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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old UK born patient with end-stage kidney failure arrives at the emergency department complaining of sharp chest pain that subsides when sitting forward. The patient has not undergone dialysis yet. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that there is a widespread 'saddle-shaped' ST elevation and PR depression, leading to a diagnosis of pericarditis. What could be the probable cause of this pericarditis?
Your Answer: Uraemia
Explanation:There is no indication of trauma in patients with advanced renal failure prior to dialysis initiation.
ECG results do not indicate a recent heart attack.
The patient’s age decreases the likelihood of malignancy.
Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management
Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.
The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.
Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.
Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.
In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 2-day-old girl presents with sudden hypoxia, hypotension, and acidosis. Upon examination, pulses are found in the right upper limb but not in the left upper limb or legs. What congenital abnormality is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Anomalous pulmonary venous circulation
Correct Answer: Interruption of the aortic arch
Explanation:Circulatory collapse in newborns on day 1 is often caused by duct-dependent cardiac defects such as interruption of the aortic arch or left hypoplastic heart syndrome. These defects cause hypoxia, acidosis, and hypotension. Interruption of the aortic arch presents with upper limb pulses, while left hypoplastic heart syndrome presents with absent upper limb pulses. Anomalous pulmonary venous circulation and tetralogy of Fallot are not associated with early circulation collapse. Coarctation is a non-cyanotic defect that may be detected by weak femoral pulses, upper limb hypertension, or a pansystolic subclavicular/subscapular murmur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man undergoes a wide local excision for ductal carcinoma and is being evaluated for treatment based on the genetic profile of the tumour. What test is typically used to detect a mutated oncogene in this scenario?
Your Answer: Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Correct Answer: Polymerase chain reaction
Explanation:Reverse Transcriptase PCR
Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.
To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.
The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been diagnosed with asthma. Her father asks you about the cause of her symptoms. What is the best response?
Inflammation of the lining of the bronchioles causes obstruction of the flow of air out from the lungs. This inflammation is reversible so symptoms of asthma may be intermittent. There may also be increased mucus production and bronchial muscle constriction.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reversible inflammation of the lining of the small airways causing them to become narrower
Explanation:The bronchioles’ lining inflammation obstructs the outflow of air from the lungs, leading to asthma symptoms that may come and go. Additionally, there could be heightened mucus production and constriction of bronchial muscles.
Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.
Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.
Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following vessels does not directly drain into the inferior vena cava?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric vein
Explanation:The portal vein receives drainage from the superior mesenteric vein, while the right and left hepatic veins directly drain into it. This can result in significant bleeding in cases of severe liver lacerations.
Anatomy of the Inferior Vena Cava
The inferior vena cava (IVC) originates from the fifth lumbar vertebrae and is formed by the merging of the left and right common iliac veins. It passes to the right of the midline and receives drainage from paired segmental lumbar veins throughout its length. The right gonadal vein empties directly into the cava, while the left gonadal vein usually empties into the left renal vein. The renal veins and hepatic veins are the next major veins that drain into the IVC. The IVC pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of T8 and empties into the right atrium of the heart.
The IVC is related anteriorly to the small bowel, the first and third parts of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, the liver and bile duct, the right common iliac artery, and the right gonadal artery. Posteriorly, it is related to the right renal artery, the right psoas muscle, the right sympathetic chain, and the coeliac ganglion.
