00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement and presents to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement and presents to the orthopaedic surgery ward. He has osteoarthritis and hypertension and is currently being treated for an episode of giant cell arteritis that occurred four months ago with 20 mg prednisolone daily. This will be his first surgery and he is feeling anxious about the anaesthetic. What is the most crucial medication to prescribe before the operation?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on chronic glucocorticoid therapy, such as prednisolone for the treatment of conditions like giant cell arteritis, may require hydrocortisone supplementation before undergoing surgery. This is because long-term use of glucocorticoids can suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, which can lead to inadequate adrenal gland response during times of stress, such as surgery. The amount of hydrocortisone required depends on the type of surgery being performed, with minor procedures under local anesthesia not requiring supplementation. For moderate to major surgeries, 50mg to 100mg of hydrocortisone should be given before induction, followed by additional doses every 8 hours for 24 hours. Diazepam should not be routinely given to control anxiety, and there is no indication that this patient requires additional medications for her hypertension preoperatively. Instead, the patient may benefit from speaking with someone who can provide reassurance about the procedure.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his first metatarsophalangeal joint. He reports swelling and tenderness of the joint and a sample of fluid is sent for microscopy. He has a medical history of hypertension and duodenal ulcers.
      What is the most suitable initial medication to prescribe?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Managing Gout: Treatment Options and Contraindications

      Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the synovial fluid. Chronic hyperuricemia is the primary cause of this condition. The acute management of gout involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or colchicine as first-line treatment. However, the maximum dose of NSAIDs should be prescribed until 1-2 days after the symptoms have settled, and gastroprotection may also be necessary. Colchicine has a slower onset of action and may cause diarrhea as a side effect. Oral steroids or intra-articular steroid injections may be considered if NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated. Allopurinol is not recommended during the acute phase but is useful for preventing recurrent attacks of gout. Diclofenac and indomethacin are contraindicated in patients with duodenal ulcers, and colchicine is a suitable alternative for the treatment of gout. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not useful in the treatment of gout as it does not have anti-inflammatory or analgesic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine by her doctor for stage 2 hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine by her doctor for stage 2 hypertension. She is worried about the possible side-effects as she is already taking three other medications.

      What is a common side-effect of amlodipine?

      Your Answer: Tinnitus

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Headache is a frequent side-effect of calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine. Bradycardia, cough, and hyperhidrosis are not side-effects of calcium-channel blockers, but rather of beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium-channel blockers, respectively.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old hypertensive man with asthma, heart failure and peptic ulcer disease reports...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old hypertensive man with asthma, heart failure and peptic ulcer disease reports experiencing yellowish-green halos for the past week. He has also been feeling nauseous and has lost his appetite. Despite his conditions being well controlled, physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following medications that he is taking could potentially be responsible for his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects and Risks of Medications

      Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors
      Digoxin toxicity can cause vague symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, confusion, and fatigue, as well as dysrhythmias. Risk factors for toxicity include imbalances in potassium, magnesium, and calcium levels.

      Salbutamol: Common Side Effects and Hypokalaemia
      Salbutamol may cause fine tremors, anxiety, headaches, and muscle cramps. Prolonged use or high doses can lead to hypokalaemia, which is especially concerning in patients with renal failure.

      Enalapril: Common Side Effects and Serious Risks
      Enalapril therapy may cause raised serum creatinine, dizziness, hypotension, syncope, and dry cough. The most serious risk is angio-oedema, which can obstruct airways.

      Ranitidine: Common Side Effects
      H2-receptor antagonists like ranitidine may cause diarrhea, dizziness, and headaches.

      Aspirin: Contraindications
      Aspirin should be avoided in patients with a history of hypersensitivity to NSAIDs or gastritis/peptic ulcer disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset palpitations and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset palpitations and breathlessness after breakfast. The ECG shows atrial fibrillation. The physician advises her that she has an elevated risk of stroke and recommends starting anticoagulant medication. What scoring system is used to assess stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: CHA2DS2-VASc

      Explanation:

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is utilized for assessing the necessity of anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation. The HAS-BLED score estimates the likelihood of major bleeding in patients receiving anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation. The DRAGON score predicts the 3-month outcome in patients with ischemic stroke who are treated with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The ABCD2 score is employed to determine the risk of stroke in patients who have experienced a suspected TIA.

      Common Scoring Systems in Medicine

      In medicine, there are various scoring systems used to assess and determine the severity of different conditions. These scoring systems help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and patient care. Some of the most commonly used scoring systems include the CHA2DS2-VASc for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, the ABCD2 for risk stratifying patients who have had a suspected TIA, and the NYHA for assessing heart failure severity.

