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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic due to a long history of pain in his back and knee joints. He first experienced recurrent back and wrist pain at the age of 7 and was treated for possible juvenile arthritis, which often responded to analgesia. However, the disease has been relapsing and remitting over the years, and since last year, the back pain has been constant all over his spine and has not responded to analgesia.
Despite several investigations in the past, including X-rays of the spine and knee, rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibody, and autoimmune profile, all results were reported as normal. He had a normal childhood with no illness, and there is no family history of note. He has also seen dermatologists for an abnormal dark-brown pigmentation in his ears and sclera, but no cause was found.
During examination, his knees are swollen and painful, and he has tenderness all over his spine. Both sclera and ears show an abnormal dark brown pigmentation. Further investigations reveal abnormal results in his haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, and urinalysis.
What is the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer: Alkaptonuria
Explanation:Alkaptonuria is a genetic disorder that results in the deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic oxidase, leading to the accumulation of homogentisic acid. This causes pigmentation of urine, sclera, and connective tissues, as well as cartilage pigmentation and degeneration in the joints. The Glucostix test may give a false positive, but the Clinitest is normal. Phenylketonuria, on the other hand, is an inborn error of metabolism that leads to decreased metabolism of phenylalanine. If left untreated, it can cause intellectual disability, seizures, behavioural problems, and mental disorder, as well as a musty smell and lighter skin. Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterised by abnormal X-rays and blue sclerae. Ankylosing spondylitis, meanwhile, shows changes in the sacroiliac joints in X-rays, but no pigmentary problems. Finally, Polyarticular Still’s disease is not associated with urinary problems or ocular pigmentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 22-year-old male patient who has been experiencing inflammatory back pain for the past 3 years. You suspect a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS) and order X-rays of the lumbosacral spine and sacroiliac joints, as well as a test for HLA B27. What is the significance of HLA B27 in this context?
Your Answer: Acute anterior uveitis is more common in B27-positive than -negative patients.
Correct Answer: The likelihood of a positive test depends on the racial and ethnic background of the patient
Explanation:Understanding the Role of HLA B27 in the Diagnosis of Axial Spondyloarthropathies
HLA B27 is a genetic marker that is often used in the diagnosis of axial spondyloarthropathies (AS). However, its sensitivity and specificity depend on the racial and ethnic background of the patient. For example, Inuits have the highest frequency of the gene, while people from Holland and Germany have a lower frequency. While HLA B27 may be helpful in diagnosis, it cannot be used as a screening test as 10% of the healthy population may test positive. Additionally, most AS patients do not need HLA B27 testing if they have certain clinical and radiological features. It is important to note that acute anterior uveitis is more common in B27-positive patients. Overall, while HLA B27 is essential in some cases, it is not a definitive test for AS and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old, previously healthy Turkish man presents with a history of painful oral and genital ulcers. He has also developed gritty eyes and a sore ankle. Upon examination, areas of mucosal ulceration and scarring are found, along with ankle synovitis and eye erythema. After repeated blood tests, he develops blistering at the sites of venipuncture. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Behçet’s syndrome
Explanation:Oral and genital ulcers can be caused by a variety of conditions. Behçet’s syndrome, which is most common in young Turkish males, presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers, eye problems, and arthritis. Patients may also develop neurological complications. Reactive arthritis, on the other hand, consists of the triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, and patients may also develop erosions in the mouth and on the penis. The distinguishing feature in this history is the development of a pustule after skin puncture, which is characteristic of Behçet’s syndrome.
HIV seroconversion occurs when patients develop antibodies to the HIV virus and manifests as a flu-like illness. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection can cause vesicles and punched-out ulcers around the mouth or genitals, and primary HSV infection may also be associated with fever and malaise. Finally, primary syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum, manifests as a painless ulcer at the site of infection, whereas secondary syphilis presents as a widespread rash associated with a flu-like illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 93-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of her chronic lower back pain and general all over body aches. A lumbosacral x-ray showed new wedge compression fractures at L4 and L5.
Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 25 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 12 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 26 g/L (35 - 50)
Calcium 1.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Vitamin D 8 nmol/L (>50)
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: 40,000 units colecalciferol once weekly for 7 weeks and calcium supplements
Explanation:Osteomalacia is treated by supplementing with vitamin D, often with an initial loading dose regimen. In this case, the patient has a severe vitamin D deficiency with a level of only 6 nmol/L, which can cause bone and muscular pains, low mood, fatigue, and weakness. Therefore, the recommended treatment is a high dose of colecalciferol (40,000 units) once a week for 7 weeks, along with calcium supplements.