The IVC is divided into different levels based on the veins that drain into it. At the level of T8, it receives drainage from the hepatic vein and inferior phrenic vein before piercing the diaphragm. At the level of L1, it receives drainage from the suprarenal veins and renal vein. At the level of L2, it receives drainage from the gonadal vein, and at the level of L1-5, it receives drainage from the lumbar veins. Finally, at the level of L5, the common iliac vein merges to form the IVC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department following a car accident. While crossing the road, she was struck by a car's bumper, resulting in a forceful impact on her leg. Upon examination, it is observed that she has developed foot drop. Which nerve has been affected by the accident?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal nerve is responsible for providing both sensation and motor function to the lower leg. If this nerve is compressed or damaged, it can result in weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion, commonly known as foot drop. The nerve runs laterally and curves over the posterior rim of the fibula before dividing into the superficial and deep branches. These branches supply the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and peroneus tertius muscles, which work together to allow dorsiflexion of the foot. Due to its long course throughout the leg and superficial location, the common peroneal nerve is more vulnerable to injury, especially after a direct insult. It is important to note that the median nerve and pudendal nerves are not located in the leg.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman attends her regular appointment at the diabetes outpatient clinic. She has had diabetes for about 10 years and has been taking metformin regularly. She also has high blood pressure for which she takes lisinopril. Her latest HbA1c measurement was 7.9% and the physician recommends adding a second oral hypoglycemic to her treatment. The physician also invites the patient to participate in a trial for a new oral hypoglycemic being conducted by an internal medicine resident. The resident explains to the patient that they are testing a new class of oral hypoglycemic drugs and offers the patient the opportunity to enroll in the trial. After reviewing the information sheet provided by the resident, the patient agrees to participate in the trial. The resident then randomly assigns the patient to either the new drug or a placebo. The resident collects data from several patients, including this woman, and measures their fasting blood glucose every two weeks. After collecting all the data, the resident wants to determine if there is a difference in the average blood glucose level between the group of patients taking the new drug and the group taking the placebo. What is the most appropriate statistical test for the resident to use when analyzing the data?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T-test
Explanation:During his routine diabetes clinic visit, this individual was enrolled in a randomized controlled trial for a novel oral hypoglycemic medication. To compare the outcomes of two groups with distinct exposures, various methods can be employed. In the case of categorical data, such as determining whether the new drug had a specific impact or not, the variable would have only two potential values, and a suitable approach could be utilized.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of insomnia, sweating, tachycardia, and unintentional weight loss. During the examination, the doctor notices some exophthalmos. Her blood test results reveal a TSH level of 0.05 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 36 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). After further evaluation, she is diagnosed with Graves' disease, an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism by targeting self-antigens with autoantibodies.
What part of the antibody monomers is involved in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fab region
Explanation:The antigen binding sites of immunoglobulins are located within the Fab region, which is composed of a constant and variable domain from both heavy and light chains. The variable domain within the Fab region is responsible for determining antigen specificity and binding. The Fc region, which is consistent across each class of immunoglobulins, interacts with cell surface receptors and determines the class effect. The epitope, or the region of the antigen that binds the antibody, is specifically located within the Fab region. While both heavy and light chains contribute to antigen binding through their variable regions, neither is solely responsible.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male who recently completed chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia presents with exertional dyspnea, productive cough, occasional hemoptysis, and fevers.
On a chest x-ray, an intracavitary mass with an air-crescent in the periphery is observed in the upper lobe.
The patient is initiated on IV amphotericin.
What is the accurate explanation of how this medication functions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms a transmembrane channel that leads to monovalent ion leakage
Explanation:Amphotericin B functions by binding to ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes, and creating pores that lead to the destruction of the cell wall and subsequent death of the fungus. The drug’s effectiveness as a fungistatic or fungicidal agent depends on the concentration in body fluids and the susceptibility of the fungus.
Aminoglycosides operate by binding to the 30s ribosome subunit, causing mRNA misreading. This results in the production of abnormal peptides that accumulate within the cell and ultimately lead to its demise. These antibiotics are bactericidal in nature.
Rifampicin works by inhibiting RNA synthesis.
Cephalosporins disrupt the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by inhibiting the cross-linking of the peptidoglycan layer. This is achieved through competitive inhibition on PCB (penicillin-binding proteins).
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and prevents the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is a crucial precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway, and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. According to him, she was watching TV when she suddenly complained of a tingling sensation on the left side of her body. She then reported that her leg had gone numb. Her father mentions that both he and his sister have epilepsy. Given her altered spatial perception and sensation, you suspect that she may have experienced a seizure. What type of seizure is most probable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal lobe seizure
Explanation:Paresthesia is a symptom that can help identify a parietal lobe seizure.
When a patient experiences a parietal lobe seizure, they may feel a tingling sensation on one side of their body or even experience numbness in certain areas. This type of seizure is not very common and is typically associated with sensory symptoms.
On the other hand, occipital lobe seizures tend to cause visual disturbances like seeing flashes or floaters. Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations, which can affect the senses of hearing, taste, and smell. Additionally, they may cause repetitive movements like lip smacking or grabbing.
Absence seizures are more commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 10. These seizures are brief and cause the person to stop what they are doing and stare off into space with a blank expression. Fortunately, most children with absence seizures will outgrow them by adolescence.
Finally, frontal lobe seizures often cause movements of the head or legs and can result in a period of weakness after the seizure has ended.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class Ib agent
Explanation:The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 27-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident. Upon examination, it is discovered that she has a surgical neck fracture of the humerus on X-ray.
