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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?Your Answer: Cerebellum metastasis
Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to you with concerns about her Depo-Provera injectable contraceptive. She has been experiencing irregular bleeding since starting the contraceptive 4 months ago. This is causing her personal inconvenience and putting a strain on her relationship. She denies any vaginal discharge and is in a stable relationship. She has had regular cervical smears and her last one was normal 2 years ago. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer: Trial of a short-term combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Unscheduled Bleeding in a Young Lady on Depo-Provera Injection
This patient is a young lady who has been experiencing unscheduled bleeding after being put on the Depo-Provera injection. However, she has no red flag symptoms and is up-to-date with her cervical smears, which provides reassurance to her history. At this stage, blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are not necessary, but may be considered later on. Referral to a gynaecologist is not indicated as there are no alarming symptoms present.
It is important to follow advice from the cervical screening hub regarding cervical smears and not order one sooner than indicated. If any alarming symptoms arise, referral to a gynaecologist is recommended. For women experiencing unscheduled bleeding while on a progesterone-only injectable and who are medically eligible, a combined oral contraceptive can be offered for three months in the usual cyclic manner. The longer-term use of the combined contraceptive pill with the injectable progesterone is a matter of clinical judgement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Correct
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The Practice Manager at your training practice has sent you a message to say that she's received a Subject Access Request from a local solicitor regarding one of your elderly patients.
What is a Subject Access Request?Your Answer: A request for access to medical records
Explanation:Subject Access Requests for Health Records
A subject access request (SAR) is a request made by a patient or a third party authorized by the patient for access to their health records under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and Data Protection Act 2018. This right of access applies not only to health records held by NHS bodies but also to those held by private health sectors and health professionals’ private practice records.
Individuals have the right to apply for access to their health records regardless of when they were compiled, subject to certain conditions. In cases where multi-contributory records have joint data controller arrangements, there must be a clearly documented agreement on how data controller responsibilities will be satisfied, including the handling of subject access requests.
Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to understand and comply with the regulations surrounding subject access requests for health records to ensure patient privacy and data protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?
Your Answer: Weekly fundal height measurements throughout the rest of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus
Explanation:There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.
Understanding Zika Virus
Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Correct
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In your morning clinic, a 25-year-old man presents with a complaint about his penis. He reports noticing some lesions on his glans penis for the past few days and stinging during urination. After taking his sexual history, he reveals that he has had sex with two women in the last 3 months, both times with inconsistent condom use. Additionally, he mentions experiencing sticky, itchy eyes and a painful, swollen left knee.
During the examination, you observe a well-defined erythematous plaque with a ragged white border on his penis.
What is the name of the lesion on his penis?Your Answer: Circinate balanitis
Explanation:A man with Reiter’s syndrome and chronic balanitis is likely to have Circinate balanitis, which is characterized by a well-defined erythematous plaque with a white border on the penis. This condition is caused by a sexually transmitted infection and requires evaluation by both a sexual health clinic and a rheumatology clinic. Zoon’s balanitis, on the other hand, is a benign condition that affects uncircumcised men and presents with orange-red lesions on the glans and foreskin. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is an in-situ squamous cell carcinoma that appears as red, velvety plaques and may be asymptomatic. Squamous cell carcinoma can also occur on the penis and may present as papillary or flat lesions, often associated with lichen planus or lichen sclerosus.
Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.
Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms
Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and unpleasant griping abdominal pain. The symptoms appeared 6-7 hours after he ate a rice-based dish from a local Chinese takeaway. His flatmate had similar symptoms after visiting the same takeaway a few days earlier, which resolved within a day. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Understanding Bacillus cereus Infection
Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning. Its incubation period is between 6 to 24 hours, and symptoms usually appear within 1 to 2 days. The bacteria produce a toxin that can cause either severe diarrhea or profuse vomiting, depending on the type of toxin produced.
In Europe, Bacillus cereus infection is commonly associated with diarrhea. The bacteria are often found in reheated fried rice, which is a common cause of the infection. However, the infection is self-limiting, and appropriate oral rehydration advice is usually enough to manage the symptoms.
