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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a persistent chest infection visits the clinic for evaluation. Despite two rounds of antibiotics, there has been no significant improvement. The medical team decides to conduct a chest x-ray and screening blood tests. When analyzing the blood tests, which of the following markers is typically not elevated in response to an acute infection?
Your Answer: CRP
Correct Answer: Albumin
Explanation:A decrease in albumin levels is frequently observed after an acute phase response.
Acute phase proteins are a group of proteins that are produced by the liver in response to inflammation or infection. These proteins are involved in various physiological processes such as immune response, blood clotting, and iron metabolism. Examples of acute phase proteins include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, caeruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.
During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins. These proteins include albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. The levels of acute phase proteins, particularly CRP, are commonly measured in acutely unwell patients. Elevated levels of CRP are indicative of inflammation or infection, and levels greater than 150 at 48 hours post-surgery suggest the development of complications.
It is important to note that while acute phase proteins play a significant role in humans, some of these proteins, such as serum amyloid P component, have a more significant role in other mammals like mice. Overall, the production of acute phase proteins is a crucial part of the body’s response to inflammation or infection, and monitoring their levels can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy who has recently arrived from India complains of fever. During examination, extensive cervical lymphadenopathy is observed and a grey coating is seen surrounding the tonsils. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:Understanding Diphtheria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Diphtheria is a bacterial infection caused by the Gram positive bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The pathophysiology of this disease involves the release of an exotoxin encoded by a β-prophage, which inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2. This toxin commonly causes a ‘diphtheric membrane’ on tonsils, resulting in a grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall. Systemic distribution may produce necrosis of myocardial, neural, and renal tissue.
Possible presentations of diphtheria include sore throat with a ‘diphtheric membrane’, bulky cervical lymphadenopathy, and neuritis of cranial nerves. It may also result in a ‘bull neck’ appearance and heart block. People who have recently visited Eastern Europe, Russia, or Asia are at a higher risk of contracting this disease.
To diagnose diphtheria, a culture of throat swab is taken using tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. The treatment for diphtheria involves intramuscular penicillin and diphtheria antitoxin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing body aches and waking up in a cold sweat at night. Upon examination, you observe injection marks on the antecubital fossa. His vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 122 bpm, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. You urgently order blood cultures and an echocardiogram. Based on the diagnosis, which site is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Mitral valve
Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:The tricuspid valve is the valve most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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You are working in the sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male presents with dysuria and urethral discharge. He had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 weeks ago. You do a full sexual health screen. Three days later he returns to get his results; the initial test is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoea, sensitivities are not known.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone
Explanation:Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being involved in a physical altercation while under the influence of alcohol at a bar. His recollection of the event is unclear, but he recalls being hit in the face and bitten on his hand. Upon examination, there is significant bruising around the left eye and a bite wound on the outer aspect of the left hand. What antibiotic should be administered for the bite?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:When it comes to treating human bites, it is recommended to use co-amoxiclav, which is also used for treating animal bites. This medication is effective in targeting the primary organisms that are commonly associated with human bites, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Eikenella, Corynebacterium, and other anaerobes. It is important to note that even if there are no visible signs of infection, antibiotics should still be prescribed.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is seeking screening for sexually transmitted infections due to starting a new relationship. What is the most frequently diagnosed sexually transmitted infection in the UK?
Your Answer: Chlamydia
Explanation:Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of profuse loose stools and severe abdominal pain over the past 2 days. He has lost his appetite and is only tolerating small amounts of fluid over the past 24 hours. On examination, his heart rate is 118 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, temperature 38.1ºC and blood pressure is 104/74 mmHg. Significant left iliac fossa tenderness is noted. The patient is urgently admitted, and a stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection and severe colitis without perforation on imaging. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
Explanation:The treatment for life-threatening C. difficile infection involves administering vancomycin orally and metronidazole intravenously.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history of a change in her vaginal discharge. She says it has a thin and white consistency with a fishy odour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms. She is sexually active with one regular partner and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill regularly.
On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. Bimanual examination is unremarkable, with no adnexal tenderness elicited.
Microscopic examination reveals the presence of clue cells.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE likely diagnosis from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differentiating Bacterial Vaginosis from Other Common STIs
Bacterial vaginosis is a non-sexually transmitted infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. It is characterized by a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge and a raised vaginal pH due to reduced lactobacilli. Clue cells on microscopy aid in diagnosis.
