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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and tired, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history, but she admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in both lung bases. Her blood tests are as follows:
- White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
- Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
- C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
- Sodium: 125 mmol/l
- Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
- Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l
What is the causative organism?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia
Explanation:Legionella is characterized by typical symptoms such as flu-like illness, dry cough, confusion, and relative bradycardia. Blood tests may reveal hyponatremia.
Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia often occur in communities with shared water supplies, as hinted at in the question with the reference to the recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia frequently affects both lungs, as seen in the question. Additionally, Legionella can cause abnormal liver function tests and hyponatremia, which can lead to confusion in some cases, although this is not mentioned in the question.
The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV infection to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.
Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.
Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.
Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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You are asked to review an elderly nursing home resident who has generalised inflammation of his oropharynx and is finding it difficult to eat. His past history of note includes the use of a steroid inhaler for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination, there are areas of erythema and a number of white plaques accompanied by some white, curd-like material.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer: Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Oral Lesions: Candidiasis, HIV Infection, Hairy Leukoplakia, Darier’s Disease, and Leukoedema
Oral lesions can present in various forms and have different underlying causes. In the case of an elderly man with long-term use of a steroid inhaler for COPD, poor oral hygiene, and possibly poorly fitting prosthetics, the most likely diagnosis is oropharyngeal candidiasis. This yeast-like fungal infection can be treated with antifungal medication, applied to the oral mucosa and any removable oral prostheses, and soaking the latter in an antifungal denture-soaking solution.
HIV infection can also cause oral lesions, primarily in patients with advanced disease. Candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in these patients, but hairy leukoplakia, associated with Epstein-Barr virus, can also occur. Hairy leukoplakia presents as painless white lesions on the tongue or buccal mucosa, with a characteristic hairy appearance that cannot be scraped off.
Darier’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes greasy hyperkeratotic papules in seborrhoeic regions, nail abnormalities, and mucous membrane changes. Mucosal lesions are found in approximately 15% of patients, appearing as white papules with a central depression, most commonly in the mouth.
Leukoedema is a benign condition characterized by a blue, grey, or white appearance of the oral mucosa, with wrinkled, streaky lesions, mostly found on the inside of the cheeks. It is more common and pronounced in smokers.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of oral lesions includes candidiasis, HIV infection, hairy leukoplakia, Darier’s disease, and leukoedema. A thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.
Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.
Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.
Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.
Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5-day-old infant presents with congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and pulmonary artery stenosis. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby has been exposed to?
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The neonate is diagnosed with congenital rubella syndrome, which is characterized by sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease. The risk of fetal infection is highest if the mother contracts the virus during the first trimester of pregnancy. Antenatal cytomegalovirus infection can lead to cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose a physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Parvovirus B19 can cause hydrops fetalis and fetal death. Toxoplasmosis can result in intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus, and epilepsy in the affected child.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he thought it was just a common cold but his symptoms have worsened over the past week. He also reports feeling nauseous and having decreased urine output. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.2ºC, pulse is 102 / min and his chest is clear. There are subconjunctival haemorrhages present but no signs of jaundice. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia
Correct Answer: Leptospirosis
Explanation:Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Flu-Like Symptoms
Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the spirochaete Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in sewage, farming, veterinary, or abattoir settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.
Leptospirosis is a tropical disease that presents with flu-like symptoms and is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in certain settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue. She seems sick and sleepy. Neck stiffness is found during examination.
What is the main factor that would prevent a lumbar puncture (LP) in this case?Your Answer: Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 13
Correct Answer: Extensive rash on trunk and limbs
Explanation:Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture in Children with Suspected Bacterial Meningitis
When a child presents with suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed as soon as possible. However, there are certain contraindications that must be considered before attempting an LP. These include signs of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), haemodynamic instability, extensive or spreading purpura, seizures (until stabilised), coagulation abnormalities, infection at the site of LP, and respiratory compromise.
A Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 13 is not a contraindication for LP. However, an LP should not be attempted when there are signs of raised ICP, such as a GCS score < 9, drop in GCS of 3, relative bradycardia and hypertension, focal neurological signs, abnormal posturing, anisocoria (unequal pupils), papilloedema, or tense or bulging fontanelle. A history of febrile seizure in the past is not a contraindication for LP. However, if the child has ongoing seizures, an LP should not be attempted. Tachycardia is also not a contraindication for LP, as it could be a result of fever. However, if there is any feature of haemodynamic compromise, such as prolonged capillary refill, hypotension, or reduced urine output, an LP should not be attempted. Coagulation abnormalities are contraindications for LP. A LP should not be attempted when the platelet count is < 100 × 109/l, the patient is on anticoagulants, or bleeding and clotting parameters are deranged. It is important to consider these contraindications before attempting an LP in children with suspected bacterial meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-week premature infant is born after prolonged premature rupture of membranes (PROM). The neonate develops temperature instability, respiratory distress, and lethargy about 18 hours after birth. Blood cultures confirm sepsis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Sepsis in newborns can be difficult to diagnose as it often presents with non-specific symptoms. Therefore, it is important to have a high level of suspicion and to investigate promptly. There are two types of sepsis in newborns: early-onset (within 48 hours of birth) and late-onset (after 48 hours from birth). Early-onset sepsis is usually caused by microorganisms acquired from the mother’s birth canal, while late-onset sepsis is often caused by hospital-acquired pathogens such as Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus. In this case, the newborn is likely to have early-onset sepsis, which is commonly caused by Group B Strep, a bacteria that is normally found in the female genital tract.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.
Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding listeria infection is accurate?
Your Answer: Pregnant women are 20 times more likely to develop listeriosis compared with the rest of the population
Explanation:Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria that can cause serious illness in certain populations. This Gram-positive bacillus has the unique ability to multiply at low temperatures, making it a common contaminant in unpasteurized dairy products. The infection is particularly dangerous for pregnant women, as it can lead to miscarriage and other complications. Other at-risk populations include the elderly, neonates, and those with weakened immune systems.
Listeria infections can present in a variety of ways, including gastroenteritis, diarrhoea, bacteraemia, and flu-like illness. In severe cases, it can lead to central nervous system infections such as meningoencephalitis, ataxia, and seizures. Diagnosis is typically made through blood cultures or cerebrospinal fluid findings.
Treatment for Listeria infections typically involves antibiotics such as amoxicillin or ampicillin. In cases of Listeria meningitis, gentamicin may also be used. Pregnant women are at a particularly high risk for Listeria infection, and diagnosis can only be made through blood cultures. Treatment with amoxicillin is recommended to prevent complications such as miscarriage, premature labor, stillbirth, and chorioamnionitis.
Overall, Listeria is a dangerous bacterial infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment, particularly in at-risk populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of profuse, foul-smelling diarrhoea. Stool cultures are taken and reveal a positive Clostridium difficile toxin. She is treated with oral vancomycin for 10 days and discharged home. However, she returns to the hospital 4 days later with ongoing diarrhoea. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.2ºC, heart rate of 99 beats/min, and blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg. Her abdomen is tender but soft with no guarding. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Faecal transplant
Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin
Explanation:If the initial treatment with vancomycin fails to treat Clostridioides difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening. In such cases, other treatment options should be considered. Faecal transplant is not typically used until after second and third-line treatments have been attempted. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole is not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as cephalosporins can increase the risk of infection. Intravenous vancomycin is also not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as it is not as effective as oral vancomycin.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of flu-like symptoms and myalgia. He has no significant medical history and is typically in good health. Upon conducting blood tests, the results show that he is positive for both Anti-Toxoplasmosa IgG and Anti-Toxoplasmosa IgM. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient at present?
Your Answer: Pyrimethamine
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:Patients who are immunocompetent and have toxoplasmosis typically do not need to undergo treatment. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic disease that is primarily found in cats and is caused by Toxoplasmosis gondii protozoa. Symptoms of the disease in humans can include malaise, myalgia, and lymphadenopathy, or it may be asymptomatic. While most healthy individuals can clear the infection, it can lead to complications such as chorioretinitis, seizures, or anemia. These complications are more likely to occur in neonates born to mothers with acute infections or in patients with compromised immune systems. The patient’s blood test results indicate that they currently have an infection, but since they are immunocompetent, treatment is not necessary at this time.
Toxoplasmosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, or broken skin. Cats are the primary carriers of the disease, but other animals like rats can also transmit it. In most cases, infected individuals do not show any symptoms. However, those who do may experience fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy, which are similar to infectious mononucleosis. Less common symptoms include meningoencephalitis and myocarditis. Serology is the preferred diagnostic method, and treatment is usually unnecessary unless the infection is severe or the patient is immunosuppressed.
In immunocompromised patients, toxoplasmosis can cause cerebral toxoplasmosis, which accounts for about half of all cerebral lesions in HIV patients. Symptoms include constitutional symptoms, headache, confusion, and drowsiness. CT scans typically show single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions, and there may be a mass effect. Treatment involves pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine for at least six weeks. Immunocompromised patients may also develop chorioretinitis due to toxoplasmosis.
Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs when the disease is transmitted from the mother to the unborn child. It can cause a range of effects, including neurological damage, cerebral calcification, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, ophthalmic damage, retinopathy, and cataracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl presents to her GP with her father, reporting a rash and fatigue. She has been feeling generally unwell for the past week since returning from a trip to Europe. During the examination, a circular rash is observed, with a more pronounced appearance in the center and edges. The rash is warm and red but does not cause any pain. What possible illnesses should be considered in this patient?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:Lyme disease is caused by the bacteria Borrelia, which is transmitted to humans through tick bites. The most common symptom of Lyme disease is a characteristic rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. Other symptoms of the disease are general and can include fever, headache, fatigue, and even paralysis.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history of fevers and lethargy. During the examination, you observe a few splinter haemorrhages in the fingernails and a loud systolic murmur at the apex. Your consultant advises you to obtain 3 sets of blood cultures and to schedule an echocardiogram. Microbiology contacts you later that day with the preliminary blood culture findings.
What organism is the most probable cause of the growth?Your Answer: Gram positive cocci
Explanation:Gram positive cocci are responsible for the majority of bacterial endocarditis cases. The most common culprits include Streptococcus viridans, Staphylococcus aureus (in individuals who use intravenous drugs or have prosthetic valves), and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in those with prosthetic valves). Other less common causes include Enterococcus, Streptococcus bovis, Candida, HACEK group, and Coxiella burnetii. Acute endocarditis is typically caused by Staphylococcus, while subacute cases are usually caused by Streptococcus species. Knowing the common underlying organisms is crucial for determining appropriate empirical antibiotic therapy. For native valve endocarditis, amoxicillin and gentamicin are recommended. Vancomycin and gentamicin are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis, penicillin allergy, or suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Vancomycin and meropenem are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis and risk factors for gram-negative infection. For prosthetic valve endocarditis, vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampicin are recommended. Once blood culture results are available, antibiotic therapy can be adjusted to provide specific coverage. Treatment typically involves long courses (4-6 weeks) of intravenous antibiotic therapy.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic with concerns about his recent exposure to chickenpox. He attended a family gathering where a child with chickenpox was present, but he cannot recall if he had the illness as a child. He is seeking advice on whether he needs any treatment.
What is the best course of action to take next?Your Answer: She should receive VZIG if antibody tests are negative
Explanation:Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and are immunosuppressed should be given VZIG if they are exposed to chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. The correct course of action is to conduct antibody testing to determine if the patient is negative, and if so, administer VZIG to protect them from potentially developing a serious chickenpox infection. Although a chickenpox vaccine exists, it is not part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule and is not recommended for immunosuppressed individuals due to its live nature. IV aciclovir can be given for chickenpox infection in immunocompromised individuals, but VZIG is more appropriate as it can help prevent the infection from manifesting. Administering VZIG once the patient has already shown symptoms of chickenpox is too late, as it has no therapeutic benefit at that point. While oral aciclovir can be given prophylactically or to reduce the severity of symptoms, VZIG is more appropriate for immunosuppressed patients who are at high risk of severe chickenpox infection.
Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups
Chickenpox is usually a mild illness in children with normal immune systems, but it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.
To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, three criteria should be met. Firstly, there must be significant exposure to chickenpox or herpes zoster. Secondly, the patient must have a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella, such as immunosuppression, neonates, or pregnancy. Finally, the patient should have no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, this should not delay post-exposure prophylaxis past seven days after initial contact.
Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). Managing chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that requires more detailed discussion, which is covered in a separate entry in the textbook.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer: High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections
Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:
1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.
2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.
3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.
4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.
5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.
In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?
Your Answer: Wash hands with soap and water
Explanation:Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.
Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of increased shortness of breath, cough with green sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. She has a history of COPD and is currently on a salbutamol inhaler, combined glycopyrronium and indacaterol inhaler, and oral prednisolone to manage her symptoms. She is being evaluated for BIPAP home therapy. On examination, her respiratory rate is 22/min, oxygen saturations are 85% in room air, heart rate is 86/min, temperature is 37.7ºC, and blood pressure is 145/78 mmHg. What is the most likely causative organism for her presentation?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most frequent cause of infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae, according to research. This bacterium’s strains that cause COPD exacerbations are more virulent and induce greater airway inflammation than those that only colonize patients without causing symptoms. Patients with COPD have reduced mucociliary clearance, making them susceptible to H. influenzae, which can lead to airway inflammation and increased breathing effort. Coxsackievirus is linked to hand, foot, and mouth disease, which primarily affects children but can also affect immunocompromised adults. This option is incorrect because the patient does not have the typical symptoms of sore throat, fever, and maculopapular rash on hands, foot, and mucosa. Influenza A virus is associated with the bird flu pandemic and is not the most common cause of infective exacerbations of COPD. Staphylococcus aureus is not commonly associated with infective exacerbations of COPD. This bacterium is more commonly seen in mild cases of skin infections or can lead to infective endocarditis and is associated with biofilms causing infection.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling loose stools, abdominal cramps and frequent flatulence. She has had the symptoms for five days when she presents to her General Practitioner for advice. A diagnosis of giardiasis is suspected.
What would be the most useful investigation to request for this patient?Your Answer: Send stool culture for microscopy and culture (MC+S)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Giardiasis: Which Ones Are Necessary?
Giardiasis is a common parasitic infection that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bloating. If a patient presents with these symptoms and has a history of recent foreign travel, giardiasis should be considered as a possible cause. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis:
Stool Culture for Microscopy and Culture (MC+S)
This test is specific for detecting giardia and other potential parasitic causes of gastrointestinal symptoms. It involves sending three stool specimens 2-3 days apart to a laboratory for analysis.Colonoscopy
A colonoscopy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as the patient’s symptoms and travel history are usually sufficient to suggest the diagnosis. A stool culture is a more appropriate test.Duodenal Biopsy
A duodenal biopsy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as it is an invasive test that is typically reserved for investigating malabsorption, iron-deficiency anaemia, or neoplasia.Full Blood Count
A full blood count is not useful for diagnosing giardiasis, as it typically does not cause peripheral leukocytosis or eosinophilia.In summary, a stool culture for MC+S is the most appropriate test for diagnosing giardiasis in a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and a history of recent foreign travel. Other tests, such as colonoscopy, duodenal biopsy, and full blood count, are not necessary for making the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus
Explanation:Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms
Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Correct
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A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center before applying to study medicine. She has received a full schedule of childhood vaccinations. Her primary complaints are difficulty swallowing, a sore throat, malaise, and a fever. Upon examination, she has 5-10 gray ulcers on her buccal mucosa. Additionally, she has a vesicular rash on her hands and feet.
What is the most probable cause of this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Coxsackie virus infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a viral illness caused by Coxsackie virus A type 16. It presents as a vesicular eruption in the mouth and can also involve the hands, feet, buttocks, and/or genitalia. Macular lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and/or hard palate rapidly progress to vesicles that erode and become surrounded by an erythematous halo. Skin lesions, which present as tender macules or vesicles on an erythematous base, develop in approximately 75% of patients. Treatment is supportive, and there is no antiviral agent specific for the aetiological agents. Adequate fluid intake, preferably with cold drinks, is essential to prevent dehydration.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema multiforme, herpes simplex infection, gonorrhoea, and pemphigus erythematosus. However, the clinical presentation and causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease distinguish it from these other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 5-day history of severe diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal pain, fever, and fatigue. He has never experienced these symptoms before. In the past 3 months, the patient has undergone treatment for upper urinary tract infections with both co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin. He has no known allergies and does not take any regular medications. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count, and a stool sample confirms the presence of Clostridium difficile toxin. According to national guidelines, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: A course of intravenous vancomycin
Correct Answer: A course of oral vancomycin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with confirmed Clostridium difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This infection typically occurs in patients who have recently taken broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin, which disrupt the gut flora. Discontinuing the implicated antibiotic and starting appropriate eradicative therapy is necessary. Oral fidaxomicin is an alternative but is less available. Metronidazole is no longer a first-line antibiotic due to lower cure rates than vancomycin, but it may be used if vancomycin is not available. IV vancomycin is ineffective as insufficient quantities are excreted into the gut lumen. Clindamycin is not a cure for Clostridium difficile but is associated with an increased risk of developing it. Conservative management is not recommended as the infection may worsen and lead to complications such as toxic megacolon.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Correct
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A patient who has recently returned from a camping trip is worried about having contracted Lyme disease. She has developed a rash and feels fatigued and achy. What is the most suitable test to investigate Lyme disease in a patient like her?
Your Answer: Blood test for serology
Explanation:When there is no history of erythema migrans, ELISA is the primary test used to investigate suspected cases of Lyme disease.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of abdominal cramps and watery diarrhoea. Her symptoms started two days after she ate a salad from a restaurant.
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:Campylobacter jejuni is a prevalent cause of bacterial food poisoning in the UK, typically transmitted through contaminated food or drink. Symptoms usually appear 2-5 days after exposure and may include abdominal cramps, diarrhea (which may or may not be bloody), nausea, vomiting, and fever. While symptoms are usually mild and self-limiting, severe cases or immunocompromised patients may require antibiotic treatment. Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens are less likely causes of food poisoning due to their short incubation periods and milder symptoms. Rotavirus is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis in children, but adults are rarely affected due to immunity. Staphylococcus aureus can also cause food poisoning, with symptoms appearing 2-6 hours after ingestion and including nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old female sex worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a high fever and severe headache. During the physical examination, you observe neck stiffness and mild photophobia, prompting you to perform a lumbar puncture. The results of the lumbar puncture reveal the presence of a yeast and a capsule in the CSF stained with India ink.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cryptococcal meningitis
Explanation:Cryptococcus neoformans is a yeast that has a protective capsule and requires oxygen to survive. It can thrive in both plants and animals, and when it infects humans, it causes cryptococcosis. While the infection typically affects the lungs, it can also lead to fungal meningitis and encephalitis in individuals with weakened immune systems. HIV-positive patients are particularly susceptible to this infection, and given the patient’s history as a sex worker, it’s possible that they have an undiagnosed HIV infection that has progressed to AIDS. Additionally, cryptococcus neoformans can be detected through india ink staining during a lumbar puncture.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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A 28-year-old female is admitted to the Medical Admissions Unit with symptoms of neck stiffness, photophobia, and fever. No rash is present, and her GCS is 15. Upon lumbar puncture, her CSF shows increased opening pressure and turbidity, with a raised white cell count and low glucose. Ceftriaxone is initiated, but what additional treatment is necessary to enhance outcomes?
Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:The patient’s presentation and CSF results strongly suggest bacterial meningitis, for which appropriate antibiotic therapy has been initiated. To improve neurological outcomes and reduce the risk of sequelae such as deafness, dexamethasone is the recommended additional treatment. However, it should be noted that dexamethasone is contraindicated in cases of septic shock or meningococcal septicaemia. Antivirals such as aciclovir are not indicated in bacterial meningitis, while fluconazole, an anti-fungal, is also not appropriate. Prednisolone has no role in the treatment of meningitis.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal liver function tests are detected, prompting a hepatitis screen. The results are as follows:
Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
Negative for HBsAg
Positive for Anti-HBs
Negative for Anti-HBc
Positive for Anti-HCV
What is the most likely interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Previous vaccination to hepatitis B and C
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination
Explanation:To determine if a patient still has the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients naturally clear the infection. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.
When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) typically indicates acute disease and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it suggests chronic disease and is infectious. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either exposure or vaccination, while anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. The appearance of IgM anti-HBc during acute or recent hepatitis B infection lasts for about six months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity as it results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.
Understanding Hepatitis C: Transmission, Complications, and Management
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that is expected to become a significant public health concern in the UK in the coming years. It is estimated that around 200,000 people in the country are chronically infected with the virus, with intravenous drug users and those who received blood transfusions prior to 1991 being at higher risk. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks.
Transmission of the virus can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child (especially if coexistent with HIV), and sexual intercourse (although the risk is low). There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C. Symptoms of acute infection include a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia.
Around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection, while the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C. This can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinemia. Treatment for chronic infection depends on the viral genotype and aims for sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, with protease inhibitors such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir and simeprevir being used instead. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, and fatigue.
In conclusion, understanding the transmission, complications, and management of hepatitis C is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Antibodies and Antigens
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. To diagnose and manage the disease, healthcare providers rely on various serologic tests that detect specific antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here are some key markers and their significance:
Anti-HBs antibodies: These antibodies are produced after a resolved infection or vaccination. They indicate immunity to hepatitis B.
HBs antigen: This antigen is present in the blood during an acute infection. Its detection confirms the diagnosis of hepatitis B.
Anti-HBe antibodies: These antibodies appear during recovery from acute hepatitis B or in inactive carriers. They suggest a lower risk of infectivity.
Anti-HBc antibodies: These antibodies are present in both acute and chronic hepatitis B. Their detection helps distinguish between recent and past infections.
HBe antigen: This antigen is a marker of high infectivity and viral replication. Its presence indicates a higher risk of transmission.
Understanding these markers can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections more effectively. It can also help individuals understand their immune status and make informed decisions about vaccination and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks ago. During examination, her vagina appears swollen and red.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trichomoniasis
Explanation:Common Genitourinary Infections: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Trichomoniasis, Candidiasis, AIDS, HPV, and Lactobacilli infection are some of the most common genitourinary infections. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis and presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida and presents with pruritus, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. AIDS is a viral infection that has a hyperacute onset and is unlikely in patients with no past medical history or risk factors. HPV infection is common and often goes unnoticed, but can manifest as warty lesions on the genital or anal area. Lactobacilli infection is not associated with causing infection. Diagnosis of these infections depends on laboratory testing, with culture being the current criterion standard for trichomoniasis and physical examination for candidiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 32
Correct
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The organism that is becoming increasingly resistant to antimicrobial agents and is responsible for a high number of hospital-acquired infections is which of the following?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Pathogens and Their Associated Infections
Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by various pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, and fungi. The most common types of infections are bloodstream infection, pneumonia, urinary tract infection, and surgical site infection. Staphylococcus aureus is a prevalent pathogen, with approximately 33% of the general population being carriers and 2% carrying the antibiotic-resistant strain MRSA. Toxoplasma gondii can cause severe disease in fetuses, newborns, and immunocompromised patients. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of pneumonia and meningitis in children and the elderly, as well as septicaemia in HIV-infected individuals. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a rare cause of infection in the general population but can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, especially those with AIDS. Listeria monocytogenes primarily affects newborns, elderly patients, and immunocompromised individuals. Understanding these common pathogens and their associated infections is crucial in preventing and treating hospital-acquired infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a 9-day history of cramping abdominal pain, fever and diarrhoea, opening his bowels up to 7 times per day. He has a past medical history of COPD and reports to have completed 2 courses of antibiotics to treat an exacerbation within the last 2 weeks.
After being diagnosed with a likely infection, the patient is started on oral vancomycin but shows little improvement. The treatment is then switched to fidaxomicin, but he still reports ongoing pain and diarrhoea even after completing the course.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Intravenous vancomycin
Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole
Explanation:If the initial treatment of C. difficile with vancomycin or fidaxomicin is ineffective, the next step should be to administer oral vancomycin with or without intravenous metronidazole.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.Your Answer: The travel history
Correct Answer: The recent hospital admission
Explanation:Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis
Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left iliac fossa discomfort and fever without rectal bleeding.
Three months ago she was treated for confirmed Clostridium difficile infection with oral vancomycin, with a resolution of symptoms.
On examination, her heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min, temperature 37.6ºC and blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally mildly tender, without guarding.
A repeat stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Oral vancomycin for 10 days
Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin
Explanation:If a patient experiences a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, it is recommended to treat them with oral fidaxomicin. However, the use of bezlotoxumab to prevent recurrences is not currently supported by NICE due to cost-effectiveness concerns. Faecal microbiota transplant may be considered for patients who have had two or more previous episodes, but not on the first recurrence. In cases of life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection, both oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole should be used for treatment.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 36
Correct
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A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried about contracting the disease. What is the recommended prophylaxis in this situation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Meningitis: Recommended Drugs and Dosages
Meningitis is a serious infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment for meningitis, and prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended for close contacts of infected individuals. Here are the recommended drugs and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis:
Ciprofloxacin: This antibiotic is now the preferred choice for prophylaxis in all age groups and in pregnancy. It is a single dose and readily available in pharmacies, and does not interact with oral contraceptives. It should be given to all close contacts of probable or confirmed meningococcal meningitis, with dosages ranging from 250 mg to 500 mg depending on age.
Metronidazole: This drug has no role in the treatment of acute meningitis.
Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic has good penetration into inflamed meninges and can be given via intramuscular or oral route. It can be used in monotherapy in adults under 60 years old, or in dual therapy with amoxicillin in older adults.
Co-trimoxazole: This drug is an alternative to cefotaxime or ceftriaxone in older adults, and is also used in individuals with meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes infection.
Vancomycin: This antibiotic is recommended in cases of penicillin resistance or suspected penicillin-resistant pneumococci, but should never be used in monotherapy due to doubts about its penetration into adult CSF.
Chemoprophylaxis: Close contacts of infected individuals should receive prophylactic antibiotics to prevent nasopharyngeal carriage of the organism. Ciprofloxacin is the first-line choice, with dosages ranging from 10 mg/kg to 600 mg depending on age. Rifampicin can be given as an alternative for those unable to take ciprofloxacin.
It is important to seek microbiology and public health advice if in doubt about the appropriate antibiotics and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely unwell and has a high temperature, runny nose and inflamed eyes. The mother explains that her daughter has not had her vaccinations as she is worried about the long-term effects of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) jab.
Which of the following best reflects the current understanding of measles infection?Your Answer: Koplik’s spots are a late sign of measles infection
Correct Answer: It is more dangerous in overcrowded households
Explanation:Measles: Symptoms, Complications, and Prevention
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to serious respiratory complications such as pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and bronchiectasis. While it does not cause recurrent pneumothoraces, severe infection from prolonged exposure to infected siblings in overcrowded households can be fatal.
Koplik’s spots, small red spots with bluish-white centers, are a characteristic late sign of measles infection that may appear on the mucous membranes of the mouth 1-2 days before the rash appears.
Contrary to popular belief, lifelong immunity is often established after natural infection with measles. This is also the mechanism by which the MMR vaccine prevents measles infection in later life.
Measles can also lead to corneal ulceration, especially in cases of vitamin A deficiency. High-dose oral vitamin A supplementation is recommended for all children with measles in developing countries to prevent this complication.
Overall, prevention through vaccination is the best way to avoid the serious complications of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:
Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.
Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.
Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.
Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.
Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 39
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history of lower abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia. She has also noticed a creamy foul-smelling vaginal discharge. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medications.
On examination, her temperature is 38.1 °C. The remainder of her observations are within normal limits. There is palpable lower abdominal tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bimanual examination elicits bilateral adnexal tenderness. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the causative organism?