If a patient is symptomatic or about to start an anti-reabsorptive agent (such as zoledronate, denosumab, or teriparatide), rapid replacement of vitamin D is recommended. However, denosumab is not recommended for patients with vitamin D deficiency due to the increased risk of hypocalcaemia.
For this patient, starting with colecalciferol 400 units with calcium carbonate is appropriate since she is symptomatic and has a vitamin D level below 25 nmol/L. Bisphosphonates and calcium supplements should not be started in a vitamin D deficient patient due to the risk of hypocalcaemia, and vitamin D deficiency can also decrease the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in improving bone mineral density.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 24-year-old presents with a painful right knee, without any history of trauma or past medical issues. During examination, the knee appears red and warm with a moderate effusion. The patient's vital signs include a respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 120/72 mmHg, and a temperature of 37.8ºC. The knee is aspirated, revealing cloudy fluid with calcium pyrophosphate crystals. The Gram stain results are pending. What is the recommended course of treatment?
Your Answer: Admit for intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:Septic arthritis cannot be ruled out until the absence of organisms is confirmed. Therefore, the patient must receive intravenous antibiotics immediately after the aspirate is taken and should only be discharged after septic arthritis has been ruled out.
While calcium pyrophosphate crystals are commonly associated with pseudo gout, their presence does not exclude septic arthritis. In addition, using ferritin as a screening tool for haemochromatosis in this situation would not be recommended since it is likely to be elevated in septic arthritis.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and swelling. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism in sexually active young adults. The infection is usually spread through the bloodstream, often from distant bacterial infections such as abscesses. The knee is the most commonly affected joint in adults.
Symptoms of septic arthritis include acute joint swelling, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever. To diagnose the condition, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if needed. Blood cultures and joint imaging may also be necessary.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci, such as flucloxacillin or clindamycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotics are typically given for several weeks, and patients may be switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration is used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required. Overall, prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent joint damage and other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 23-year-old male patient, who has a history of hereditary angioneurotic oedema (HAO), presents with recurring fever, arthralgia, and a rash on his upper chest and face. Despite receiving treatment for his HAO, he has been experiencing recurrent attacks and has needed adrenaline on multiple occasions. His C4 levels have consistently been low due to his HAO. What is the probable reason for his current symptoms?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Hereditary Angioedema and its Association with Low C4 Levels and SLE Risk
Hereditary angioedema (HAO) is a condition that is caused by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This deficiency results in the continuous activation of the classical complement pathway, which often leads to low levels of C4 due to consumption and activation. If treatment fails to restore normal C4 levels and they remain persistently low, patients with HAO are at a higher risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Therefore, it is important to monitor C4 levels in patients with HAO and ensure that they are adequately treated to prevent the development of SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a one-week history of increasing breathlessness and coughing up small amounts of blood. She also reports frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months, as well as feeling generally lethargic and losing weight. On examination, there are no signs of cyanosis, finger clubbing, pallor, or skin rash. The pulse is 100 beats/min and BP is 135/95 mmHg. Respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, chest expansion is moderate, and inspiratory crackles are heard at the left lung base.
The following investigations were conducted: Hb 100 g/L (115-165), WCC 19.9 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400), Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110), Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28), Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49), Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22), Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105), Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (5-35). Arterial blood gases on air reveal: pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44), pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6). ECG shows sinus tachycardia and chest x-ray reveals a shadow in the left lower lobe. Urinalysis shows blood +++ and protein ++.
Which of the following would you expect to be positive in this patient?Your Answer: Anti-proteinase-3 antibodies
Explanation:Acid-Base Disorders and Autoimmune Diseases
In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.
When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis. This is because 95% of patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. In contrast, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase and are non-specific, being detected in various autoimmune disorders.
