

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is a condition that causes dwarfism due to a growth disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, and most affected individuals can expect to have a normal lifespan. However, if both parents have achondroplasia, there is a 25% chance that their child will inherit two copies of the gene, which can be fatal either before or shortly after birth. The cause of achondroplasia is a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor (FGF) receptor, which means that growth hormone therapy is unlikely to be effective.

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that causes short stature due to abnormal cartilage development. It is caused by a mutation in the FGFR-3 gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The condition is characterized by short limbs with shortened fingers, a large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis. In most cases, it occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age being a risk factor.

      There is currently no specific treatment for achondroplasia. However, some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures, which involve the use of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. It is important to have a clearly defined need and end point for these procedures in order to achieve success.

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  • Question 20 - Which one of the following statements regarding the use of the p-value in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the use of the p-value in statistical hypothesis testing is correct?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected if the p-value is smaller than or equal to the significance level

      Explanation:

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 21 - A randomized, double-blinded clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the effect of a...

    Correct

    • A randomized, double-blinded clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the effect of a new anti-inflammatory drug on the pain relief of patients with osteoarthritis. A total of 200 patients with osteoarthritis were randomly assigned to the drug or placebo group. For the study, 100 patients were assigned to each group. The two groups were then followed for six months for the development of adverse effects. Severe gastrointestinal bleeding was reported as a rare side effect of the drug therapy, but the difference between the two groups was not statistically significant (p=0.08). The same side effect was reported in several small clinical trials of this drug (p=0.05-0.10).

      What is the most likely reason for the failure to detect a significant statistical difference in the occurrence of gastrointestinal bleeding between the treatment and placebo groups?

      Your Answer: Small sample size

      Explanation:

      A larger sample size can enhance the power of a study and reduce the likelihood of type II error. Power refers to the ability to detect a difference in the outcome of interest between two groups, if such a difference exists. With a bigger sample size, the study’s power to detect a difference increases, and the p-value can reach statistical significance.
      Attrition bias is a systematic error that arises from unequal loss of participants in a randomized controlled trial. However, since patients are not lost to follow-up in this study design, the likelihood of attrition bias is low.
      The Hawthorne effect is a type of reactivity where individuals modify their behavior in response to being observed. This effect does not occur in double-blinded randomized clinical trials.
      Double-blinding techniques can reduce the potential for observer’s bias.
      Increasing the follow-up period may not necessarily increase the power of the study, as side effects can occur in susceptible individuals relatively early after starting the therapy.

      Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies

      Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.

      Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.

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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 8.2 ng/mL. He wants to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 8.2 ng/mL. He wants to know the likelihood of having prostate cancer.

      What statistical parameter is required to answer his query?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value (PPV) is the probability that a patient has a condition if the diagnostic test is positive. For example, if a patient has a raised PSA level, the PPV would be the chance that they have prostate cancer. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the sum of true positives and false positives.

      On the other hand, the negative predictive value (NPV) is the probability that a patient does not have the condition if the screening test is negative. For instance, if a patient has low PSA levels, the NPV would be the likelihood that they do not have prostate cancer.

      The likelihood ratio is a measure of the usefulness of a diagnostic test. It indicates how much more likely a person with the disease is to have a positive test result compared to a person without the disease. If a patient has already been diagnosed with prostate cancer, a positive likelihood ratio would suggest that the probability of having high PSA levels is higher in patients with prostate cancer than those without it.

      Finally, sensitivity is the proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the genetics clinic with a history of poor...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the genetics clinic with a history of poor coordination and speech difficulties that have been getting worse over the past year, indicating a possible inherited ataxia disorder.

      Despite testing for known ataxia genes, no mutations are found. As a result, a whole exome sequence is conducted to search for less common mutations, which reveals a silent mutation in a codon on chromosome 11.

      How would you best describe this mutation?

      Your Answer: A single base mutation that does not change the amino acid, and does not affect the phenotype or transcription of that gene

      Explanation:

      A silent mutation is a type of mutation where a single base is altered, but the resulting amino acid remains the same. This is often due to the degeneracy of the genetic code, where multiple codons can code for the same amino acid. This type of mutation is considered silent because it does not affect the downstream processing or phenotype of the gene.

      On the other hand, a synonymous mutation is also a single base change that does not alter the amino acid, but it can cause changes in downstream processing or phenotype. This type of mutation can lead to conditions such as Phenylketonuria and von Hippel-Lindau disease.