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer: Vaginal microscopy and culture
Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT)
Explanation:Investigations for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that can cause deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal and adnexal tenderness. The most common cause of PID is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be diagnosed through nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT). This involves taking a urine sample and a swab from the vagina or cervix to test for the organism. While a blood culture may be considered for a febrile patient, it is not routinely used for diagnosing C. trachomatis. Vaginal microscopy and culture used to be the preferred method for diagnosis, but NAAT is now recommended. Testing vaginal pH is commonly used for vaginal infections, but is not useful for PID. Urine microscopy and culture is used for UTIs, but the presence of vaginal discharge and deep dyspareunia suggests PID instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Correct
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What is the most suitable antibiotic for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a 22-year-old female who is not expecting?
Your Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline is the recommended treatment for chlamydia.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 42
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of lower abdominal pain, pain during sexual intercourse, and an abnormal vaginal discharge. A vaginal swab reveals a positive chlamydia infection. She has no known allergies and is generally healthy. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe a 7-day course of doxycycline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chlamydia Infections
Chlamydia trachomatis is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be effectively treated with antibiotics. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidance on the appropriate antimicrobial prescribing for chlamydia infections.
The first-line treatment for chlamydia is a 7-day course of doxycycline. This medication is highly effective against Chlamydia trachomatis and is well-tolerated by most patients. If doxycycline cannot be used, such as in cases of pregnancy or allergy, a 7-day course of azithromycin can be given as a second-line option.
It is important for patients to complete their full course of antibiotics and to avoid sexual intercourse until treatment is complete. If the treatment is completed, there is no need for a test of cure to be carried out.
Other antibiotics, such as oral penicillin and cefalexin, are not effective against chlamydia infections. A one-off dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoea infections, but it is not indicated for the treatment of chlamydia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 43
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother, with a 3-day history of fever up to 37.8 °C. She had no history of lesions on the buccal mucosa but developed a maculopapular rash across the face and trunk. A few days before the appearance of the rash, she complained of some eye pain, sore throat and general body aches. On physical examination, she has a discrete rose-pink maculopapular rash on the face, neck and trunk, low-grade fever and enlarged posterior auricular and suboccipital lymph nodes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Viral Diseases: Rubella, Mumps, Meningitis, Scarlet Fever, and Erythema Infectiosum
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a typically mild viral disease that often goes unnoticed, with almost half of those infected showing no symptoms. However, it can have severe consequences for pregnant women, especially in the early stages of pregnancy. Symptoms include eye pain, sore throat, low-grade fever, and a rose-pink rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours.
Mumps is another viral disease caused by rubulavirus. It typically presents with low-grade fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia, followed by painful swelling of the salivary glands and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Mumps is highly contagious and has become less common in developing countries due to vaccination.
Meningitis is a serious condition characterized by inflammation of the meninges. Symptoms include fever, headache, and neck stiffness, and it requires urgent medical attention.
Scarlet fever is caused by group A β-hemolytic streptococci and presents with exudative pharyngitis, fever, and a bright red rash. It typically evolves from a tonsillar/pharyngeal focus and is uncommon without buccal lesions.
Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is a mild childhood illness caused by parvovirus B19. It presents with a bright red rash on the cheeks and may have atypical rashes in adults.
It is important to distinguish between these viral diseases to ensure proper treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as having a fishy smell and a white colour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms and she denies pregnancy. She is sexually active with one regular partner of three years and has the Mirena coil in situ.
On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. The bimanual examination is unremarkable with no adnexal tenderness elicited. Her vaginal pH is 5.
What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing
Correct Answer: Vaginal swab for microscopy and culture
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis and Urinary Tract Infections
Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on Amsel’s criteria, which includes thin, white-colored vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy. A vaginal swab for microscopy and culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis, especially if the patient meets two of the four criteria.
On the other hand, urine microscopy and culture are used to diagnose urinary tract infections, which share some symptoms with sexually transmitted infections. However, the presence of vaginal discharge makes a sexually transmitted infection more likely, and alternative investigations are more specific.
Blood culture and hysteroscopy and culture are not indicated in the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Blood culture is not usually necessary, while hysteroscopy and biopsy are invasive procedures used to diagnose endometrial disorders.
Lastly, nucleic acid amplification testing is used to diagnose chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Although chlamydia may cause symptoms similar to bacterial vaginosis, the presence of increased vaginal pH makes bacterial vaginosis more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 45
Correct
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who is worried about his confusion after a recent chest infection. She mentions that he did not get better even after taking amoxicillin. During the examination, crackles are heard on the left side of his chest and his vital signs show a respiratory rate of 28/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, and heart rate of 110/min.
What would be the suitable fluid therapy to administer?Your Answer: 500ml stat
Explanation:This individual displays several indicators of red flag sepsis, such as confusion, hypotension, and elevated respiratory rate. It is imperative to initiate the sepsis 6 protocol.
According to the NICE guidelines for sepsis, when administering intravenous fluid resuscitation to patients aged 16 and above, it is recommended to use crystalloids containing sodium levels between 130-154 mmol/litre, with a 500 ml bolus administered in less than 15 minutes.Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 46
Correct
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A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and his sputum test is positive for acid-fast bacilli. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. What is the recommended initial medication combination for him?
Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
Explanation:Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.
In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.
While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 47
Correct
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You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate test to conduct?
Your Answer: HBsAg
Explanation:If the result of the anti-HBs test is positive, it means that the person is immune to hepatitis B either through vaccination or previous infection. On the other hand, a positive HBsAg test indicates that the person is currently infected with hepatitis B, either in its acute or chronic form.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 48
Correct
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A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh. He also complains of joint discomfort and fatigue. Lyme disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to confirm this diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate laboratory test from the list below.Your Answer: Anti-Borrelia burgdorferi titre
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Lyme Disease: Understanding the Results
Lyme disease is a common illness caused by the spirochaete B. burgdorferi, transmitted to humans via tick bites. Serologic testing is the most frequently used diagnostic tool, but false positives and negatives are common. The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the first step, followed by a western blot if necessary. However, serologic results cannot distinguish active from inactive disease. Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factor test results are negative in B. burgdorferi infection. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated but is not specific to detect infection. Culture of joint fluids can rule out gout and pseudogout, but detection of B. burgdorferi DNA in synovial fluid is not reliable. Blood cultures are impractical. Understanding the limitations of these tests is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of Lyme disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 49
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of green sputum. He has a history of COPD and is an active smoker. Upon examination, he is wheezy bilaterally and saturating at 94% on room air. A chest X-ray shows no signs of consolidation. The following blood tests were obtained:
CRP 26 mg/L (< 5)
Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most likely causative organism for this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Haemophilus infuenzae
Explanation:Haemophilus influenzae is the most frequent organism responsible for causing infective exacerbations of COPD, as evidenced by this man’s productive cough, increased shortness of breath, and wheezing.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at a nearby restaurant. What organism is the most probable cause of this reaction?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:The diagnosis can be inferred as a result of the short incubation period and intense vomiting.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 51
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is taking oral antibiotics for mild diverticulitis. He goes to a wedding and later complains of palpitations, vomiting, headache, and flushing. His heart rate is 110 beats/min. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies to any medication or food. He denies using recreational drugs but admits to having one beer at the wedding. What antibiotic is he likely taking?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:When metronidazole and ethanol are taken together, it can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as flushing in the head and neck, nausea, vomiting, sweating, headaches, and palpitations. Additionally, alcohol consumption should be avoided when taking cefoperazone, a cephalosporin, as it can also lead to a disulfiram-like reaction.
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a notifiable disease in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: HIV
Explanation:Notifying authorities about HIV is not required.
Notifiable Diseases in the UK
In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. The Proper Officer at the team will then inform the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, legionnaires disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK, and in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases. The purpose of notifiable diseases is to monitor and control the spread of infectious diseases in the population. By requiring healthcare professionals to report cases, public health officials can track outbreaks and take appropriate measures to prevent further transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 53
Correct
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A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her legs. Her CD4 count is 96 cells/mm3 (normal range: > 600 mm3) and her viral load measures greater than 500 000 copies/ml.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Raised Nodular Lesion: Common Skin Conditions in HIV-1 Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a prevalent tumour in HIV-1-positive individuals and a leading cause of death in these patients. It is an AIDS-defining illness in 15% of patients and commonly occurs with a CD4 count of fewer than 200 cells/mm3. Other common tumours in HIV-1 include non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and those caused by human papillomavirus. Basal cell carcinoma, the most common non-melanoma skin cancer, typically presents with a single, shiny, pearlised nodule and may ulcerate, but does not match the description in this scenario. Cryoglobulinaemia, a condition associated with hepatitis C infection, causes a vasculitic rash and does not match this scenario’s description. Fixed drug eruption describes the development of one or more annular or oval erythematous plaques resulting from systemic exposure to a drug and does not tend to cause raised nodular lesions. Melanoma is typically black/darkly pigmented and usually a single lesion, therefore it does not match the description in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 54
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of malaise and diarrhoea. She reports feeling shivery and achy for the past 3 days and has had 4 watery stools in the past 24 hours. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. Her last dose of doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide was administered 10 days ago. She has no known allergies and takes no other medications. On examination, her heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 20/min with saturations of 100% in room air, blood pressure is 100/79 mmHg, and temperature is 39.1ºC.