In summary, acid-base disorders and autoimmune diseases is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department via blue light ambulance. He has been increasingly lethargic for the past four days and has been bedridden for the last 48 hours. His wife reports two instances of sweating and a high temperature during this time. The patient has been admitted three times in the last nine months for urinary tract infections and is awaiting a transurethral resection of his prostate due to benign prostatic hypertrophy. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, diagnosed four years ago, and rheumatoid arthritis, diagnosed 16 years ago. According to his wife, he has been prone to infections over the past few years. Although he typically uses a walking stick, his exercise tolerance has been decreasing since doctors informed him of scarring of his lungs from his rheumatoid. Upon examination, he is easily roused and oriented to time and place but appears drowsy. He is cool peripherally, with dry mucous membranes and JVP +1 cm above the angle of Louis. His blood pressure measures 82/55 mmHg, and his heart rate is 105/minute. Conjunctival pallor, bilateral ulnar deviation of his hands, an inflamed second MTP joint, and nodules beneath both elbows are noted. Auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal inspiratory fine crackles. Abdominal examination shows a 2cm liver edge and a 13cm spleen. Routine blood tests and blood cultures are taken. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?
Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotic as per local guidelines for neutropenic sepsis
Explanation:The individual has a history of rheumatoid arthritis with several extra-articular symptoms and is currently experiencing sepsis and intravascular dehydration. Given their susceptibility to infections, it is possible that they also have neutropenia, which when combined with RA and splenomegaly, can result in Felty’s syndrome. While they have had multiple urinary tract infections in the past, the details are unclear. In cases where there is no clear source of infection, neutropenic sepsis should be treated with intravenous antibiotics in accordance with local protocols.
Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.
Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.
Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.
In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of right shoulder pain and stiffness for the past three days. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently taking metformin and gliclazide. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her profession is a screenwriter.
During the examination, the patient displays restricted active and passive movements of the right shoulder, with external rotation being the most affected. No crepitus is observed.
What is the most effective way to confirm the diagnosis, considering the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Clinical examination
Explanation:The diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis can be made through clinical examination alone, without the need for imaging or arthroscopy.
When a patient presents with shoulder stiffness and pain, a clinical examination can reveal limited movement both on active and passive movement, which is indicative of adhesive capsulitis. This condition is often confused with rotator cuff disorders or osteoarthritis, but these can be ruled out based on the specific symptoms. While rotator cuff disorders primarily affect active movement, osteoarthritis may cause pain on active and passive movement, but the joint can still be moved through its range of motion on passive movement, unlike in adhesive capsulitis.
Arthroscopy is an invasive procedure that allows direct visualization of anatomic structures and is typically used to diagnose many shoulder disorders. However, it is not necessary for the diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis.
MRI can be used to diagnose a wide variety of shoulder disorders, including adhesive capsulitis, but its use is limited by cost. Given that adhesive capsulitis can be diagnosed clinically, the use of MRI is not necessary in this case.
Ultrasound is typically used to diagnose pathology associated with rotator cuff disorders, but it is unlikely to be useful in diagnosing adhesive capsulitis.
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents with a history of malaise and fever for several months. He complains of intermittent swelling and pain in his left ear, painful red eyes, and arthralgia. He has no past medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
During the examination, you observe left auricular swelling, bilateral anterior uveitis, and symmetrical small joint polyarthritis.
Lab results show Hb 115 g/l, Na+ 138 mmol/l, platelets 330 * 109/l, K+ 4.2 mmol/l, WBC 13.1 * 109/l, urea 6.2 mmol/l, neuts 10.4 * 109/l, creatinine 95 µmol/l, lymphs 2.5 * 109/l, CRP 132 mg/l, eosin 0.6 * 109/l, pANCA negative, C3 normal, C4 normal, ANA negative, Anti Sm negative, RhF positive, and Anti CCP negative.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Relapsing polychondritis
Explanation:Understanding Relapsing Polychondritis
Relapsing polychondritis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body, causing inflammation and deterioration of cartilage. The most commonly affected area is the ears, but it can also affect the nose, joints, and other parts of the body. Symptoms include auricular chondritis, hearing loss, vertigo, nasal chondritis leading to a saddle-nose deformity, respiratory tract issues such as hoarseness and wheezing, ocular problems like episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca, and joint pain. In rare cases, it can also cause cardiac valve regurgitation, cranial nerve palsies, peripheral neuropathies, and renal dysfunction.
Diagnosis of relapsing polychondritis is based on various scoring systems that take into account clinical, pathological, and radiological criteria. Treatment involves inducing remission with steroids and maintaining it with medications like azathioprine, methotrexate, cyclosporin, or cyclophosphamide.
Overall, understanding relapsing polychondritis is important for those who may be experiencing symptoms or have been diagnosed with the condition. It can help individuals better manage their symptoms and work with their healthcare providers to find the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of bilateral ankle and right wrist pain and swelling. He has no previous history of joint problems. On systematic questioning, he denies any recent infections. He has recently returned from a business trip with three colleagues to Japan.