Overall, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes of Bacillus cereus infection to prevent its spread and manage its effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 32-year-old female who has been dealing with premenstrual syndrome (PMS) for a few years. She experiences lower abdominal cramping and bloating 1-2 days before her menstrual period. Recently, she found herself becoming more irritable and upset with her coworkers, which is out of character for her. What advice can you offer to help improve her PMS symptoms?
Your Answer: 2-3 hourly small balanced meals rich in protein
Correct Answer: 2-3 hourly small balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates
Explanation:To manage premenstrual syndrome, it is recommended to make specific lifestyle changes such as consuming 2-3 hourly small balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates. This is because complex carbohydrates are more nutrient-dense and higher in fiber compared to simple carbohydrates. Consuming complex carbohydrates in smaller, frequent meals helps to stabilize blood sugar levels and provide the body with essential nutrients throughout the day, which can help control PMS symptoms. Other options have not been proven to improve the severity of symptoms.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two weeks ago for left-sided ear pain and discharge, for which you prescribed amoxicillin. Today, his mother reports that he has improved and she has been able to keep his ear dry. However, upon examination of the left ear, a tympanic membrane perforation is observed. What should be done next?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT
Correct Answer: Advise to keep ear dry and see in a further 4 weeks time
Explanation:Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.
If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 11 weeks pregnant contacts her General Practitioner to discuss screening for Down syndrome. She is very anxious, as her sister has Down syndrome and is keen to ensure she has the most reliable test.
What is the most appropriate screening test to offer at this stage?Your Answer: Quadruple test
Correct Answer: Combined test
Explanation:Prenatal Screening Tests: Overview and Differences
Prenatal screening tests are offered to pregnant women to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. There are several types of tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations.
Combined Test: This test is offered to all pregnant women between ten and 14 weeks gestation. It involves the measurement of nuchal translucency on ultrasound, serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (B-HCG), and pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A. The test allows risk stratification of the likelihood of the baby having Down, Patau, or Edward’s syndrome.
Amniocentesis: This invasive test is usually offered to women who are found to be at higher risk of carrying a baby with a chromosomal abnormality. It carries a 1% risk of miscarriage and is not offered routinely to all pregnant women.
Nuchal Translucency: This measurement is part of the combined test and is routinely offered to all pregnant women. However, if performed alone, it cannot be used as a reliable screening test.
Quadruple Test: This blood test for alpha fetaprotein (AFP), HCG, unconjugated oestriol (uE3), and inhibin A can be offered to women at 15–20 weeks gestation who have missed the chance for the combined test.
Triple Test: This blood test for AFP, HCG, and uE3 can also be offered to women at 15–20 weeks gestation who have missed the chance for the combined test. However, for a patient who is only 11 weeks pregnant, the combined test is indicated instead of the triple test.
In summary, prenatal screening tests can help identify the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. The choice of test depends on the gestational age and individual risk factors of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Who among these women needs anti-D prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Rhesus negative woman with an antepartum bleed
Correct Answer: Rhesus positive woman with an antepartum bleed
Explanation:Rhesus Negative Pregnancy and Anti-D Prophylaxis
A rhesus negative pregnant woman should receive anti-D prophylaxis after any sensitising event during pregnancy to prevent the production of antibodies that could cause rhesus haemolytic disease in the baby. Sensitisation can occur if RhD-positive blood cells enter the bloodstream of a RhD-negative woman, which can happen during an antepartum bleed, an invasive procedure, an abdominal injury, or at delivery. Rhesus disease can be avoided if sensitisation is prevented.
Rhesus disease affects the baby by causing haemolysis of red blood cells and anaemia. It occurs when a pregnant mother is RhD negative, the baby is RhD positive, and sensitisation has previously occurred. An injection of anti-D immunoglobulin can prevent sensitisation in a RhD-negative woman by neutralising any fetal RhD-positive antigens that have entered her blood.
A rhesus negative woman with a rhesus negative partner cannot have a rhesus positive baby and is not at risk. A rhesus negative baby will not introduce rhesus positive antigens into the mother’s blood, so anti-D is not required in this case.
Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis (RAADP) is administered during the third trimester of pregnancy to prevent sensitisation. This can be a single dose at 28-30 weeks or a two-dose treatment at 28 and 34 weeks. If RAADP is not given, the woman will be offered an injection of anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours of giving birth if the baby is RhD positive. This significantly decreases the risk of her next baby having rhesus disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a 15% 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease. The patient wants to know if he should take a statin.