What is the initial management approach for this patient while awaiting the results of her blood culture?Your Answer: Piperacillin with tazobactam (tazocin)
Explanation:The recommended empirical antibiotic for managing neutropenic sepsis is Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin). This is because the patient is displaying symptoms such as malaise, diarrhoea, flu-like aching, mild tachycardia, and a temperature >38ºC, and has a history of chemotherapy within the past 7-14 days. As the patient has no allergies, Tazocin should be administered until blood cultures show a specific sensitivity. Amoxicillin is not effective in treating neutropenic sepsis as it is not broad-spectrum enough. Meropenem is only indicated in patients with previous or suspected ESBL, acute leukaemia, or allogeneic stem cell transplants, and is not recommended as first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. Teicoplanin is recommended for patients with penicillin or beta-lactam allergies and evidence of neutropenic sepsis, but should be used in combination with another non-penicillin antibiotic as per local guidelines. Vancomycin is an alternative for penicillin-allergic patients, and should be administered with gentamicin, ciprofloxacin, or amikacin depending on local guidelines and the severity of the patient’s presentation.
Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.
To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.
According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.
If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers. He describes a flu-like illness in recent days, with myalgia and rigours every two days. He has previously been well, other than an episode of suspected malaria on a gap year in Brazil three years ago, which was felt to be successfully treated. He has not been abroad since.
On examination, he has splenomegaly, scleral icterus and a temperature of 39.1°C.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 135–175 g/l
White Cell Count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 100 × 109 150–450× 109/l
Blood film Awaited
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Plasmodium malariae
Correct Answer: Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Fluctuating Pyrexia: Malaria vs. Other Causes
The patient in question is experiencing fluctuating rigours of malaria, despite not having been in a malaria-affected zone for two years. This suggests a recurrence of pre-existing malaria, with the most likely subtype being P. vivax due to its ability to lie dormant in the liver for extended periods. While dengue fever is a possibility, the history of fluctuating pyrexia is more indicative of malaria, which also causes anaemia and thrombocytopenia. P. falciparum is a reasonable differential, but less likely given the patient’s travel history. P. malariae is rare and typically presents with fevers recurring every three days, making it less likely. Yellow fever is also unlikely due to the patient’s travel timeline and lack of jaundice. Overall, malaria is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.
Which vaccines should be avoided in this individual?Your Answer: Rabies
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:Patients who are HIV positive should not receive live attenuated vaccines like BCG. Additionally, immunocompromised individuals should avoid other live attenuated vaccines such as yellow fever, oral polio, intranasal influenza, varicella, and measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and a persistent sore throat for the last two weeks. During the examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, pulse rate is 78/min, and there is widespread cervical lymphadenopathy with palatal petechiae. What is the potential complication that this patient may face due to the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Encephalitis
Correct Answer: Splenic rupture
Explanation:It is recommended to refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks if diagnosed with glandular fever.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 58
Correct
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A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
Which of the following is the most likely organism?Your Answer: Salmonella species
Explanation:Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers
Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful ulcer on his genitals. Upon examination, you observe a lesion that is 1cm x 1cm in size and has a ragged border. Additionally, you notice tender lymphadenopathy in the groin area. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Haemophilus ducreyi
Explanation:Chancroid is the culprit behind painful genital ulcers that have a ragged border and are accompanied by tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Haemophilus ducreyi is the organism responsible for causing chancroid. While herpes simplex virus can also cause painful genital ulcers, they tend to be smaller and multiple, and primary attacks are often accompanied by fever. On the other hand, lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by C. trachomatis, syphilis by T. pallidum, and granuloma inguinale by K. granulomatis, all of which result in painless genital ulcers.
Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.
Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Before his initial occupational health visit, the clinic physician reviews the results of a blood test taken by a 23-year-old medical student for hepatitis B serology.
What is the significance of the following blood test results?
- Positive anti-HBc IgG
- Negative anti-HBc IgM
- Negative anti-HBs
- Positive HBsAgYour Answer: Immunity following previous infection with hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Chronic infection with hepatitis B
Explanation:If a person has a positive anti-HBc IgG, negative anti-HBc IgM, and negative anti-HBc in the presence of HBsAg, it indicates that they have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In acute hepatitis B infection, HBsAg is usually the first positive marker, and if it remains positive for over 6 months, the patient has a chronic hepatitis B infection. The presence of HBsAg in this patient indicates either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B. In response to infection, the body produces antibodies to the hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc), which remain indefinitely. In acute infection, IgM antibodies are produced, which are gradually replaced with IgG antibodies. This patient has negative anti-HBc IgM and positive anti-HBc IgG, indicating no acute infection. The absence of anti-HBs confirms chronic infection. In acute infection, anti-HBc IgM would also be positive, indicating exposure to the virus within the last 6 months. Over time, this is replaced with anti-HBc IgG, indicating resolved or chronic infection. Immunity following previous infection would be positive for anti-HBc IgG and anti-HBs, while previous vaccination would show positive anti-HBs only.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?
Your Answer: Avoid any food or drink containing alcohol
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 62
Correct
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You receive a call for guidance. The parents of a 20-year-old man have just received a message from their son who is currently backpacking in Vietnam. He was bitten by a dog earlier in the day while staying in a rural community. Before embarking on his journey, he received a rabies vaccination as he planned to visit many rural areas. What advice should you give?
Your Answer: He should urgently seek local medical attention for consideration of booster vaccination + antibiotic therapy
Explanation:If left untreated, rabies is almost always fatal. Although it may be difficult to recall all the countries with a high incidence of rabies, it is evident that being bitten by a dog in a rural area poses a risk. It is imperative that he seeks immediate medical attention as a booster vaccination is necessary to reduce the likelihood of contracting rabies. Delaying treatment by flying home is not advisable.
Understanding Rabies: A Deadly Viral Disease
Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute encephalitis. It is caused by a bullet-shaped capsid RNA rhabdovirus, specifically a lyssavirus. The disease is primarily transmitted through dog bites, but it can also be transmitted through bites from bats, raccoons, and skunks. Once the virus enters the body, it travels up the nerve axons towards the central nervous system in a retrograde fashion.
Rabies is a deadly disease that still kills around 25,000-50,000 people worldwide each year, with the majority of cases occurring in poor rural areas of Africa and Asia. Children are particularly at risk. The disease has several features, including a prodrome of headache, fever, and agitation, as well as hydrophobia, which causes water-provoking muscle spasms, and hypersalivation. Negri bodies, which are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons, are also a characteristic feature of the disease.
In developed countries like the UK, there is considered to be no risk of developing rabies following an animal bite. However, in at-risk countries, it is important to take immediate action following an animal bite. The wound should be washed, and if an individual is already immunized, then two further doses of vaccine should be given. If not previously immunized, then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If left untreated, the disease is nearly always fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Shigella
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Travellers’ diarrhoea is most commonly caused by E. coli.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 64
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ºC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?
Your Answer: Erysipelas
Explanation:Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.
For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.
For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 65
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman returns to her General Practitioner for the results of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test; the result is positive. Which of the following investigations will be most useful in estimating her risk of developing an opportunistic infection (OI)?
Your Answer: CD4 count
Explanation:The CD4 count is a reliable way to measure the immune system’s response to HIV infection. In HIV-negative individuals, the CD4 count is usually maintained above 600-800 cells/µl. However, without antiretroviral therapy, HIV-positive individuals will experience a gradual decline in CD4 count over time. A CD4 count of less than 350 cells/µl increases the risk of opportunistic infections, while a count of less than 200 cells/µl indicates an 80% risk of developing an OI within three years. Some patients may remain well despite having a low CD4 count, depending on viral load and host immunity factors. Different OIs are more likely at different CD4 counts. The World Health Organization now recommends starting ART in every HIV-positive individual, regardless of CD4 count.
A CXR is usually normal in HIV-positive individuals without chronic respiratory disorders. Blood cultures may help diagnose an OI, but do not estimate the risk of developing OIs. HIV-positive individuals often have an abnormal FBC, but this does not help with risk assessment for OIs. TST is used to check for immunity to TB and diagnose LTBI. HIV-positive individuals are at higher risk of TB disease, but may have a muted response to TST due to their compromised immunity. TST can be useful in assessing eligibility for isoniazid preventive therapy, but not in assessing disease stage and risk of OIs in general.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 66
Correct
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Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?
Your Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection
Explanation:Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions
Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.
The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.
Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.
While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.
The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.
Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.
In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 67
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria for the past 5 days. Urethral swabs are taken and microscopy reveals the presence of diplococci. Sensitivities are not yet available, and he is diagnosed with gonorrhoea. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, and it is crucial to notify and treat sexual partners. All patients with gonorrhoea should undergo a test of cure after 2 weeks.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 68
Correct
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A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is identified to have a notifiable disease. The nurses suggest that you should inform the Consultant in Communicable Disease Control (CCDC).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis (recognised as a notifiable disease)?Your Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Notifiable Diseases in England
In England, Public Health England is responsible for detecting possible outbreaks of disease and epidemics as quickly as possible. The accuracy of diagnosis is not the primary concern, and since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is all that is required. Malaria, caused by various species of Plasmodium, is a notifiable disease. However, Mycoplasma pneumonia, HIV, necrotising fasciitis, and acute rheumatic fever are not notifiable diseases in England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 69
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), presents to the Emergency Department with reducing vision in her right eye. Her last CD4 count, measured in clinic, was < 100 cells/mm3.
Which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:Eye Conditions in Immunocompromised Patients
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, acute glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, molluscum contagiosum of eyelids, and uveitis are all potential eye conditions that can affect immunocompromised patients.