On examination, he is febrile, with a temperature of 39.1 °C, and a tachycardia of 120 beats/min. He is noted to have small blisters on the sides of some fingers, and a diffusely red, swollen, painful right wrist that he cannot move. He also has pitting in some nails with hypertrophic plaques of scaling skin on both ankles. He has a similar lesion in his scalp behind the left ear. His left ankle is red and hot and very painful, and held in slight flexion. He resists any movement of it. General medical examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Explanation:The patient in question presents with symptoms consistent with disseminated gonococcal infection, specifically the dermatitis-polyarthritis-tenosynovitis syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by fever, symmetrical polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis in the form of painless vesiculopustular lesions. Diagnosis is made through culture of synovial fluid, skin lesions, and urethral swabs. Treatment involves NSAIDs for symptomatic relief, as well as ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
Other potential diagnoses to consider include reactive arthritis, which presents with a triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis in response to a distant gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. Psoriatic arthritis may also be a possibility, as the patient exhibits scaling skin on their knees and nail pitting, but the onset is too rapid and the single joint disease is more severe than expected. Mixed connective tissue disease, an overlap syndrome including features of systemic lupus erythematosus, systemic sclerosis, and polymyositis, is not consistent with the patient’s history and examination.
Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with three days of right-sided loin pain and two episodes of blood in her urine. She feels unwell and lethargic but denies any fevers or urinary dysuria.
She has a history of two urinary tract infections and is currently being seen by the anticoagulants clinic due to several miscarriages. Her maternal aunt has a history of renal calculi. She is not taking any regular medication at present.
On examination, she is tender in the right loin only. Her blood pressure is 180/105 mmHg, heart rate 85/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 37.0ºC.
Lab results show Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.2 mmol/l, urea 5.6 mmol/l, creatinine 87 µmol/l, and positive anti-cardiolipin antibodies.
A urine dip reveals +++ blood and no leukocytes. An ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder shows no hydronephrosis or renal lesion.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:In cases of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS), the occurrence of loin pain and haematuria is indicative of renal vein thrombosis due to the hypercoagulable state of the patient. The patient in question has not been formally diagnosed with APS, but her positive antibodies and history of multiple miscarriages suggest its presence. While a renal calculus could also cause loin pain, it is less likely to result in frank haematuria and there are no risk factors for it. A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an unlikely cause as there are no lower urinary tract symptoms present.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.
Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing progressive back pain for the past 3 years and now reports a burning pain that radiates down from her buttocks into both legs when she walks only a short distance, causing her to have to sit and rest until the pain subsides. She smokes 6 cigarettes per day and has a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg; pulse is 75/min and regular. Her ABPI is 0.98. Lumbar spine movement is limited by pain and stiffness. Straight leg raise is normal.
Investigations:
Hb 129 g/l
WCC 6.8 x109/l
PLT 179 x109/l
Na+ 138 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 98 micromol/l
ESR 12 mm/1st hour
Lumbar spine x-ray shows evidence of bilateral facet joint arthritis and disc space narrowing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rectal biopsy
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF) is an inherited condition that can lead to repeated episodes of polyserositis, mimicking acute abdominal surgical presentations. This condition is relatively common in the Middle East, especially in countries like Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, and Egypt. FMF can trigger an abnormal inflammatory response, leading to AA-type amyloid deposition and kidney disease. However, patients with FMF often take high doses of analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs, putting them at risk of analgesic nephropathy.To diagnose renal impairment in FMF, several diagnostic options are available. Rectal biopsy followed by examination with polarised light can confirm amyloidosis, but it may not indicate the cause of renal impairment if not identified. Intravenous urogram (IVU) can show characteristic ‘cup and spill’ calices, suggesting possible analgesic nephropathy, but it is not confirmatory.MEFV gene analysis can confirm the suspected diagnosis of FMF, but it would not conclusively indicate the cause of renal impairment. Serum amyloid P component (SAP) scan can confirm the presence of amyloid, but a renal biopsy would be diagnostic for either analgesic- or amyloid-associated nephropathy.In conclusion, renal biopsy is the most reliable diagnostic option for identifying the cause of renal impairment in FMF. However, other diagnostic options can provide valuable information to aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old construction worker presents with a six-month history of pain and swelling in both hands, which is most severe in the mornings. He takes diclofenac tablets for pain relief. The patient's job involves the use of vibrating tools. On examination, the metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists of both hands are warm, swollen, and tender. Investigations reveal a low Hb level, elevated ESR, and periarticular decalcification on x-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Comparison of Arthritis Types
Rheumatoid arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. It is characterized by symmetrical joint involvement and morning stiffness that improves with exercise. In some cases, larger joints may also become involved. This condition causes pain, swelling, and chronic disease that can lead to deformity, such as Swan neck deformity, Boutonniere deformity, Z-thumb, ulnar deviation of the fingers, and dorsal subluxation of ulnar styloid.