      A missense mutation is a single base change that alters the resulting amino acid, leading to changes in protein function and potentially causing disease. Meanwhile, a neutral missense mutation is a single base change that alters the amino acid but does not affect protein function or phenotype.

      Types of DNA Mutations

      There are different types of DNA mutations that can occur in an organism’s genetic material. One type is called a silent mutation, which does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. This type of mutation often occurs in the third position of a codon, where the change in the DNA base does not affect the final amino acid produced.

      Another type of mutation is called a nonsense mutation, which results in the formation of a stop codon. This means that the protein being produced is truncated and may not function properly.

      A missense mutation is a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein. This can have significant effects on the protein’s function, as the altered amino acid may not be able to perform its intended role.

      Finally, a frameshift mutation occurs when a number of nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence. This can cause a shift in the reading frame of the DNA, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream. These mutations can have serious consequences for the organism, as the resulting protein may be non-functional or even harmful.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man visits the medical center with symptoms of low-grade fever, fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits the medical center with symptoms of low-grade fever, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss of 4 pounds in the past month. He reports having a persistent cough and a sore throat. Upon further questioning, he discloses a history of intravenous drug use. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg, a heart rate of 92 beats per minute, and a temperature of 37.5 ÂșC. Laboratory results reveal a CD4 count of 380/mm 3.

      Which cytokine is most likely decreased in this patient?

      Your Answer: IL-2

      Explanation:

      IL-2 plays a crucial role in stimulating the growth and differentiation of T cells, specifically CD4 cells, which are responsible for fighting infections in the body. A decrease in CD4 count may indicate a decrease in IL-2 levels in the patient. On the other hand, IL-1 is primarily involved in acute inflammation and fever induction, while IL-4 stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, on the other hand, is responsible for the stimulation and production of eosinophils.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency and is prescribed oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency and is prescribed oral iron supplements. As a first-time user, she is concerned about other medications, foods, and drinks that may hinder the absorption of iron. Can you suggest any substance that can enhance the absorption of her prescribed supplement?

      Your Answer: Proton pump inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Gastric acid

      Explanation:

      Iron absorption is increased by gastric acid.

      To test the candidates’ ability to identify substances that enhance the absorption of iron supplements, this question requires them to select the correct option, which is gastric acid. This is because gastric acid lowers the pH of the stomach, facilitating the conversion of iron into forms that are more easily absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract. The key idea here is that substances that decrease stomach pH generally aid in iron absorption, while those that raise stomach pH tend to impede it.

      Antacids are not the correct answer. They contain alkaline ions that neutralize stomach acid, leading to an increase in pH. When antacids are taken with iron supplements, iron forms macromolecular polymers that reduce its absorption through the gastrointestinal tract.

      Milk is not the correct answer. Some substances in milk, such as calcium, have been found to decrease the amount of iron that the body absorbs. Therefore, it is recommended to take iron supplements two hours after consuming milk or dairy products.

      Proton pump inhibitors are not the correct answer. They interfere with iron absorption by reducing gastric acid secretion. The decrease in gastric acid leads to an increase in gastric pH, making it more difficult for iron to be absorbed.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and is planning to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and is planning to start a family soon. She has come to see you, her GP, to discuss the treatment options for epilepsy and which medications are safe to take during pregnancy.

      Which of the following drugs poses the highest risk of causing neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Women of childbearing potential should not be prescribed sodium valproate due to its high association with neural tube defects, as well as craniofacial abnormalities and distal digit hypoplasia. Among antiepileptics, it has the highest rate of causing these defects.

      Harmful Drugs and Medical Conditions for Developing Fetuses

      During pregnancy, certain drugs and medical conditions can harm the developing fetus. These harmful substances and conditions are known as teratogens. Some examples of teratogens include ACE inhibitors, alcohol, aminoglycosides, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, cocaine, diethylstilbesterol, lithium, maternal diabetes mellitus, smoking, tetracyclines, thalidomide, and warfarin.

      ACE inhibitors can cause renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to craniofacial abnormalities. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity. Carbamazepine can result in neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome. Cocaine use during pregnancy can lead to intrauterine growth retardation and preterm labor. Diethylstilbesterol can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma. Lithium can result in Ebstein’s anomaly, which is an atrialized right ventricle. Maternal diabetes mellitus can cause macrosomia, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios, preterm labor, and caudal regression syndrome. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to preterm labor and intrauterine growth retardation. Tetracyclines can cause discolored teeth. Thalidomide can result in limb reduction defects. Valproate can cause neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Warfarin can lead to craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these harmful substances and conditions to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.