      Other scoring systems include the DAS28 for measuring disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis, the Child-Pugh classification for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis, and the Wells score for estimating the risk of deep vein thrombosis. The MMSE is used to assess cognitive impairment, while the HAD and PHQ-9 are used to assess the severity of anxiety and depression symptoms. The GAD-7 is a screening tool for generalized anxiety disorder, and the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Score is used to screen for postnatal depression.

      Other scoring systems include the SCOFF questionnaire for detecting eating disorders, the AUDIT and CAGE for alcohol screening, and the FAST for identifying the symptoms of a stroke. The CURB-65 is used to assess the prognosis of a patient with pneumonia, while the Epworth Sleepiness Scale is used in the assessment of suspected obstructive sleep apnea. The IPSS and Gleason score are used to indicate prognosis in prostate cancer, while the APGAR assesses the health of a newborn immediately after birth. The Bishop score is used to help assess whether induction of labor will be required, and the Waterlow score assesses the risk of a patient developing a pressure sore. Finally, the FRAX is a risk assessment tool developed by WHO which calculates a patient’s 10-year risk of developing an osteoporosis-related fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Morphine modified-release 40 mg twice daily

      Correct Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments

      When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.

      For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.

      It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.

      When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.

      Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.

      In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      409.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, runny nose, watery eyes, diarrhoea, and vomiting. The patient admits to ingesting a pesticide in an attempt to commit suicide. What other clinical manifestations should be anticipated in this individual?

      Your Answer: Dilated pupils

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      This individual is displaying symptoms consistent with organophosphate poisoning, which is a type of pesticide. Organophosphate pesticides work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, which affects the nervous system. This causes an accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve synapses and neuromuscular junctions, resulting in excessive stimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. As a result, bradycardia is a common symptom. The recommended treatment for organophosphate poisoning is atropine, which should be administered every 10-20 minutes until secretions dry up and the heart rate increases to 80-90 beats per minute.

      The options of dilated pupils, dry mouth, and hallucinations are incorrect. Organophosphate poisoning typically causes miosis (constricted pupils) due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic system, excessive secretions including salivation, bronchial secretions, diarrhea, and vomiting. While confusion, agitation, and coma may occur in severe cases, hallucinations are not a common symptom.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital five days ago due to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and spinal stenosis.

      Despite receiving optimal treatment on the ward, including IV co-amoxiclav, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. He currently scores 11 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, and his pupils are reactive to light and measure 3 mm bilaterally. He has been unable to take his morning medications, which include morphine sulphate modified release (Zomorph) 30mg twice daily, oramorph 10mg as required, and metoclopramide 10 mg three times a day. In the past 24 hours, he has used 4 doses of PRN oramorph.

      During the consultant ward round, it is decided that the patient should receive end-of-life care. He is currently comfortable, with no signs of hallucinations, pruritus, or myoclonus. The nurse requests that you convert his medications to a syringe driver.

      What medications will you prescribe?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + oxycodone 100mg s/c

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + morphine 50mg s/c

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A Foundation Year 1 doctor stops you in the corridor to ask for...

    Incorrect

    • A Foundation Year 1 doctor stops you in the corridor to ask for some advice about prescribing and unwanted pharmacological effects of drugs in pregnancy.
      Which of the following list of potential pharmacological risks of drugs in pregnancy is true?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) - maintains patency of ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Aspirin : kernicterus

      Explanation:

      Various drugs can have negative effects on pregnancy beyond the risk of birth defects. For example, aspirin should be used with caution in the third trimester due to the potential for impaired platelet function, hemorrhage, and increased blood loss during labor. High doses of aspirin may also lead to intrauterine growth restriction, closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns. Similarly, ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy unless absolutely necessary, as they can negatively impact fetal and neonatal blood pressure control and renal function. Thiazide diuretics should not be used to treat gestational hypertension, as they can cause neonatal thrombocytopenia, bone marrow suppression, jaundice, electrolyte imbalances, and hypoglycemia. NSAIDs should also be avoided during pregnancy unless the potential benefits outweigh the risks, as they can lead to closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus and delayed onset and increased duration of labor. Other drugs, such as b-blockers and carbimazole, can also have negative effects on pregnancy and should be used with caution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old patient who is 30 weeks' pregnant with her first baby is...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient who is 30 weeks' pregnant with her first baby is urgently referred by her GP to the Obstetric/Endocrine Joint Clinic with newly diagnosed symptomatic hyperthyroidism.
      Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of maternal thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy with carbimazole or propylthiouracil?