Gout, on the other hand, usually starts as a monoarthritis. Osteoarthritis typically affects the distal interphalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, and first metacarpophalangeal joints. Meanwhile, psoriatic arthritis tends to affect the distal interphalangeal joints. Lastly, systemic lupus erythematosus usually causes a mild non-erosive arthritis.
In summary, while all types of arthritis involve joint pain and inflammation, they differ in the specific joints affected and the severity of the condition. these differences can help in the proper diagnosis and management of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman presents with a dry cough, recurrent sinusitis, and weight loss over the past few weeks. Despite multiple courses of antibiotics, her symptoms have not improved. On admission, she has a temperature of 37°C, pedal edema, and a blood pressure of 178/98 mm Hg. A urine dipstick reveals 3+ blood and 3+ protein. She also has bloody nasal discharge. Recent tests show elevated levels of ESR, CRP, and creatinine, as well as a positive ANCA (cytoplasmic pattern) and anti-proteinase 3 antibody. CXR, ultrasound abdomen and pelvis are normal.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
This patient has been diagnosed with active generalised Granulomatosis with polyangiitis based on clinical and serological evidence. To confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment, a renal biopsy should be performed before starting any long-term treatment. Azathioprine or methotrexate are not effective in inducing remission for this patient. The recommended pharmacotherapy for her includes IV methylprednisolone (1 gm/day for three days) and cyclophosphamide. If necessary, IV methylprednisolone can be started before the renal biopsy.
Overall, it is important to accurately diagnose and treat generalised Granulomatosis with polyangiitis to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to Rheumatology clinic with a two-year history of widespread pain and fatigue. She reports difficulty concentrating at work and feeling unrefreshed after sleep. She denies any skin rashes, hair loss, or weight loss. Her medical history is significant for mild depression, which was treated with cognitive behavioural therapy. She lives with her husband and two children and has ongoing financial concerns. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and rarely drinks alcohol.
Initial evaluation reveals no evidence of inflammatory arthritis but significant muscular tenderness at multiple sites. Blood tests, including rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody, are negative, and X-rays of the hands and feet are normal.
At a follow-up visit, fibromyalgia is suspected, and the patient expresses a desire to manage her symptoms with positive lifestyle changes rather than medication. What is the most effective treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Aerobic exercise
Explanation:Limited evidence exists for the effectiveness of non-pharmacological therapies for fibromyalgia. Among these therapies, aerobic exercise has the strongest evidence of benefit. A Cochrane review found that regular aerobic exercise improved wellbeing, aerobic capacity, tenderness, and pain compared to no exercise. While strength training has also shown some benefit, the quality of evidence is lower than for aerobic exercise. Passive physical therapies, such as electrotherapy or balneotherapy, have weak evidence to support their effectiveness.
Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
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A 67-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with stiffness of the fingers and a mild photosensitive rash that has been present for two months. He has been taking procainamide for the past year. On examination, there is puffy swelling of the hands and wrists, along with tenderness of the metacarpophalangeal joints. A chest x-ray ordered by the GP shows small bilateral pleural effusions. What test is indicative of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation:Procainamide-Induced Lupus Erythematosus
Drug-induced lupus erythematosus caused by procainamide is generally a mild condition that presents with symptoms such as arthritis, a rash that is sensitive to light, inflammation of the lining of the lungs or heart, and muscle pain. Unlike systemic lupus erythematosus, the kidneys and central nervous system are usually not affected.
Most individuals who develop procainamide-induced lupus produce antibodies to histone proteins. This type of lupus is typically reversible once the medication is discontinued. It is important for individuals taking procainamide to be aware of the potential for drug-induced lupus and to report any symptoms to their healthcare provider. With prompt recognition and management, the prognosis for procainamide-induced lupus is generally favorable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the Rheumatology Clinic with a 3-week history of bilateral hip pain and malaise. The pain is diffuse and affects the anterior and posterior aspects of the pelvis as well as the upper thighs. It is worse in the mornings and accompanied by stiffness that takes several hours to improve. She also reports a constant right-sided headache for the past 2 weeks and a recent episode of transient visual darkening, although she cannot recall which eye was affected. Her medical history includes hypertension and hypothyroidism, and she takes amlodipine and levothyroxine regularly. On examination, her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes, and her right temporal artery pulsation is difficult to feel. Blood tests show elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy is negative for giant cell arteritis. What is the best treatment approach?