What is the structure that is most commonly at risk of damage with a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The most frequently occurring nerve injury in a surgical neck fracture of the humerus is damage to the axillary nerve. The radial nerve is at risk of injury in a mid shaft fracture of the humerus, as it passes through the radial groove. A supracondylar fracture of the humerus increases the likelihood of injury to the brachial artery, which can lead to volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You have been tasked with exploring the feasibility of establishing a program to assist elderly patients with multiple sclerosis in the community. What is the primary consideration in determining the amount of resources needed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to his doctor concerned about the color of his skin. He works as a fashion model and has noticed a slight yellowing of his skin. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to experiencing occasional right-sided abdominal pain that resolves on its own. Additionally, he has been experiencing itchy palms for the past three days. The patient has no significant medical history except for a recent chest infection. He remains healthy and active.
What is the cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:The use of macrolides, specifically erythromycin, can lead to drug-induced cholestasis. The patient in this scenario is exhibiting symptoms of cholestasis, which is likely caused by erythromycin. While erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat pneumonia, newer macrolides like azithromycin and clarithromycin are now preferred. While other medications can also cause cholestasis, there is no indication in this scenario that the patient is taking any of them, making erythromycin the most likely culprit.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient, who has a medical history of optic neuritis, visits the neurology clinic complaining of numbness and weakness in her left leg for the past few days. She mentions having experienced similar symptoms in her right arm about 7 months ago, which resolved spontaneously over a few days. Her symptoms worsen in hot weather. Upon neurological examination, weakness is observed in her left leg movements, but the rest of the examination is normal. What is the probable underlying pathophysiology of her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Demyelination
Explanation:The patient is experiencing optic neuritis and peripheral neurological symptoms that have occurred at different times and locations. These symptoms are indicative of multiple sclerosis, specifically affecting the optic nerves. The disease is caused by demyelination of the nervous system’s axons, both in the central and peripheral regions.
The patient’s symptoms come and go, with complete resolution in between, suggesting a relapsing-remitting pattern of multiple sclerosis.
Understanding Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the central nervous system, causing demyelination. It is more common in women and typically diagnosed in individuals aged 20-40 years. Interestingly, it is much more prevalent in higher latitudes, with a five-fold increase compared to tropical regions. Genetics also play a role, with a 30% concordance rate in monozygotic twins and a 2% concordance rate in dizygotic twins.
There are several subtypes of multiple sclerosis, including relapsing-remitting disease, which is the most common form and accounts for around 85% of patients. This subtype is characterized by acute attacks followed by periods of remission. Secondary progressive disease describes relapsing-remitting patients who have deteriorated and developed neurological signs and symptoms between relapses. Gait and bladder disorders are commonly seen in this subtype, and around 65% of patients with relapsing-remitting disease go on to develop secondary progressive disease within 15 years of diagnosis. Finally, primary progressive disease accounts for 10% of patients and is characterized by progressive deterioration from onset, which is more common in older individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A boy born 12 hours ago is observed to have a heart rate of 180 beats per minute. He was delivered via normal vaginal delivery without any complications. He has no fever and responds well to supportive care after 24 hours. What advice should be given to the mother?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There will be no long term consequences
Explanation:Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn (TTN) and its Consequences
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a condition that does not have any long-term consequences. During a normal delivery, the baby’s lungs get squeezed, which helps to remove fluid from the airspaces. However, during a caesarean section, this process does not occur, leading to a tachypnoeic response known as TTN in some infants. Although there are no signs of serious pathology, such as cyanosis, pyrexia, hypoglycaemia, or seizures, the neonate may take a few days to recover. After this, there are no further complications of TTN.
To protect children with chronic lung disease from respiratory syncytial virus and bronchiolitis, a viral vaccine is given before the winter. Chronic lung disease is usually caused by surfactant deficient lung disease with prolonged ventilation. It is important to note that TTN is not infectious in origin, and the neonate does not exhibit any other signs of infection. Although a collapsed lung can occur due to various reasons, it is not a part of the pathology of TTN.
In conclusion, TTN is a temporary condition that does not have any long-term consequences. It is important to monitor the neonate for any signs of serious pathology and provide appropriate treatment if necessary. Children with chronic lung disease should receive a viral vaccine to protect them from respiratory syncytial virus and bronchiolitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not found in the anterior mediastinum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thoracic duct
Explanation:The posterior and superior mediastinum contain the thoracic duct.