CMV retinitis is a common cause of eye disease in patients with HIV, causing necrotising retinitis with visual loss. Fundoscopy demonstrates a characteristic ‘pizza pie’ picture, with flame-shaped haemorrhages and retinal infarction. Treatment involves local and/or systemic delivery of antiviral agents such as ganciclovir, valganciclovir, or foscarnet.
Acute glaucoma is a medical emergency that presents with sudden onset of severe unilateral eye pain, vomiting, red-eye, and seeing lights distorted by haloes and decreasing vision. It is not associated with HIV/low CD4+ counts.
Age-related macular degeneration is a chronic and progressive condition affecting older people, resulting in a gradual loss of vision, particularly of the central vision. It is not related to HIV and typically presents as a chronic condition.
Molluscum contagiosum of eyelids is a viral skin infection that is more common in immunocompromised hosts. However, it tends to occur on the trunk, extremities, or abdomen, and involvement of the eyelid and buccal mucosa is uncommon.
Uveitis presents with eye pain, photophobia, blurring vision with loss of peripheral vision in some patients, redness in the eye, and possibly floaters in the vision. It is associated with HLA-B27, autoimmune conditions such as Crohn’s disease, and infections such as toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, and Lyme disease. It is not associated with HIV, and pain and photophobia are normally very prominent symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 70
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice. She has been experiencing anal discharge and itching for the past 4 days. She also has some symptoms of painful urination. A urethral smear shows intracellular diplococci.
What is the most probable infectious agent that matches this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Common Sexually Transmitted Infections and Diagnostic Methods
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a major public health concern worldwide. Here are some common STIs and their diagnostic methods:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This bacterium causes gonorrhoea, which is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A Gram stain is the method of choice for detecting gonorrhoea in symptomatic men.
Treponema pallidum: This spirochaete bacterium causes syphilis. Serologic testing is the standard method of detection for all stages of syphilis.
Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacterium is an obligate intracellular micro-organism that infects squamocolumnar epithelial cells. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) is the most sensitive test for detecting C. trachomatis infection, and a urine sample is an effective specimen for this test.
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This virus is typically associated with orofacial disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-1.
Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2): This virus is typically associated with urogenital disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-2.
Common STIs and Their Diagnostic Methods
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who continues to smoke is housebound due to his disability.
Which of the following immunisations should he receive on a yearly basis?Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type b
Correct Answer: Influenza A virus
Explanation:Common Vaccinations and Their Administration Schedule
Influenza, caused by three types of viruses, is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection. The influenza vaccination programme aims to protect those at risk of severe disease or complications. The World Health Organisation recommends the strains of influenza to include in the vaccine each year. Inactivated vaccines are available in the UK, containing two subtypes of influenza A and one of influenza B virus. The vaccine is recommended for children aged 6 months to 2 years in an at-risk group, those aged 18 years and over in an at-risk group, pregnant women, those aged 65 years and older, those in long-stay residential care homes, and carers.
Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is a bacterium that can cause serious infections, including meningitis. Vaccination against Hib is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.
Clostridium tetani is a bacterium that causes tetanus, a serious disease that affects the nervous system. Vaccination against tetanus is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.
Hepatitis B is a virus that can cause liver disease. Vaccination against hepatitis B is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and other serious infections. Pneumococcal vaccine is administered to children at 8, 16, and 18 weeks and to those at high risk due to long-term health conditions at 65 years of age or older (pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine – PPV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 72
Correct
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A 19-year-old non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is found to have 106 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml of urine on a routine health check.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: No antibiotics are indicated
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common finding in clinical practice, but it does not require antibiotic treatment. Patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at increased risk for symptomatic UTI, but treatment does not decrease the frequency of symptomatic UTIs nor improve other outcomes. Therefore, screening for or treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not appropriate and should be discouraged.
Treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in women should be reserved for pregnant patients, those undergoing a urological procedure that may produce mucosal bleeding, and the significantly immunosuppressed. Pregnant patients are considered immunosuppressed UTI hosts due to the physiological changes associated with pregnancy, which increase the risk for serious complications even in healthy pregnant women. However, it should not be treated in diabetic patients, elderly individuals, or those with indwelling catheters.
Antibiotic treatment is not recommended in this clinical scenario, even in symptomatic UTIs. Current UK antimicrobial guidance recommends treatment for 3-7 days, depending on the clinical case, not with a single-dose administration. Investigating the renal tract is also not necessary for a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Intravenous antibiotic treatment is reserved for complicated UTIs, in which case the patient would present far more unwell than what is seen in this scenario. Underlying conditions that predispose patients to complicated UTIs include diabetes, renal failure, functional or anatomic abnormality of the urinary tract, renal transplantation, an indwelling catheter stent, or immunosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 73
Correct
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A 26-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of fevers, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy that had been going on for 8 days. A positive monospot test was obtained. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein bar virus (EBV) is usually a self-limiting condition that lasts for approximately 2 weeks in individuals with a healthy immune system. Treatment options such as aciclovir, penicillin V, clarithromycin, and valganciclovir are not effective for treating EBV.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female visited her doctor complaining of a 3-week history of excessive malodorous vaginal discharge. Microscopy revealed the presence of clue cells, and she was diagnosed with Gardnerella vaginalis-induced bacterial vaginosis.
What would be the appropriate treatment option?Your Answer: Fluconazole
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Common Antibiotics and Antifungals: Uses and Dosages
Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Co-amoxiclav, Fluconazole, and Nystatin are common antibiotics and antifungals used to treat various infections. Metronidazole is recommended for bacterial vaginosis and can be taken orally or applied topically. Azithromycin is used for Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and chancroid. Co-amoxiclav is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used for respiratory and urinary tract infections, among others. Fluconazole is an oral antifungal used for severe oral and vaginal candidiasis. Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis. Dosages and treatment durations vary depending on the specific infection being treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 75
Correct
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A 32-year-old man has recently returned from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. While there, he consumed food from various street vendors. He complained of abdominal discomfort, bloating and loose stools. Analysis of three stool samples showed cysts in two of them. The patient was treated with metronidazole and showed improvement.
What is the probable medical condition in this scenario?Your Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Protozoal Parasite Causing Diarrhoeal Illness
Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia intestinalis (previously known as G. lamblia). It is prevalent in areas with poor sanitation and can cause asymptomatic colonisation or acute or chronic diarrhoeal illness. Travellers to highly endemic areas are at high risk of infection. Ingestion of as few as ten Giardia cysts can cause infection. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom of acute Giardia infection, occurring in 90% of symptomatic subjects. The traditional basis of diagnosis is identification of G. intestinalis trophozoites or cysts in the stool of infected patients via stool ova and parasite examination. Standard treatment consists of antibiotic therapy, and metronidazole is the most commonly prescribed antibiotic for this condition. Giardia infection may occur more commonly in families with X-linked agammaglobulinaemia and in sexually active men who have sex with men (MSM).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with pain and swelling in the left ear and face. On examination, he is febrile, the external auditory canal is red, tender and swollen with green purulent discharge. The left side of the face is swollen, with tenderness over the left temporal bone. He has left-sided facial nerve palsy involving the forehead.
What is the primary micro-organism most likely responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Listeria monocytogenes
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Malignant Otitis Externa
Malignant otitis externa is a serious infection that primarily affects patients with uncontrolled diabetes. The infection can spread to the temporal bone, causing osteomyelitis, cranial nerve palsies, and potentially central nervous system infection. The most common causative agent for this condition is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause various infections, including cellulitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.
Staphylococcus aureus, a commensal bacterium, can cause skin and soft-tissue infections, including malignant otitis externa. The characteristic signs and symptoms presented by the patient are more typical of this condition than cellulitis.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and meningitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.
Listeria monocytogenes is a rare cause of infection that primarily affects newborns, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. It is not consistent with the clinical scenario provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 77
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough and increasing shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. She also reports fever, headache, anorexia, and chills. Upon examination, she appears slightly pale and confused. Her vital signs reveal a pulse of 136/min, blood pressure of 96/64 mmHg, respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds in the left lower lung with some coarse crackles. Blood cultures are taken and the patient is cannulated. High flow oxygen is administered and a fluid challenge is ordered by the nurse. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:If the patient’s condition worsens, ITU may be consulted. However, before referring the patient, it is important to determine if she has already received basic sepsis care. Although studies have explored the use of steroids in sepsis, they are not presently recommended due to an increase in mortality.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 78
Incorrect
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An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the elderly care wards. The catering suppliers assure you that their food is unlikely to be responsible because they follow the strictest hygiene procedures. A total of 15 elderly patients on the ward have become unwell with a sudden onset of diarrhoea and vomiting. Those infected earlier have recovered with rehydration therapy after about 48 hours. Examination of faeces by electron microscopy has revealed circular virus particles with radiating spokes.
Which virus is most likely to be responsible for this outbreak?Your Answer: Enteric adenovirus
Correct Answer: Rotavirus
Explanation:Common Viruses that Cause Gastroenteritis
Gastroenteritis is a self-limiting illness caused by several viruses, including rotavirus, enteric adenovirus, small round-structured virus (SRSV), norovirus, and astrovirus. Among these, rotavirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 years of age, while norovirus affects people of all ages. Rotavirus causes infant deaths worldwide, but acquired immunity develops after one episode. Norovirus is usually transmitted through contaminated food or water, while adenovirus is endemic throughout the year and commonly affects children in daycare settings. SRSV is another name for norovirus, and astrovirus is associated with contaminated food and water. Symptoms of gastroenteritis include anorexia, low-grade fever, vomiting, and watery diarrhea, but most cases do not require medication and can be managed with supportive treatment. Death from dehydration remains common in developing countries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?
