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  • Question 1 - An 82-year-old woman is being seen in an oncology clinic for cancer of...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman is being seen in an oncology clinic for cancer of unknown primary with bone metastases. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and chronic kidney disease. Routine blood tests show low hemoglobin, platelets, and white blood cells, as well as elevated CRP and adjusted calcium levels. Her vitamin D levels are also low. What treatment is recommended for bone protection in this patient?

      Your Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      To prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases, bisphosphonates and denosumab can be used. However, if the eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is preferred over bisphosphonates like alendronic acid.

      Since this woman has bony metastases, bone protection is necessary. But as her eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is a better option than alendronic acid.

      Calcium supplements like calcichew are not recommended for this woman as she is hypercalcaemic due to her bony metastases. Instead, therapies that promote osteoblastic activity are more effective for bone protection.

      As this woman has normal vitamin D levels and hypercalcemia, prescribing a vitamin D analogue like colecalciferol would not be appropriate. Instead, therapies that promote osteoblastic activity should be prescribed.

      It would be inappropriate and incorrect to prescribe no treatment for this woman as bone protection is necessary due to the presence of bony metastases.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old male was recently prescribed alendronate for osteoporosis treatment after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male was recently prescribed alendronate for osteoporosis treatment after experiencing a fragility fracture. However, he presents to your clinic with concerning upper gastrointestinal adverse effects. What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Change alendronate to strontium ranelate

      Correct Answer: Change alendronate to risedronate

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, if patients experience notable upper gastrointestinal adverse effects while taking alendronate, their medication should be switched to risedronate or etidronate as a first step.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports that the pain is at its worst in the morning. He also experiences intermittent pain and swelling in his right ankle, which he injured while running a year ago. Two weeks ago, he visited the Emergency department with a painful red eye, which was treated with eye drops. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On direct questioning, he admits to being diagnosed with chlamydia four months ago. During the examination, his right ankle was swollen at the site of Achilles' tendon insertion, but all other joints were unremarkable. Flexion of the lumbar spine was reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Spondyloarthritis: A Group of Related Disorders

      The patient’s history suggests the presence of spondyloarthritis, which is a group of related but distinct disorders. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and a subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis. HLA-B27 is a predisposing factor for all these disorders and is present in a high percentage of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis. Ankylosing spondylitis is a severe form of spondyloarthritis that mainly affects the entheses and leads to spinal immobility. TNF-antagonists are the primary treatment, but physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents also have a role.

      Reactive arthritis is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men and is an important differential diagnosis in this case. It typically follows genitourinary infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or enteric infections with certain strains of Salmonella or Shigella. Treatment with doxycycline can sometimes shorten the course of the disease if associated with Chlamydia infection. In general, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are used for treatment, with intra-articular corticosteroids if large joints are involved.

      In conclusion, spondyloarthritis is a group of related disorders that share a common predisposing factor and can cause significant morbidity. Ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis are two of the most common types, and their diagnosis should be considered in patients with suggestive symptoms. Treatment options include TNF-antagonists, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old female intravenous drug user presents to the Emergency Department with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female intravenous drug user presents to the Emergency Department with a purplish rash on her arms and feet that has been progressively worsening for the past 2 weeks. The rash is not painful or itchy. Upon examination, she appears to be in mild distress and has mild jaundice. Her heart and lungs are normal, but there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen, and her liver edge is palpable 4 cm below the right costal margin. The skin examination reveals palpable purpura on both arms and her left foot, and her right lower limb has erythematous nodules and livedo reticularis. The CNS examination shows decreased strength in plantar flexion and decreased sensation in the left foot. Laboratory results show that she is HIV negative and hepatitis B surface antigen positive. Urine microscopy reveals the presence of red blood cells and protein, but no white blood cells. What is the most likely cause of her rash?

      Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Skin Lesions, Proteinuria, and Neurological Symptoms

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with erythematous nodules, livedo reticularis, mononeuritis multiplex, and kidney involvement. This condition is often associated with hepatitis B infection, which can be confirmed by the presence of hepatitis B surface antigen. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, which typically presents with bruising, petechiae, and epistaxis, is less likely to explain the proteinuria and is more commonly seen in children. Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP) can cause a purpuric rash in the lower extremities and buttocks, as well as renal involvement, but it does not typically present with mononeuritis multiplex. Kaposi’s sarcoma is unlikely without HIV and would not explain the neurological symptoms. Impaired coagulation secondary to liver cirrhosis is an unlikely diagnosis in the absence of chronic liver disease and would not account for the neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive visits the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, weakness, exertional dyspnea, xerophthalmia, and xerostomia. He has marked bilateral facial swelling and hepatomegaly, and a few fine scattered crepitations are heard upon chest auscultation. The following investigations were conducted: negative rheumatoid factor, negative antinuclear antibody, and negative extractable nuclear antigens (ENA). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjogren's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Infiltrative Lymphocytic Syndrome: A Rare Condition with Various Manifestations

      Infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS) is a rare condition that can mimic Sjogren’s syndrome with symptoms such as parotid gland enlargement and dryness of the eyes and mouth. However, unlike Sjogren’s syndrome, patients with DILS often do not have positive autoantibodies. In addition to these glandular symptoms, patients with DILS may also experience weakness due to a peripheral motor neuropathy. Other possible manifestations of DILS include aseptic meningitis and cranial nerve palsies. The most serious complication of DILS is lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis.

      Overall, DILS is a complex condition that can present with a variety of symptoms and complications. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this condition and consider it in the differential diagnosis of patients with glandular symptoms and other manifestations. Early recognition and treatment can help improve outcomes for patients with DILS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old female diagnosed with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, which involves glomerulonephritis and pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female diagnosed with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, which involves glomerulonephritis and pulmonary complications, undergoes six months of monthly pulsed i.v. cyclophosphamide treatment. Despite the treatment, her disease remains active, and she is prescribed oral cyclophosphamide (100 mg/day for six months) followed by azathioprine. What is her highest risk factor?

      Risk Factor:

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide and its Effects on Fertility and Cancer Risk

      Cyclophosphamide is a medication that can cause premature ovarian failure and infertility in both men and women. The risk of these side effects increases with higher doses of the drug and is more likely to occur in younger patients. However, it is important to note that cyclophosphamide treatment does not lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, hyperthyroidism, ovarian cancer, or venous thromboembolism.

      It is crucial for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of cyclophosphamide treatment with their healthcare provider. For those who may be at risk for fertility issues, options such as fertility preservation may be available. Additionally, regular monitoring and screening for potential cancer risks may be recommended. Overall, while cyclophosphamide can be an effective treatment for certain conditions, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects and to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage any risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old Turkish man presents with superficial thrombophlebitis in his leg veins.

    Upon questioning,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old Turkish man presents with superficial thrombophlebitis in his leg veins.

      Upon questioning, he reports experiencing recurrent episodes of oral and genital ulcers over the past year, some of which have resulted in scarring. He also has a history of anterior uveitis.

      Recent blood tests indicate a normocytic normochromic anemia, normal liver function tests, urea and electrolytes, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (66 mm/hr). A venous Doppler revealed below knee deep venous thrombosis.

      Which medication should he be started on?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Disease: A Systemic Vasculitis with Various Manifestations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and large vessels, including venous and arterial vessels. The cause of this disease is unknown, but more than 60% of patients are HLA-B51, and it is more prevalent in Mediterranean countries. Behçet’s syndrome is commonly associated with mucocutaneous manifestations, such as oro-genital ulceration and erythema nodosum, as well as ocular disease, gastrointestinal involvement, and neurological features. Venous thrombosis is a common complication, but thrombo-embolism is rare as the thrombi adhere to the vessel wall.

      In cases of venous or arterial involvement, corticosteroids in conjunction with immunosuppressants like azathioprine, cyclosporine, and cyclophosphamide may be used. However, evidence is lacking for the use of anticoagulation, antifibrinolytics, and antiplatelet agents, and routine use of these is not recommended. This is due to the possibility of a coexisting pulmonary arterial aneurysm, which might result in fatal bleeding. Despite a high frequency of venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism is rare in Behçet’s syndrome. In cases of DVT, treatment should be discussed with local experts and commenced as required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old woman with RA has been taking methotrexate for six weeks and...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with RA has been taking methotrexate for six weeks and has seen significant improvement in her joint symptoms. However, she has developed a dry cough, shortness of breath, and fever over the past three days. Her current medications include methotrexate, folic acid, and aspirin, and she has no personal or family history of chronic illnesses. On examination, she has synovitis in both wrists and MCPJs, and scattered crepitations in her respiratory system. Blood tests show elevated ESR and patchy airspace shadows are seen bilaterally on her CXR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate Pneumonitis: An Overview

      Methotrexate pneumonitis is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are taking methotrexate. It is an acute interstitial pneumonitis that typically presents within the first few months of starting the medication. The incidence of methotrexate pneumonitis in RA patients is around 3.3%.