Using the NICE patient decision aid on lipid modification you explain to him that if there were 100 people like him and none of them took a statin, on average 15 of these people would develop coronary heart disease (CHD) or have stroke over a 10 year period. If all 100 took a statin then over the same time period, on average nine people would develop CHD or have a stroke.
Which of the following is correct with regards the use of a statin for cardiovascular disease prevention in this patient population?Your Answer: The relative risk is 0.4
Correct Answer: The number needed to treat is 25
Explanation:Understanding Statistical Concepts in Medical Practice
Having a solid understanding of statistical concepts and terminology is crucial when informing patients about the risks and benefits of treatment. One important concept is the absolute risk (AR), which is the number of events in a group of patients divided by the total number of patients in that group. Another important concept is the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the AR in a control group (ARC) and in a treatment group (ART).
To calculate the ARR, we subtract the ART from the ARC. For example, if the ARC is 10/100 and the ART is 6/100, then the ARR is 0.04 or 4%. The relative risk (RR) is another important concept, which is calculated by dividing the ART by the ARC. In this example, the RR is 0.6. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the RR from 1. In this case, the RRR is 0.4. Finally, the number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dividing 1 by the ARR. In this example, the NNT is 25.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him with major depressive illness, you decide to treat him with an SSRI. Two weeks later, he returns to your office feeling a bit shaky and complaining of excessive sweating, but overall he seems upbeat. He talks quickly and with great optimism, and you wonder if a mild sedative might help. However, he is resistant to any further intervention and continues to share his ambitious aspirations, which you find somewhat unrealistic.
What steps would you take in this situation?Your Answer: Refer to psychiatrist
Correct Answer: Review in two weeks
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment for Bipolar Illness
When a patient shows symptoms of mania, it can change their diagnosis from unipolar to bipolar illness. In this case, the patient’s hostility and grandiose delusions confirm the change in diagnosis. It is important to refer the patient immediately for specialist help to ensure proper treatment.
Additionally, the patient is experiencing side effects from their selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), including shakiness and excessive sweating. While these side effects can be troublesome, they can be managed with short term benzodiazepines. It is crucial to address both the bipolar illness and the side effects of medication to provide the best possible care for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. As part of his diabetic evaluation, he was instructed to perform home blood pressure monitoring. The average daytime reading has returned as 152/84 mmHg.
The patient migrated to the UK from Sudan approximately two years ago and has no significant medical history other than a vitamin D deficiency, which is believed to be due to his dark skin.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Start amlodipine
Correct Answer: Start losartan
Explanation:For black patients with type 2 diabetes and hypertension, the recommended first-line treatment is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, specifically losartan. This is based on evidence that ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, may be less effective in patients of African or African-Caribbean ethnicity. For non-diabetic patients of this ethnicity, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide may be added as a second or third line of treatment. While lifestyle changes are important, this patient’s stage 2 hypertension and diabetes put him at high risk for complications, making prompt and effective treatment essential.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is 55%. She has been experiencing orthopnoea and ankle swelling. The cardiology team has referred her to you for medication initiation.
During the assessment, her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and heart rate 82/min.
What should be the initial consideration in her management?Your Answer: Carvedilol
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Furosemide is the appropriate choice for managing symptoms in individuals with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction using loop diuretics. Spironolactone is not recommended for this purpose. In cases of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists should be considered along with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker if symptoms persist.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) test returns positive. On examination, he is feeling well with no signs of liver disease. He has no other comorbidities.
What is the most important next test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Explanation:Common Tests for Hepatitis C and Co-Infections
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several tests available to diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as to screen for co-infections with other viruses. Here are some of the most common tests used:
1. HCV RNA: This test detects the presence of HCV ribonucleic acid in the blood, which is the most sensitive way to diagnose HCV infection. It can detect the virus within 1-2 weeks after infection and can confirm ongoing infection if antibodies are positive.
2. HBV DNA: This test measures the amount of hepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid in the blood, which can help monitor the viral load of hepatitis B. Since HBV and HCV can coexist, it’s important to screen for both viruses.