      Your Answer: Propylthiouracil crosses the placenta

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Management During Pregnancy: Considerations and Recommendations

      Pregnancy can have a significant impact on thyroid function, and thyroid dysfunction can occur in many pregnant women due to pathological processes. Anti-thyroid drugs such as propylthiouracil and carbimazole can cross the placenta, potentially causing fetal goitre and hypothyroidism. It is recommended to keep the dose of these drugs as low as possible to maintain euthyroidism during pregnancy. Neonatal goitre and hypothyroidism can occur even with low-dose anti-thyroid drugs, and the neonatal goitre is permanent if it occurs.

      Block-and-replace therapy with carbimazole and thyroxine is appropriate maternal management only in the treatment of isolated fetal hyperthyroidism caused by maternal TSH receptor antibody production in a mother who previously received ablative therapy for Graves’ disease. The neonatal goitre and hypothyroidism normalise in a few days’ time, and the confirmatory tests will come back normal even if the TSH is high on screening.

      Specialist assessment is needed to differentiate between Graves’ hyperthyroidism and gestational hyperthyroidism. Women treated with anti-thyroid drugs may need to have the drug or dose amended by a specialist at the diagnosis of pregnancy, because these drugs cross the placenta. Women with current or previous Graves’ disease should have their TSH receptor antibody levels measured by the specialist. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are present in breast milk, but this does not preclude breastfeeding as long as neonatal development is closely monitored and the lowest effective dose is used.

      In summary, thyroid management during pregnancy requires careful consideration and monitoring to ensure the health of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of reflux oesophagitis. You decide to initiate...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of reflux oesophagitis. You decide to initiate treatment with lansoprazole, as she has already made lifestyle modifications but has not experienced complete relief from her reflux symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of lansoprazole?

      Your Answer: It inhibits the H+/K+ ATP ‘proton pump’

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of medication that reduces the production of gastric acid by irreversibly blocking the hydrogen/potassium adenosine triphosphatase enzyme system, also known as the gastric proton pump. This is achieved by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase proton pump, not the H+/Na+ or H+/Ca2+ ATP proton pumps. PPIs, such as lansoprazole and omeprazole, are more effective than H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine and are commonly used to treat peptic ulcer disease, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and as part of the triple therapy regimen for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori. Antihistamines, on the other hand, act on histamine receptors such as the H1 and H2 receptors, which are found in smooth muscle, vascular endothelial cells, and the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was prescribed medication but a few days later he complained of stomach cramps and loose stools.
      Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Common Oral Diabetic Medications

      Managing diabetes often involves the use of oral medications to help control blood sugar levels. However, these medications can come with side effects that need to be considered when choosing a treatment plan. Here are some common side effects of four oral diabetic medications:

      Metformin: The most common side effects of metformin are abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, nausea, taste disturbance, and vomiting. There is also a risk of developing lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with a history of heart failure and concomitant use of drugs that can acutely impair renal function.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a less likely option due to its potential to exacerbate diabetes and cause hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in certain patients. It can also cause urinary retention in patients with enlarged prostates.

      Gliclazide: Gliclazide can encourage weight gain and may cause hypoglycemia if the dosage is excessive.

      Pioglitazone: Pioglitazone should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease or in combination with insulin due to an increased risk of heart failure, particularly in elderly people.

      It is important to be familiar with these side effects to ensure patient compliance with medication and to choose the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a chest infection. He is currently taking amiodarone, warfarin, and simvastatin. Which antibiotic should be avoided, if possible?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.

      Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman....

    Correct

    • During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman. Her vision is not affected. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Both corneal opacities and optic neuritis can be caused by amiodarone therapy.