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  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history of dizziness and headache. He has no significant past medical history and is on no medications. He is studying computer science at university and lives in poorly ventilated student accommodation with eight other people. He follows a vegetarian diet.

      His observations are heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 23/minute, oxygen saturation 96% on room air, blood pressure 98/66 mmHg and temperature 37.2ÂșC.

      On examination, he has an ataxic gait. Neurological, cardiovascular, abdominal, ENT and respiratory examinations are otherwise normal.

      Urinalysis is normal.

      An ECG demonstrated sinus tachycardia.

      A chest x-ray is unremarkable.

      Blood gas:

      pH 7.25 (7.35-7.45)
      PaO2 10.2 kPa (10-14)
      PaCO2 5.4kPa (4.5-6)
      HCO3 15 mmol/L (22-26)
      SaO2 87% (94-98%)
      Hb 112g/L (130-180)
      Lactate 3.1 mmol/L (<2)
      BE -3.5 (-2 - +2)
      Glucose 5.3 mmol/L (4-6)
      COHb 26% (<2%)
      MetHb 0.2% (< 2%)

      A CT head is normal.

      What is the likely diagnosis and what could explain the low oxygen saturation reading on the arterial blood gas?

      Your Answer: Left shift of oxygen dissociation curve

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide poisoning results in a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, leading to a decrease in the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. This is due to the high affinity of carbon monoxide for haemoglobin, which competes with oxygen for binding. As a result, oxygen delivery to the tissues is impaired, causing hypoxia. The patient’s elevated carboxyhaemoglobin level, dissociation between peripheral and blood gas saturations, lactic acidosis, dizziness, headache, and ataxia all indicate carbon monoxide poisoning. The decreased partial pressure of environmental oxygen, alveolar destruction, and low haemoglobin are not the causes of his hypoxia.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.

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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Campylobacter jejuni infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of Campylobacter jejuni infection?

      Your Answer: It is the commonest cause of infective diarrhoea arising from non viral causes

      Correct Answer: Pyrexia is unusual

      Explanation:

      Before the onset of abdominal pain (which can resemble appendicitis) and diarrhea, there is a preliminary phase of fever and overall discomfort.

      Campylobacter is a type of bacteria that is responsible for causing the majority of cases of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. It is a Gram-negative bacillus that is spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, as well as diarrhoea that is often bloody and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the symptoms are severe or if the patient is immunocompromised. Clinical Knowledge summaries also suggest antibiotics if the symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day, or if the symptoms have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. However, the BNF notes that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection can include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis.

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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after having a seizure. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after having a seizure. He recently immigrated from Latin America and has been generally healthy. He reports experiencing diarrhea for the past three days but has not had any other health concerns.

      Upon examination, multiple cystic lesions are found on a head CT.

      What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Upon arrival at the Emergency Department, a new immigrant from Latin America experienced a seizure. A CT scan of the head revealed the presence of numerous cystic lesions.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 30 - A 13-year-old girl, who recently moved from South America to Canada, is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl, who recently moved from South America to Canada, is brought to the hospital with jaw swelling. She is immediately referred to a specialist team for further evaluation. Upon testing, she is found to be positive for the Epstein-Barr virus. A sample of the mass is taken for microscopy, revealing a characteristic 'starry sky' appearance.

      What oncogene is commonly linked to the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: BCL-2

      Correct Answer: c-MYC

      Explanation:

      Burkitt’s lymphoma is often linked to the c-MYC gene, which codes for a transcription factor. The diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma is supported by the patient’s demographics, presentation, positive Epstein-Barr virus finding, and the characteristic starry sky appearance on microscopy. This cancer is typically associated with a reciprocal translocation involving the c-MYC gene, usually t(8:14).

      The ABL gene codes for a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and is commonly involved in the fusion gene BCR-ABL1, which is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia.

      BCL-2 codes for an apoptosis regulatory protein and is frequently mutated in follicular lymphoma.

      RAS genes code for small proteins involved in G-protein coupled receptor signal transduction and are often mutated in various cancers, particularly pancreatic cancer.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      42.3
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