Your Answer: Prednisolone 60 mg once daily
Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone 1 gram once daily
Explanation:It is important to note that a negative temporal artery biopsy does not rule out GCA, and shorter biopsy specimens are more likely to produce falsely reassuring results. To address this, the BSR recommends that biopsy specimens should be at least 1 cm in length.
If a patient experiences transient visual loss, it may indicate the onset of permanent blindness. In such cases, the BSR recommends administering IV methylprednisolone at a dosage of 500-1000 mg daily for 3 days.
For patients with uncomplicated GCA or established visual loss, the recommended treatment is 60 mg prednisolone daily.
It should be noted that prednisolone 15mg daily is only appropriate for isolated PMR and is not recommended in this case. The other treatment options listed are for fibromyalgia and are therefore not applicable.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old Arabic male presents with a high temperature, abdominal pain, and a fixed erythematous rash on his ankle. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender, but other systems appear normal. Upon questioning, he admits to several similar episodes in the past that have resolved spontaneously after three to seven days. Blood tests reveal leukocytosis, neutrophilia, high ESR, CRP, and a normal UE&C, amylase, and LFTs. A mild polyclonal increase in serum immunoglobulin is also present. A chest x-ray is normal, and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a scanty amount of free fluid. Recent blood tests show Hb 111 g/L (130-180), WBC 18.8 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 90% (40-75), Lymphocytes 10% (20-45), Eosinophils 30% (1-6), Platelet 270 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 86 mm/hr (0-15), and CRP 143 mg/L (<10). What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adult onset Still's disease
Correct Answer: Familial Mediterranean fever
Explanation:Familial Mediterranean Fever: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Familial Mediterranean fever (FMF) is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent episodes of fever, abdominal pain, pleurisy, synovitis, and rash. The rash is tender, erythematous with plaque on the dorsum of foot, leg or ankle. Colchicine is the drug of choice for this condition. It is important to differentiate FMF from other periodic fever syndromes such as hyper IgD syndrome, adult onset Still’s disease, Behçet’s disease, and TNF receptor activating periodic fevers.
Hyper IgD syndrome can also cause periodic fevers, but patients have elevated IgD levels and lymphadenopathy is common. Adult onset Still’s disease presents with a transient, salmon pink rash, sore throat, and fever. Behçet’s disease does not lead to periodic fevers. TNF receptor activating periodic fevers typically have their onset in childhood and are associated with headache, myalgia, and eye involvement.
In summary, FMF should be considered in patients with recurrent episodes of fever, abdominal pain, pleurisy, synovitis, and rash. Differential diagnosis should include other periodic fever syndromes, and appropriate treatment with colchicine should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with sero-positive erosive RA is currently being treated with methotrexate (20 mg/week) and sulfasalazine (1 gram bd) but still experiences active inflammatory arthritis. The patient has decided to try abatacept as a biological agent. What is the mechanism of action of abatacept?
Your Answer: Anti-TNF alpha antibody
Correct Answer: CTLA4 homologue
Explanation:Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment Options
Abatacept, a drug used to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA), is a homologue of cytotoxic lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA 4). It works by inhibiting T-cell activation, which is a key factor in the development of RA. Adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, and certolizumab are all anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha) agents. These drugs work by blocking the action of TNF alpha, a cytokine that plays a major role in the inflammation associated with RA. Rituximab is an anti-CD 20 antibody that targets B cells, which are involved in the immune response that leads to RA. Finally, anakinra is an anti-interleukin 1 (IL 1) antibody that blocks the action of IL 1, another cytokine involved in the inflammation associated with RA.
Overall, these drugs offer a range of treatment options for RA patients, targeting different aspects of the immune response that leads to the disease. By inhibiting T-cell activation, blocking TNF alpha, targeting B cells, or blocking IL 1, these drugs can help reduce inflammation and slow the progression of RA. However, each drug has its own set of potential side effects and risks, and the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and medical history. It is important for RA patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to determine the best treatment plan for their specific case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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