      There are certain drugs that can cause problems with the eyes. For example, steroids can lead to the development of cataracts, while amiodarone and indomethacin can cause corneal opacities. Ethambutol, amiodarone, and metronidazole are known to cause optic neuritis. Additionally, chloroquine and quinine can result in retinopathy. It’s important to note that sildenafil, a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, can cause both blue discoloration and non-arteritic anterior ischemic neuropathy. It’s crucial to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any ocular problems arise while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old-man comes to the emergency department with a 10-hour history of colicky...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old-man comes to the emergency department with a 10-hour history of colicky abdominal pain, abdominal distension, constipation and an inability to pass flatus. He reports feeling nauseous but has not vomited.
      What should not be done in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: IV metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide should be avoided in cases of bowel obstruction due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen the condition and even lead to perforation. Moclobemide, an antidepressant, may cause gastrointestinal upset but is not contraindicated in suspected bowel obstruction. Conservative management for bowel obstruction includes NG tube insertion, catheterization, and IV fluid resuscitation. Ondansetron, an antiemetic, can be useful in managing nausea. Opioid-based analgesia, such as pethidine and diamorphine, is effective in relieving obstruction-related pain despite its potential to reduce bowel motility. Intravenous fluids, such as Hartmann’s solution, are crucial in countering hypovolemia caused by fluid hypersecretion into the obstructed bowel lumen.

      Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.

      However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.

      Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man has an HbA1c of 54 mmol/mol after 3 months of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has an HbA1c of 54 mmol/mol after 3 months of lifestyle changes, following a previous reading of HbA1c of 52 mmol/mol. You suggest that he should begin taking metformin standard release in addition to lifestyle interventions. He has normal renal function and no other medical issues. You inform him of the possibility of gastrointestinal discomfort.

      What is the typical duration before considering increasing the dosage to alleviate these symptoms for this patient?

      Your Answer: 28 days

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to increase the dose of metformin gradually, with a minimum of one week between each increase.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a trial of treatment with nicorandil may be appropriate.
      Which of the following statements is true about the anti-anginal drug nicorandil?

      Your Answer: Headache affects <5% of patients using it

      Correct Answer: Oral ulceration is an unwanted effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects and Side Effects of Nicorandil

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina pectoris, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. While it is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the less common side effects of nicorandil is stomatitis and oral ulceration. This can be uncomfortable and may require medical attention. However, most patients do not experience this side effect.

      Nicorandil works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which reduces ventricular filling pressure and myocardial workload. This can be beneficial for patients with angina, but it can also cause hypotension (low blood pressure) in some cases.

      Another mechanism of action for nicorandil is its ability to activate ATP-dependent potassium channels in the mitochondria of the myocardium. This can help to improve cardiac function and reduce the risk of ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

      The most common side effect of nicorandil therapy is headache, which affects up to 48% of patients. This side effect is usually transient and can be managed by starting with a lower initial dose. Patients who are susceptible to headaches should be monitored closely.

      Finally, it is important to note that concomitant use of sildenafil (Viagra) with nicorandil should be avoided. This is because sildenafil can significantly enhance the hypotensive effect of nicorandil, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      In summary, nicorandil is a useful medication for treating angina, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and should always follow their doctor’s instructions for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for focal impaired awareness seizures. She drinks alcohol moderately. After three months, she experiences a series of seizures and her carbamazepine levels are found to be subtherapeutic. Despite being fully compliant, a pill-count reveals this. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Prescription of fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Auto-induction of liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces the P450 enzyme system, leading to increased metabolism of carbamazepine through auto-induction.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. He reports an increase in palpitations since starting a new medication. On examination, his ECG reveals a prolonged QT interval of 500 msec. What is the probable medication he is taking?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Prolonged QT interval syndrome can be caused by tricyclic antidepressants and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, with citalopram being particularly associated with this effect. As a result, the MHRA issued a warning on its use and reduced the maximum recommended daily dose from 80 mg to 40mg due to the dose-dependent nature of QT prolongation. Although not mandatory, some GPs may request an initial ECG before prescribing citalopram.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What factor is most likely to increase her risk of developing digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Liver impairment

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with hypokalaemia are more likely to experience digoxin toxicity.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. He reports taking 28 tablets, each containing 500 milligrams of paracetamol, in an attempt to end his life. However, he now expresses regret and desires full medical treatment.

      As the healthcare provider, you determine that a paracetamol level is necessary to guide treatment with acetylcysteine. What is the earliest time frame after ingestion of the tablets that a paracetamol level can be utilized for treatment guidance?

      Your Answer: 4 hours after ingestion

      Explanation:

      A plasma paracetamol level taken within four hours of ingestion cannot be accurately interpreted. This is because the drug is still being absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract during this time, which can result in an underestimation of the total ingestion of paracetamol. To obtain an accurate reading, it is important to wait until at least four hours have passed before taking a blood sample and plotting it on the treatment nomogram.

      For patients who present within one hour of ingestion, activated charcoal may be administered to reduce absorption of the drug. However, a paracetamol level taken at this stage may not provide much useful information.