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old avid hiker complains of discomfort in her leg while ascending hills and using stairs. Which muscle is accountable for extending the hip?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:The gluteus medius and minimus muscles are responsible for hip abduction, while the gluteus maximus muscle externally rotates and extends the hip. The gluteus maximus muscle originates from the sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of the ilium, and inserts onto the gluteal tuberosity. The other gluteal muscles attach to the greater trochanter to facilitate abduction.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff injury. The GP intends to assess the subscapularis muscle. What is the most suitable special test to examine the subscapularis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lift-off test
Explanation:If a lift-off test shows abnormal results, it suggests that the subscapularis muscle may be involved.
Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems and can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction. The signs of a rotator cuff injury include tenderness over the anterior acromion and a painful arc of abduction. The painful arc of abduction is typically between 60 and 120 degrees for subacromial impingement, while for rotator cuff tears, the pain may be in the first 60 degrees. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further damage and improve shoulder function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has just had a thyroidectomy to treat medullary thyroid cancer. What is the clinical tumor marker used to screen for recurrence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcitonin
Explanation:Calcitonin is used in clinical practice to detect recurrence of medullary thyroid cancer. Thyroid function tests are not used for diagnosis or follow-up of malignancies. However, regular monitoring of TSH levels may be necessary for patients taking thyroxine.
Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloid filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The Trendelenburg test evaluates the integrity of which muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluteus medius
Explanation:The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function
The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.
When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.
To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.
It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most impacted by the frequency of a condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive predictive value
Explanation:Precision, sensitivity, accuracy, and specificity remain consistent regardless of the prevalence of the condition as they are inherent qualities. However, the positive predictive value may be impacted in situations where the prevalence of the condition is low. This is because a decrease in true positives results in a smaller numerator, leading to a lower PPV.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by his mother, reporting a deteriorating headache, vomiting, and muscle weakness that has been developing over the past few months. Upon examination, you observe ataxia and unilateral muscle weakness. The child is otherwise healthy, with no significant medical history, and is apyrexial. Imaging tests reveal a medulla oblongata brainstem tumor.
From which embryonic component does the affected structure originate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelencephalon
Explanation:The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla oblongata and the inferior part of the fourth ventricle. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and the superior part of the fourth ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.
Embryonic Development of the Nervous System
The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.
The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What does the term glycaemic index mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A measurement of how rapidly the carbohydrate in the food enters the blood
Explanation:The Glycaemic Index Method is a commonly used tool by dieticians and patients to determine the impact of different foods on blood glucose levels. This method involves calculating the area under a curve that shows the rise in blood glucose after consuming a test portion of food containing 50 grams of carbohydrate. The rationale behind using the GI index is that foods that cause a rapid and significant increase in blood glucose levels can lead to an increase in insulin production. This can put individuals at a higher risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain.
High GI foods are typically those that contain refined sugars and processed cereals, such as white bread and white rice. These foods can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose levels, leading to a surge in insulin production. On the other hand, low GI foods, such as vegetables, legumes, and beans, are less likely to cause a significant increase in blood glucose levels.
Overall, the Glycaemic Index Method can be helpful in making informed food choices and managing blood glucose levels. By choosing low GI foods, individuals can reduce their risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain, while still enjoying a healthy and balanced diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father, who reports that she has been unwell for a few weeks, refusing food and crying excessively. He mentions that she has lost weight and appears much paler than usual. Upon examination, a large mass is detected in the abdomen, crossing the midline.
A CT scan of the abdomen is scheduled after a urinalysis reveals elevated levels of homovanillic acid and vanillylmandelic acid. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is a common association?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: N-MYC proto-oncogene
Explanation:Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor that arises from sympathetic nervous tissue, with the adrenal glands being the most common primary site. It typically affects children under the age of 2 and can grow and spread rapidly, causing symptoms such as faltering growth, nausea and vomiting, and a palpable abdominal mass that often crosses the midline. Urinalysis can detect catecholamine derivatives, which can aid in diagnosis, and imaging is necessary to identify the site of origin.
Treatment depends on the tumor’s risk stratification, which is determined by staging and N-MYC status. Mutations in the N-MYC proto-oncogene are associated with a worse prognosis. APC gene mutations, which cause familial adenomatous polyposis and increase the risk of bowel cancer, are not linked to neuroblastoma. Similarly, the BRCA gene, which is implicated in breast and ovarian cancers, is not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated calcitonin levels may indicate medullary thyroid cancer but are not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated Ca-19-9 levels are seen in pancreatic or cholangiocarcinoma and are not associated with neuroblastoma.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.