Your Answer: Group A streptococci
Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Explanation:Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.
Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli
Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 80
Correct
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A 25-year-old farm worker is admitted to hospital with a 5-day history of headache, fever, severe myalgia and a petechial rash. He is jaundiced, febrile, has tachycardia and has not passed urine for over 14 hours. His urea level is raised and liver function tests indicate hepatocellular damage.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Weil’s disease
Explanation:Comparing Zoonotic Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics
Weil’s Disease, Brucellosis, Lyme Disease, Orf, and Rat-bite Fever are all zoonotic infections that can be transmitted from animals to humans. However, each infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics.
Weil’s Disease is a severe form of leptospirosis caused by Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae. It is transmitted via direct or indirect contact with animals, especially rodents. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, severe headache, petechial or purpuric rashes, epistaxis, jaundice, renal failure, meningism, and multiorgan failure.
Brucellosis is caused by the bacterial genus Brucella and is transmitted from animals to humans by ingestion of infected food products, direct contact with an infected animal, or inhalation of aerosols. Symptoms include fever, myalgia, weight loss, coughing, vomiting, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Males may develop epididymo-orchitis.
Lyme Disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans via tick bites from infected ticks. Symptoms include isolated erythema migrans, the characteristic skin rash which has the appearance of a ‘bull’s eye’ and a febrile illness. Untreated patients may go on to develop cardiac, neurological or rheumatological symptoms months after the initial bite.
Orf is a zoonotic mucocutaneous lesion caused by a pox virus and is most commonly seen in workers who handle sheep. Symptoms include firm red papules that develop, enlarge, and become painful before spontaneously resolving. Systemic illness is rare with orf.
Rat-bite Fever is an acute, febrile illness caused by bacteria transmitted by rodents. Symptoms include fever, a rash, and polyarthritis. The rash is usually widespread and may be maculopapular, petechial, or purpuric.
In summary, each zoonotic infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics, making it important to accurately diagnose and treat each infection accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 81
Correct
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Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day history of cough and fever. Her Covid-19 test is negative and she does not sound breathless on the phone. Sarah has been taking paracetamol regularly but despite this, she is still feeling feverish; she has recorded her temperature as 37.8ºC. She has a past medical history of eczema, gilbert's syndrome and adrenal insufficiency. She takes hydrocortisone 15 mg in the morning and 10mg at lunchtime, and also takes fludrocortisone 200 micrograms once a day.
What is the most appropriate management plan for Sarah?Your Answer: Double the dose of his hydrocortisone
Explanation:To manage an Addison’s patient with an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to double the dose of their glucocorticoids, specifically hydrocortisone, while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. This is because the patient’s fever >37.5 indicates a moderate intercurrent illness. Continuing paracetamol regularly is not the main priority in this situation. Advising the patient to call 999 for admission is unnecessary unless there are severe symptoms such as vomiting or persistent diarrhea. Doubling the dose of fludrocortisone is not recommended as it is a mineralocorticoid with weak glucocorticoid activity, and increasing the glucocorticoid is necessary to mimic a stress response.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of bloody diarrhoea 10 times per day associated with colicky abdominal pain.
Observations are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 90/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation 97% on air. The examination is unremarkable apart from diffuse abdominal tenderness.
Stool analysis revealed Campylobacter jejuni.
What is the first-line treatment?Your Answer: Supportive treatment only
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:If a patient experiences severe symptoms of Campylobacter infection such as bloody diarrhea and more than eight stools per day, treatment with clarithromycin may be necessary. While Campylobacter infection is typically self-limiting, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends antibiotics for severe cases or for immunocompromised patients. NICE also advises antibiotic treatment for severe symptoms or if symptoms persist for more than one week. Supportive treatment may be sufficient for mild symptoms in immunocompetent patients. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative to clarithromycin, but strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated. Metronidazole and oral vancomycin are not recommended for Campylobacter treatment, but are first-line options for Clostridium difficile.
Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK
Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash that has been present for 1 day. She had visited her family doctor 2 days ago with symptoms of a cold and a sore throat and was given a course of oral antibiotics. Upon examination, she has a mild fever of 37.8ºC and a widespread maculopapular rash on her face and torso. Her tonsils are enlarged and erythematous, and she has palpable tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Anti-streptolysin O titre
Correct Answer: Monospot test
Explanation:The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, a viral illness caused by the Ebstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and general malaise, as well as palpable cervical lymphadenopathy and an erythematous throat. The illness is more common in teenagers and is often spread through respiratory droplets, earning it the nickname kissing disease. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by their GP, which can cause a non-specific maculopapular rash in patients with glandular fever. The diagnosis is typically confirmed through a Monospot blood test, which detects the presence of heterophil antibodies produced in response to the virus.
An anti-streptolysin O titre test can detect streptococcal infections, but it does not explain the patient’s rash following antibiotic use. A full blood count can be helpful in diagnosing glandular fever, as it often shows a lymphocytosis, but the Monospot test is more definitive. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for viral PCR can diagnose viral infections like measles, but this is less likely in a teenager in the UK due to vaccination. A sputum culture is not useful in diagnosing glandular fever, as the patient does not have a cough or sputum production.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was seen by his General Practitioner and diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. He has completed a 7-day course of antibiotics but continues to have a fever and productive cough. He is not confused, and his observations are all normal apart from a fever of 39 °C. His chest X-ray has signs of atypical pneumonia. He has no drug allergies.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?Your Answer: Cefuroxime
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Different Types of Pneumonia
Pneumonia can be caused by various types of bacteria and viruses, and different antibiotics are used to treat them. Atypical pneumonia, caused by organisms such as chlamydia pneumoniae and mycoplasma pneumoniae, does not respond to amoxicillin and requires a 10-14 day course of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin. On the other hand, severe hospital-acquired infections with multidrug-resistant Gram-negative bacteria are treated with aminoglycoside antibiotics like amikacin. Amoxicillin is recommended as first-line treatment for mild community-acquired pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and other bacteria, but it is not effective against atypical pneumonia. Imipenem, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is used for a range of bacterial infections but not for atypical pneumonia. Cefuroxime, a second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic, is effective against certain bacteria but not indicated for atypical pneumonia. Knowing which antibiotics to use for different types of pneumonia is crucial for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 85
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of increased urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia and mild, lower abdominal discomfort.
On examination, she looks well. She is afebrile, while her abdomen is soft and nontender. A urine dipstick is performed. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate was normal: > 90 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 three months ago.
Urinalysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Leukocytes +++
Nitrates +
Blood +
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice a day for seven days
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs is nitrofurantoin, with trimethoprim as an alternative if resistance is low. Painless haematuria warrants investigation of the renal tract, and this should also be considered in men with confirmed UTIs. Amoxicillin is not typically recommended for UTIs due to its inactivation by penicillinase produced by E. coli, but it may be appropriate if the causative organism is sensitive to it. While waiting for MSU results, empirical antibiotic treatment should be started immediately if a UTI is suspected. Ciprofloxacin is indicated for acute prostatitis or pyelonephritis, not uncomplicated lower UTIs, and caution is needed when prescribing quinolones to the elderly due to the risk of tendon rupture. Trimethoprim is an appropriate first-line antibiotic for lower UTIs in men, with a 7-day course recommended, while a 3-day course is suitable for non-pregnant women under 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 86
Correct
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A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow vaginal discharge. Microscopy reveals the presence of 'intracellular Gram-negative diplococci'. The patient is in good health with a negative pregnancy test. What course of treatment would you recommend?
Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache. She has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past three days and the headache started gradually yesterday. The headache is described as being all over and worsens when looking at bright light or bending her neck. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2º, pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 116/78 mmHg. There is neck stiffness present, but no focal neurological signs are observed. During a closer inspection, several petechiae are noticed on her torso. The patient has been cannulated and bloods, including cultures, have been taken. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Perform a lumbar puncture
Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime
Explanation:Immediate administration of appropriate intravenous antibiotics is crucial for this patient diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. In light of modern PCR diagnostic techniques, there is no need to delay potentially life-saving treatment by conducting a lumbar puncture in suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 88
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman started treatment for tuberculosis infection 3 months ago and now complains of a burning sensation at the base of her feet. Which medication could be responsible for this new symptom?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid treatment may lead to a deficiency of vitamin B6, which can result in peripheral neuropathy. This is a well-known side effect of TB medications that is often tested in medical school exams. The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of peripheral neuropathy caused by a lack of vitamin B6 due to Isoniazid therapy. Typically, pyridoxine hydrochloride is prescribed concurrently with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy.
The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body
Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
One of the primary causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is a medication used to treat tuberculosis. When the body lacks vitamin B6, it can lead to peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord. It can also cause sideroblastic anemia, which is a type of anemia that affects the production of red blood cells.
Overall, vitamin B6 plays a crucial role in the body, and its deficiency can have severe consequences. It is essential to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of this vitamin through a balanced diet or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 89
Correct
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A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB) for himself and his two children. His wife has recently been diagnosed with active TB and started on treatment following release from hospital. He and the children are all completely asymptomatic.
Which of the following screening options would be appropriate for the family?Your Answer: Mantoux test
Explanation:Screening and Diagnosis of Tuberculosis: Methods and Recommendations
Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that can be fatal if left untreated. Screening and diagnosis of TB are crucial for early detection and treatment. In this article, we will discuss the recommended methods and guidelines for screening and diagnosis of TB.