      In cases where the ingestion time is unknown or the overdose was taken over a period of more than an hour, acetylcysteine treatment may be initiated regardless of the paracetamol level.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following statements is true about the cause of this cough? Please select one option.

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors increase bronchial mucus secretion

      Correct Answer: They affect the breakdown of bradykinin within the lungs

      Explanation:

      The Effects of ACE Inhibitors on the Lungs

      ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. While they are generally well-tolerated, they can have some effects on the lungs. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – ACE inhibitors can increase the concentration of bradykinin within the lungs, which can lead to a persistent dry cough in some patients.
      – Unlike beta blockers, ACE inhibitors do not cause bronchospasm. In fact, they may be a good choice for patients with asthma or other respiratory conditions.
      – Dysgeusia, or a metallic taste in the mouth, is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors. This is more common with captopril than with other drugs in this class.
      – ACE inhibitors do not increase bronchial mucus secretion.
      – While ACE inhibitors do cause vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure, they are not associated with pulmonary congestion.

      Overall, ACE inhibitors are generally safe and effective medications for treating hypertension and heart failure. However, patients should be aware of these potential effects on the lungs and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining that a few hours ago he broke up with his girlfriend and while having an argument took 20 of his mother's tablets. He is worried and says he is experiencing muffled hearing with bouts of ringing on both sides. Vital signs were all normal apart from a respiratory rate of 28 per minute.
      An overdose of which medication is most likely?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Tinnitus could be an early indication of an aspirin overdose, as salicylate toxicity can cause respiratory alkalosis and subsequently metabolic acidosis within a few hours. The patient’s symptoms suggest the former, and the presence of tinnitus further supports this diagnosis.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 85-year-old woman presents with a history of falls. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents with a history of falls. She has a medical history of osteoporosis, constipation, frequent urinary tract infections, ischaemic heart disease, and urge incontinence. Upon conducting a comprehensive assessment, you determine that her falls are likely due to a combination of physical frailty, poor balance, and medication burden. Which medication should be discontinued first?

      Your Answer: Alendronic acid

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      To avoid the risk of falls, it is not recommended to administer oxybutynin to frail elderly individuals. Instead, safer alternatives such as solifenacin and tolterodine should be considered. Mirabegron, a newer medication, may also be a viable option as it is believed to have fewer anti-cholinergic side effects. Discontinuing laxatives may not be helpful if the patient is still experiencing constipation. However, prescribing alendronic acid for osteoporosis and aspirin for ischaemic heart disease is appropriate given the patient’s medical history and risk of falls. While the use of trimethoprim as long-term prophylaxis for urinary tract infections is controversial, it should not be the first intervention to be discontinued.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old female is hospitalized due to a pulmonary embolism. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old female is hospitalized due to a pulmonary embolism. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, and schizophrenia. The patient is taking ramipril, olanzapine, metformin, gliclazide, and sodium valproate. The junior doctors are hesitant to start her on warfarin due to a potential interaction that could affect the dosage. Which medication is causing this interaction?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that are disrupting her sleep. She is experiencing irregular and lighter periods. She has not undergone a hysterectomy and is interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?

      Your Answer: Systemic combined cyclical HRT

      Explanation:

      What are the main factors to consider when determining the appropriate HRT regime? How would you classify a patient who is still having periods? What is the recommended HRT regime for this patient?

      To determine the correct HRT regime, it is important to consider whether the patient has a uterus, whether they are perimenopausal or menopausal, and whether a systemic or local effect is needed. A patient who is still having periods is considered perimenopausal, as menopause is defined as 12 months after the last menstrual period. For this patient, the recommended HRT regime would be combined oestrogen and progestogen cyclical HRT. Cyclical HRT is preferred in perimenopausal women as it produces predictable withdrawal bleeding, while continuous regimens can cause unpredictable bleeding. Systemic oestrogen-only HRT is not appropriate for a woman with a uterus as it increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen cream or pessary would only provide a local effect and would be useful for urogenital symptoms such as vaginal dryness or dyspareunia.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with his roommate for the past few weeks. What is the most prevalent symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      The most common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a headache. Severe toxicity can be identified by cherry red skin, which is typically observed after death.

      Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.

      To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.

      In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man with Down's syndrome presents to you with a recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with Down's syndrome presents to you with a recent diagnosis of essential hypertension. He is accompanied by his caregiver and expresses his fear of needles, requesting medication that does not require regular blood tests. Which of the following medications would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of renal function and electrolytes is necessary for both Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and Candesartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      7.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology/Therapeutics (13/30) 43%
Passmed