3. Anti-HIV antibodies: HIV and HCV share many of the same risk factors, so patients with HCV should be screened for HIV. However, it’s important to first confirm the diagnosis of HCV before testing for HIV.
4. AST and ALT: These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged, which can indicate HCV infection. However, they are nonspecific and cannot confirm a diagnosis on their own.
5. IgM anti-HAV: This test detects recent infection with hepatitis A, which can coexist with HCV. However, confirming the diagnosis of HCV is the first priority.
Overall, these tests can help diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as screen for co-infections with other viruses. It’s important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best testing strategy for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo?
Your Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of flushing, right-sided abdominal discomfort, diarrhoea and palpitations. She has been experiencing weight loss and there is a palpable mass in her right lower abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flushing and Right-Sided Abdominal Mass
Carcinoid Syndrome and Other Differential Diagnoses
Carcinoid tumours are rare neuroendocrine tumours that can secrete various bioactive compounds, including serotonin and bradykinin, leading to a distinct clinical syndrome called carcinoid syndrome. The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, bronchospasm, diarrhoea, and right-sided valvular heart lesions, such as tricuspid regurgitation. However, classical carcinoid syndrome occurs in less than 10% of patients with carcinoid tumours, and the diagnosis requires histological confirmation.
Other possible causes of flushing and right-sided abdominal mass in this patient include appendiceal abscess, caecal carcinoma, menopausal symptoms, and ovarian tumour. An appendiceal abscess usually results from acute appendicitis and presents with pain and fever. Caecal carcinoma can cause similar symptoms as carcinoid tumours, but it is more common and has a worse prognosis. Menopausal symptoms may cause flushing, but they do not explain the other symptoms or the mass. Ovarian tumours may cause abdominal distension and pain, but they are often asymptomatic in the early stages.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of this patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment. Depending on the suspected diagnosis, the management may involve surgery, chemotherapy, hormone therapy, or supportive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor were measured. The average potassium level was found to be 4.6 mmol/l with a standard deviation of 0.3 mmol/l. What is the correct statement regarding this study?
Your Answer: 95.4% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Explanation:The range of values within 1 standard deviation of the mean for a normally distributed variable is 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/l.
The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?
Your Answer: Fasciculations
Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements
Explanation:Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.
Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a six month history of heavy menstrual flow for which she has used at least 12 sanitary towels daily.
She has had generally heavy periods but has found that her condition has deteriorated in the last six months.
Which of the following therapies would be your next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Medical Management of Menorrhagia
Menorrhagia is a condition where menstrual loss exceeds 80 ml. While cyclic progestins have been used to treat menorrhagia, they have not been adequately tested in randomized controlled trials. On the other hand, tranexamic acid is considered the most effective medical intervention for menorrhagia.
According to NICE guidelines, if pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate for menorrhagia, hormonal or non-hormonal treatments should be considered in a specific order. The first option is the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system, which provides long-term relief for at least 12 months. The second option is tranexamic acid, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or combined oral contraceptives. The third option is norethisterone (15 mg) daily from days 5 to 26 of the menstrual cycle or injected long-acting progestogens.
If hormonal treatments are not acceptable to the woman, then either tranexamic acid or NSAIDs can be used. It is important to note that a randomized trial of high-dose, longer-term cyclic norethisterone compared with a progestin-releasing IUD showed that flow was reduced by 87%. However, the current consensus of opinion favors tranexamic acid as the most effective medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.
You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum is related to disease activity
Correct Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.
Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the most appropriate forms of contraception for her. During your discussion, you highlight the advantages of long-acting reversible contraception, and she expresses interest in learning more about the contraceptive implant and its mechanism of action. What is the primary mode of action of the contraceptive implant?
Your Answer: Preventing ovulation and implantation
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The main way in which the contraceptive implant works is by stopping ovulation. It may also have secondary effects such as changing cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering and thinning the endometrium to potentially prevent implantation, but these are not its primary mode of action.
Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives
Contraceptives are designed to prevent pregnancy by various mechanisms. The mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception is summarized in the table below, based on documents produced by the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH).
Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progestogen-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and some progestogen-only pills work by inhibiting ovulation, while others thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Injectable and implantable contraceptives primarily inhibit ovulation, but also thicken cervical mucous. Intrauterine devices decrease sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous.
Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, includes levonorgestrel, ulipristal, and the intrauterine contraceptive device. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal work by inhibiting ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and can also inhibit implantation.
Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important for choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also essential for using contraceptives effectively and maximizing their effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Correct
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You are conducting the annual review for a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. His glycaemic control is satisfactory with metformin therapy, and his latest HbA1c is 54 mmol/mol (7.1%). During his recent clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured at 152/90 mmHg. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor was subsequently requested, and the results indicate an average blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to their renoprotective effect, even if the patient has stage 1 hypertension according to NICE guidelines. In contrast, for patients aged over 55 years without diabetes, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line treatment.
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:
Varicella IgM Negative
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Varicella zoster vaccination
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic and is diagnosed with mild vascular dementia. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and early peripheral vascular disease. Which medication listed below would be the best option for treating his cognitive symptoms?
Your Answer: Memantine
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine, are a class of drugs used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. The goal is to slow down the rate of decline, and approximately half of patients respond positively to the medication. However, it is challenging to determine the individual response as it is unknown how much deterioration would have occurred without the medication. Memantine, a glutamate receptor antagonist, is another drug used in Alzheimer’s disease and is recommended by NICE for severe dementia or when anticholinesterase inhibitors are not suitable. Rivastigmine can also be prescribed for dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, there are currently no medications available to treat cognitive symptoms in vascular dementia.
Understanding the Causes of Dementia
Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.
However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.
It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).
In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports that the tremor has been present for a long time but has become more noticeable over the past year. The tremor began in his left hand and has always been more severe on that side.
Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a mask-like facial expression and a coarse, rhythmic tremor affecting both hands, which is most prominent at rest. The left hand is more affected than the right.
As the patient walks, you note that he is stooped over and moves with short, shuffling steps. What other clinical signs would you expect to find in this patient?Your Answer: Rigidity
Correct Answer: Fasciculation
Explanation:Understanding Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that presents with a range of symptoms. The core clinical features of PD are bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. Bradykinesia is characterized by a slowing of movements, resulting in a shuffling gait and a stooped posture. Patients may also experience a loss of facial expression, known as masked facies. Tremors in PD are typically worse at rest and are rhythmic and repetitive, occurring at a frequency of two to five movements per second. This tremor is often described as pill-rolling if the thumb and index finger are involved. Rigidity, which worsens over time, is also more prominent on one side and can lead to the classic description of cog wheel rigidity in PD. These symptoms can be asymmetrical, with one side of the body being more affected than the other. Understanding these core features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old man with locally advanced prostate cancer which has been considered by his oncologist to be at a high risk of progression.
He is taking bicalutamide 150 mg daily.
What is the most common side effect of this medication?Your Answer: Angina
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Bicalutamide and its Side Effects According to BNF
Bicalutamide is a medication used to treat locally advanced prostate cancer at high risk of disease progression. The British National Formulary (BNF) lists the frequency of side effects, with hepatic disorders (including jaundice) being among the most common. Photosensitivity reactions are rare or very rare, while renal failure is not listed as a side effect in the BNF, although haematuria can occur less commonly. Therefore, clinicians are advised to consider periodic liver function tests for patients undergoing bicalutamide treatment. The RCGP may set questions based on the BNF for the AKT, testing candidates’ knowledge of less well-known medication side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever, malaise, and a sore throat. She has a medical history of asthma, hyperthyroidism, and migraines. Her current medications include salbutamol inhaled as needed, sumatriptan 50 mg as needed, carbimazole 40 mg daily, and Cerazette 75 mcg daily. What blood tests should be ordered?
Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Liver function
Explanation:Carbimazole and Infection Risk
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis by blocking the iodination of thyroid hormone. However, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of the potential risk of infection, particularly sore throat, and report any symptoms or signs of infection to their healthcare provider. This is because carbimazole can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, a rare but serious adverse effect.
If a patient on carbimazole presents with an acute illness consisting of fever, malaise, and sore throat, a full blood count should be performed to assess the white blood cell count and differential. If neutropenia is found, carbimazole should be stopped immediately. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients taking carbimazole for signs of infection and to take appropriate action if necessary to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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