If the cause of her positive trendelenburg's sign is neurological, which nerve is affected in Sarah?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right superior gluteal
Explanation:If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. This nerve is responsible for providing innervation to the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles, which are important for abducting and medially rotating the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For example, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive proper innervation, leading to instability and a drop in the left pelvis when standing on the right leg. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which are responsible for extending the thigh and performing lateral rotation.
The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function
The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.
When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.
To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.
It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease in hepatic blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The contents of the portal vein consist of digested products. Sinusoids distribute arterial and venous blood to the central veins of the liver lobules, which then empty into the hepatic veins and ultimately into the IVC. Unlike other hepatic veins, the caudate lobe directly drains into the IVC.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient comes in for a routine check-up for his type 2 diabetes. He reports feeling fatigued for the past couple of weeks. During the physical examination, the doctor notes mild conjunctival pallor. The patient has been on metformin for several years. The doctor suspects that the patient may have a vitamin deficiency caused by the metformin.
What vitamin is most likely to be deficient in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
Explanation:Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is a known side effect of long term metformin use, which can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency. The patient is likely experiencing anaemia as a result of this deficiency. A complete blood count can confirm the presence of megaloblastic anaemia, and treatment with vitamin B12 supplements should be beneficial. Deficiencies in vitamin B1 and B6 are not associated with anaemia or metformin use, while deficiencies in vitamin B9 and C can cause anaemia but are not caused by metformin use.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain and an unusual posture. During the examination, it is observed that her neck is fixed in a backward and lateral position, and her eyes are deviated upwards. She is unable to control her gaze. The patient has a history of paranoid schizophrenia and is currently taking olanzapine. What is the probable reason behind her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute dystonic reaction
Explanation:Antipsychotics have the potential to cause acute dystonic reactions, with oculogyric crisis being a significant form. Symptoms may include jaw spasm, tongue protrusion, and the eyes rolling upwards.
The recommended treatment for an oculogyric crisis is typically the administration of IV procyclidine and discontinuation of the medication responsible for the reaction.
Akathisia is another side effect of antipsychotics, characterized by restlessness and an inability to remain still.
Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect of antipsychotics that can manifest after several years of use. It often affects the face and involves involuntary, repetitive movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and grimacing.
Parkinsonism is a term used to describe antipsychotic side effects that mimic Parkinson’s disease, including cogwheel rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of tearing chest pain. He has a past medical history of poorly controlled hypertension. His observations show:
Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Pulse of 95 beats/min
Temperature of 37.3ÂșC
Blood pressure of 176/148 mmHg
Oxygen saturations of 97% on room air
Auscultation of the heart identifies a diastolic murmur, heard loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border.
What CT angiography findings would be expected in this patient's likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: False lumen of the ascending aorta
Explanation:A false lumen in the descending aorta is a significant indication of aortic dissection on CT angiography. This condition is characterized by tearing chest pain, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation, which can be detected through a diastolic murmur over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. The false lumen is formed due to a tear in the tunica intima of the aortic wall, which fills with a large volume of blood and is easily visible on angiographic CT.
Ballooning of the aortic arch is an incorrect answer as it refers to an aneurysm, which is a condition where the artery walls weaken and abnormally bulge out or widen. Aneurysms are prone to rupture and can have varying effects depending on their location.
Blurring of the posterior wall of the descending aorta is also an incorrect answer as it is a sign of a retroperitoneal, contained rupture of an aortic aneurysm. This condition may present with hypovolemic shock, hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea, leading to collapse.
Total occlusion of the left anterior descending artery is another incorrect answer as it would likely result in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Although chest pain is a symptom of both conditions, the nature of the pain and investigation findings make aortic dissection more likely. It is important to note that coronary arteries can only be viewed through coronary angiography, which involves injecting contrast directly into the coronary arteries using a catheter, and not through CT angiography.
Aortic dissection is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta. The Stanford classification divides it into type A, which affects the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B, which affects the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification divides it into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch and possibly beyond it distally, type II, which originates in and is confined to the ascending aorta, and type III, which originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.
To diagnose aortic dissection, a chest x-ray may show a widened mediastinum, but CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the investigation of choice. However, the choice of investigations should take into account the patient’s clinical stability, as they may present acutely and be unstable. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is more suitable for unstable patients who are too risky to take to the CT scanner.
The management of type A aortic dissection is surgical, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting intervention. On the other hand, type B aortic dissection is managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression. Complications of a backward tear include aortic incompetence/regurgitation and MI, while complications of a forward tear include unequal arm pulses and BP, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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