      If a patient is suspected of having methotrexate pneumonitis, the drug should be stopped immediately. Rechallenging the patient with methotrexate is not recommended. Once underlying infection has been ruled out, treatment with prednisolone may be considered.

      It is important to note that methotrexate pneumonitis can rarely be associated with other conditions such as Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia or tuberculosis. Therefore, it is crucial to thoroughly evaluate the patient for any underlying infections before initiating treatment.

      In summary, methotrexate pneumonitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and management. Healthcare providers should be aware of the signs and symptoms of this condition and take appropriate measures to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old man presents with lethargy and reduced sensation in both feet. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents with lethargy and reduced sensation in both feet. He reports a 2 month history of fevers and 5kg weight loss. He also reports intermittent testicular pain.

      On examination there is livedo reticularis on both legs and reduced light touch and pain sensation on both feet.

      Blood tests reveal:

      Hb 116 g/l Na 137 # mmol/l Bilirubin 18 µmol/l
      Platelets 487 * 109/l K+ 4.8 mmol/l ALP 92 u/l
      WBC 8.3 * 109/l Urea 12.8 mmol/l ALT 102 u/l
      Neuts 6.3 * 109/l Creatinine 182 µmol/l γGT 16 u/l
      MCV 89 fL ESR 78mm/hr Albumin 34 g/l

      Which investigation is most likely to reveal the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B serology

      Correct Answer: Renal angiogram

      Explanation:

      Although hepatitis serology may be appropriate as it can be linked to vasculitis, ANCA is typically negative in PAN and therefore not a reliable diagnostic tool in this case.

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a condition that causes inflammation and aneurysm formation in medium-sized arteries. It is more common in middle-aged men and is often associated with hepatitis B infection. Symptoms of PAN include fever, malaise, weight loss, hypertension, and various neurological symptoms such as mononeuritis multiplex and sensorimotor polyneuropathy. Other features may include testicular pain, livedo reticularis, haematuria, and renal failure. Perinuclear-antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are found in around 20% of patients with ‘classic’ PAN, while hepatitis B serology is positive in 30% of patients. Angiograms may show beading and numerous microaneurysms affecting the intrarenal vessels and intrahepatic vessels, as well as changes affecting the jejunal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She reports experiencing pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She reports experiencing pain in multiple joints, particularly in her back, wrists, ankles, and feet, with noticeable involvement of the distal interphalangeal joints. During the examination, psoriatic patches are observed on her elbows, and her nails show onycholysis, transverse ridging, and pitting. There is also swelling, pain, and limited movement in her DIP. Despite being prescribed methotrexate, there is no improvement in her condition. You decide to treat her with adalimumab. What is the mechanism of action of adalimumab?

      Your Answer: IL-12

      Correct Answer: TNF-α

      Explanation:

      Biologic Agents for Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthritis

      Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis are chronic inflammatory conditions that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. Biologic agents have revolutionized the treatment of these conditions, offering targeted therapy with fewer side effects than traditional systemic treatments.

      Adalimumab, etanercept, and infliximab are anti-TNF agents that have shown efficacy as second-line agents in the management of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis. These drugs target TNF-α, a cytokine that plays an important role in joint inflammation and destruction.

      Ustekinumab is an IL-12/23 antagonist that has recently been approved for the treatment of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis. This drug targets IL-12 and IL-23, two cytokines that are involved in the inflammatory response.

      While erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) may fall in response to anti-TNF therapy, they are more non-specific markers of inflammation. Therefore, they are not reliable indicators of treatment response.

      In conclusion, biologic agents offer a promising treatment option for patients with psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis. By targeting specific cytokines involved in the inflammatory response, these drugs can provide effective relief with fewer side effects than traditional systemic treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (4/10) 40%
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