Mantoux Test
The Mantoux test is a recommended screening method for latent TB in at-risk groups, such as close contacts of patients with active pulmonary or laryngeal TB, patients with human immunodeficiency virus, or immigrants from high-risk countries. The test involves injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing a reaction 2-3 days later. A positive result is indicated by an induration of greater than 6 mm at the injection site. Further investigations are warranted to diagnose or exclude active TB infection.Chest X-Ray
Screening for latent TB is advised for all household members and close contacts of patients diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. If screening is positive, investigations for active TB are indicated, which would include a chest X-ray. Typical features of pulmonary TB on an X-ray include a cavitating lesion, upper-lobe parenchymal infiltrates, pleural effusion, or mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy.Heaf Test
The Heaf test was previously used to diagnose latent TB but has since been replaced by the Mantoux test. Both tests involve injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing for a reaction. The Heaf test was performed using a Heaf gun, which had six needles in a circular formation. The more severe the reaction, the more likely it is that the patient has an active infection, but previous BCG vaccine exposure can also give a reaction.Screening and Diagnosis Recommendations
According to NICE guidance, close contacts of patients with active pulmonary TB should be screened for latent TB infection with a Mantoux test. Three sputum samples (including an early morning sample) for TB microscopy and culture are indicated to diagnose active pulmonary TB infection. This investigation is not indicated for screening for latent TB but should be performed if latent screening tests are positive.In conclusion, early detection and treatment of TB are crucial for preventing the spread of the disease and improving patient outcomes. The recommended screening and diagnosis methods should be followed to ensure accurate and timely detection of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 90
Correct
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A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.
Understanding Genital Herpes
Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.
To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.
In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 91
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.
Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.
Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.
Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.
Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.
Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.
In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 92
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP surgery and you meet a 25-year-old newly qualified healthcare assistant who has come in to see you as she would like to know more about the BCG vaccination and whether she needs to have it. You advise her that she will need the BCG as she is at risk of occupational exposure. She would also like to know more about who needs to have the BCG vaccination.
Who needs a BCG vaccination assuming they have not had one before?Your Answer: A newborn baby boy born in Wales, whose parents and grandparents were born in Wales
Correct Answer: A 22-year-old man who has started work as a prison officer
Explanation:Children born in areas with a high prevalence of tuberculosis (TB) or with parents/grandparents from such areas, as well as individuals under the age of 35 at high risk of occupational exposure to TB, are administered the BCG vaccine. However, there is no evidence to support the effectiveness of the BCG vaccine for individuals over the age of 35, and therefore it is not administered to them.
The BCG Vaccine: Who Should Get It and How It’s Administered
The Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is given to high-risk infants and certain groups of people who are at risk of contracting TB. The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy.
The Greenbook provides guidelines on who should receive the BCG vaccine. It is recommended for all infants living in areas of the UK where the annual incidence of TB is 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent who was born in a country with a high incidence of TB. The vaccine is also recommended for previously unvaccinated tuberculin-negative contacts of cases of respiratory TB, new entrants under 16 years of age who were born in or have lived for a prolonged period in a high-risk country, healthcare workers, prison staff, staff of care homes for the elderly, and those who work with homeless people.
Before receiving the BCG vaccine, any person being considered must first be given a tuberculin skin test, except for children under 6 years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is given intradermally, normally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm. It can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, but if not administered simultaneously, there should be a 4-week interval.
There are some contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous BCG vaccination, a past history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test (Heaf or Mantoux). It is not given to anyone over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it works for people of this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand presented to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, confusion and vomiting in the last two days. She was suspected of having meningitis and underwent a lumbar puncture (LP). The LP findings are as follows:
Normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Investigation Result Normal value
CSF white blood cell count (WBC) 400 cells/µl, 70% lymphocytes < 5 cells/µl
CSF protein 0.5 g/l 0.15–0.4 g/l
CSF glucose 3.8 mmol/l 2.6–4.5 mmol/l
CSF–plasma-glucose ratio 0.72 ≥ 0.66
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer: Tuberculous meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings can help diagnose different types of meningitis. Viral meningitis typically shows clear CSF with a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-1000 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), mildly elevated protein levels, and a normal or slightly low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Bacterial meningitis, on the other hand, often presents with turbid CSF, a high white blood cell count (>100 cells/µl, mostly neutrophils), elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Fungal meningitis, such as cryptococcal meningitis, usually shows clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), elevated protein levels, and a low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), significantly elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, which is not meningitis, typically presents with a sudden, severe headache and signs of increased intracranial pressure. The CSF in this case often shows xanthochromia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 94
Correct
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A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a full-time accountant, does not smoke, and drinks approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with some friends. He has also noticed a widespread skin rash with pink rings and pale centers. Upon admission, his blood work shows low sodium levels, normal potassium levels, elevated urea levels, and high creatinine levels. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small pleural effusion on the right side. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.
Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.
In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 95
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options
Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man of South Asian descent presents with bilateral leg swelling. He works as a construction worker and has a history of multiple sexual partners without protection.
During examination, his body weight is 40 kg, and you observe some mouth sores.
The following investigations are conducted:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
Urine Protein 2+
Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
What is the next recommended test for this patient?Your Answer: Serum complement levels
Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Treatment for HIV-Associated Nephropathy
HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. HIV serological testing and a CD4 count should be done urgently to establish the diagnosis. HIV-associated nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most frequent pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy. Renal biopsy may be necessary, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor may be useful in diagnosing SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases, but the lack of systemic symptoms in this case makes it less likely. Serum IgA levels may be elevated in IgA nephropathy, but it typically presents with haematuria rather than proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. What is the probable cause of his diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Shigella
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Patients with HIV infection commonly experience diarrhoea as a result of Cryptosporidium, while respiratory infection may be caused by Histoplasmosis.
Diarrhoea in HIV Patients: Causes and Management
Diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by patients with HIV. It can be caused by the virus itself, known as HIV enteritis, or by opportunistic infections. The most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients is Cryptosporidium, an intracellular protozoa with an incubation period of 7 days. Symptoms can range from mild to severe diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the stool. Unfortunately, treatment is difficult, and supportive therapy is the mainstay of management.
Other possible causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients include Cytomegalovirus, Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, and Giardia. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare is an atypical mycobacteria that is typically seen when the CD4 count is below 50. Symptoms include fever, sweats, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through blood cultures and bone marrow examination. Management involves the use of rifabutin, ethambutol, and clarithromycin.
In summary, diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by HIV patients, and it can be caused by a variety of opportunistic infections. While treatment can be difficult, supportive therapy can help manage symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients and to work with their patients to develop an appropriate management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 98
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is screened for hepatitis B following a needlestick injury at work. Her test findings are as follows:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBs positive
IgG anti-HBc negative
IgM anti-HBc negative
What is the doctor's interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Previous immunisation
Explanation:These test results indicate that the patient has been previously immunized against hepatitis B. The vaccine used for immunization only contains the surface antigen, so the absence of antibodies to the core antigen is expected.
If the patient had an acute infection, they would test positive for the hepatitis B antigen and likely have positive IgG and IgM antibodies for the core antigen, but not for the surface antigen.
In the case of a chronic infection, the patient would test positive for the antigen and likely have a positive IgG antibody to the core protein, but a negative IgM antibody and no antibody response to the surface protein.
A negative result for all four tests would indicate no previous infection or immunization.
If the patient had a previous, resolved infection, they would test positive for both anti-HBs and anti-HBc, but the absence of HBsAg would indicate that they are not currently infected.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 99
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with cough, fever and rash. She is tachycardic, tachypnoeic and has a blanching erythematous rash on her face, trunk and arms with scattered white/grey papular lesions on the buccal mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles is a highly contagious disease that can affect people of all ages, although it is commonly associated with childhood. The disease is characterized by the appearance of Koplik spots, which are white-grey specks that develop on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars about 1-2 days before the rash. The rash typically appears 14 days after exposure and consists of erythematous macules and papules that start on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities, including the palms and soles. The rash lasts for 5-7 days before fading into hyperpigmented patches that eventually desquamate.
Meningococcaemia is a condition where meningococci (Neisseria meningitidis) spread into the bloodstream. Patients with acute meningococcaemia may present with or without meningitis and typically have a non-blanching petechial rash that spreads rapidly and may develop into purpura. However, the rash described in this case is not typical for meningococcaemia.
Rubella is a communicable disease that is usually benign, with nearly half of infected individuals being asymptomatic. The disease can have teratogenic effects on pregnant women. The rash associated with rubella is a rose-pink maculopapular rash that may be pruritic in adults. The Forchheimer sign may be present on the soft palate, but the buccal lesions described in this case are typical of Koplik spots, which are pathognomonic for measles.
Parvovirus B19 infection typically occurs in young children and is characterized by a bright red macular exanthema that appears on the cheeks (known as slapped cheek) and may be associated with circumoral pallor. However, the buccal lesions described in this case are typical of Koplik spots, which are not a feature of parvovirus B19 infection.
Secondary syphilis usually presents with a cutaneous eruption within 2-10 weeks after the primary chancre and is most florid 3-4 months after infection. The rash is typically rough red or red/brown papules or plaques on the trunk, palms, and soles. While there may be red patches on mucosal surfaces, the white patches described in this case are typical of Koplik spots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 100
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. He is concerned about the possibility of contracting the disease. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis?
Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis now favors the use of oral ciprofloxacin over rifampicin.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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