Chlamydia is the most contagious sexually transmitted infection, but the absence of clue cells makes it an unlikely diagnosis. Gonorrhoea, the second most common STI, presents with urethral or vaginal discharge and dysuria, but does not involve clue cells.
Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, has three stages of infection, but the primary and secondary stages involve symptoms not present in this patient. Trichomoniasis, caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, presents with an offensive discharge, raised vaginal pH, and a strawberry cervix, but the presence of clue cells makes it an unlikely diagnosis.
It is important to differentiate between these common STIs and bacterial vaginosis to ensure appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches on his mouth and legs. During examination, his doctor observes violaceous, purple papular lesions on his calves and feet, leading to a suspicion of Kaposi's sarcoma. What is the cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Parvovirus
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 8
Explanation:HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) is the cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is commonly found in HIV patients. Parvovirus B19 causes fifths disease or slapped cheek syndrome in children and can also lead to foetal hydrops. The human papilloma virus is linked to genital warts and cervical cancer. Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) and is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, gastric cancer, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.
Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of fatty liver disease presents at the clinic. During a liver screen to determine the cause of his condition, his hepatitis B serology is tested and the results are as follows:
- HBsAg: Negative
- HBcAg: Negative
- Anti-HBs IgG: Positive
- Anti-HBc IgG: Positive
What is his hepatitis B status?Your Answer: Cleared previous infection
Explanation:To determine a patient’s immune status for Hepatitis B, a systematic approach is necessary. First, antigenic results are examined to determine if the virus is present, followed by antibody results to assess the body’s response to the virus. In this case, negative results for both HBsAg and HBcAg indicate no active infection, while the presence of antibodies to both antigens suggests a previous infection that has been cleared, resulting in immunity.
In acute infection, both HBsAg and HBcAg are positive, with a limited antibody response. Chronic infection is characterized by ongoing viral infection and an inadequate immune response, resulting in the virus not being cleared. Immunization exposes the immune system to purified viral protein, resulting in the production of anti-HBs antibodies and conferring some immunity.
To distinguish between immunization and previous infection, the absence of anti-HBc antibodies indicates immunization, as there are no viral antigens present. If an individual has never been exposed to any Hepatitis B antigens, all serology tests would be negative.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He engages in sexual activity with men and practices unprotected anal intercourse as both the insertive and receptive partner. He has never undergone any HIV testing and desires a prompt result. What is the most suitable test to request for this patient?
Your Answer: HIV p24 antigen test
Correct Answer: HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test
Explanation:The current standard for HIV diagnosis and screening involves a combination of p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests. This is because the HIV antibody may not be detectable until 4-6 weeks after infection, while the p24 antigen can show up as early as 1 week after infection. By using both tests, a more accurate assessment of infectious status can be made, allowing for discussions about pre-exposure prophylaxis and safe sexual practices. HIV viral load levels are not used for diagnosis, but can be helpful in assessing treatment efficacy after diagnosis has been confirmed. It is important to note that viral load testing should not be used alone, but rather in conjunction with the antibody and antigen tests.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from both the Mantoux skin test and interferon release gamma assay confirm the presence of latent TB. What treatment options are available for the patient?
Your Answer: Isoniazid + rifampicin + ethambutol + pyrazinamide + pyridoxine for 6 months
Correct Answer: Isoniazid with pyridoxine for 6 months
Explanation:Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis
Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis.
The first option is a combination of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for three months. This is recommended for people under the age of 35 who are concerned about the hepatotoxicity of the drugs. Before starting this treatment, a liver function test is conducted to assess the risk factors.
The second option is a six-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for people who are at risk of interactions with rifamycins. This includes individuals with HIV or those who have had a transplant. The risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positivity, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy.
In summary, the choice of treatment for latent tuberculosis depends on the individual’s clinical circumstances and risk factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise adults against influenza is accurate?
Your Answer: It should be given intramuscularly
Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine
Explanation:Influenza Vaccination: Who Should Get It and What to Expect
Seasonal influenza remains a significant health concern in the UK, with the flu season typically starting in November. To prevent the spread of the virus, it is recommended that individuals receive the influenza vaccine between September and early November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B causing the majority of clinical disease.
Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013. The children’s vaccine is given intranasally, with the first dose administered at 2-3 years and subsequent doses given annually. It is a live vaccine and is more effective than the injectable vaccine.
Adults and at-risk groups are also recommended to receive the influenza vaccine annually. This includes individuals over 65 years old, those with chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic kidney or liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, pregnant women, and those with a body mass index of 40 kg/m² or higher. Health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person may also be eligible for the vaccine.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine and cannot cause influenza. It is around 75% effective in adults, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels. The vaccine should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light. Contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. While a minority of patients may experience fever and malaise after receiving the vaccine, it is generally well-tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since she returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. Her daughter is concerned because over the past 24 hours she has become more drowsy and febrile. She is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.
On examination, pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.
Initial blood tests show the following:
Hb 13.8 g/dl
Platelets 300 * 109/l
WBC 14.5 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 4.1 mmol/l
Urea 8.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 89 µmol/l
Bilirubin 11 µmol/l
ALP 35 u/l
ALT 62 u/l
A chest x-ray shows patchy consolidation in the right lower zone with an associated pleural effusion.
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatremia may be detected through blood tests. A history of recent travel abroad and the presence of pleural effusion are also indicative of Legionella.
Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.
Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.
Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing after experiencing flu-like symptoms for a week. He has a dry cough and no chest discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral consolidation, and he has red rashes on his limbs and torso. Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urinary antigen for Legionella
Correct Answer: Serology for Mycoplasma
Explanation:A diagnosis of Mycoplasma can be made based on symptoms such as flu-like symptoms, bilateral consolidation, and erythema multiforme. The most suitable diagnostic test for this condition is Mycoplasma serology.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.
Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.
In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of bloody diarrhoea, accompanied by fever and abdominal pain for the past week. She is on methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis, which is usually well-controlled. Upon testing her stool sample, Campylobacter jejuni is detected. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin
Explanation:Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK
Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a dry cough that has persisted for three weeks. She is a non-smoker and consumes 10 units of alcohol per week. The patient has a target rash on both of her lower limbs, and her chest x-ray reveals reticulonodular shadowing on the left lung. The medical team diagnoses her with bacterial pneumonia. What is the probable causative agent responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Based on the dry cough, symmetrical target-shaped rash with a central blister (erythema multiforme), and radiological findings, it is likely that the woman has Mycoplasma. While pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in the community, it would typically present with lobar consolidation on an x-ray and a productive cough, rather than a dry one. Klebsiella pneumonia is more common in alcoholics, but the woman’s drinking habits, while exceeding the recommended limit for women (14 units per week), are not severe enough to increase her risk of Klebsiella. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumonia typically causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.
Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.
In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A man with a 5-year history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attends the clinic for a routine check-up and to receive the results of his latest CD4 count and viral load. He is currently taking lopinavir, tenofovir and 3TC medications as part of his antiretroviral treatment. Management of HIV aims to reduce the patient’s viral load and improve their CD4 count.
Above what level in the blood should you aim to keep this patient's CD4 count?Your Answer: > 150 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: > 350 cells/mm3
Explanation:A man with a 5-year history of HIV is on antiretroviral treatment with atazanavir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir. The aim of this treatment is to reduce viral load (< 50 copies/ml), improve CD4 count (above 350 cells/mm3), reduce transmission, and increase quality of life without unacceptable drug side-effects. During routine check-ups, the patient's CD4 count, HIV viral RNA load, renal and hepatic function, cholesterol, blood sugar, triglycerides, and lactate are assessed. The target level for this patient's CD4 count is above 350 cells/mm3. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 greatly exposes the patient to opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral treatment usually involves a combination of at least three drugs classified as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), protease inhibitors (PIs), or 'others'. These drugs may have side-effects such as lipoatrophy, hepatotoxicity, lipodystrophy syndrome, lactic acidosis, Steven-Johnson syndrome, drug-drug interactions, hyperbilirubinemia, peripheral neuropathy, bone marrow suppression, anaemia, pancreatitis, and insulin resistance/hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who was diagnosed with HIV-1 three years ago is being seen in clinic. She is currently in good health and has not reported any symptoms. She only takes paracetamol occasionally for headaches. Her recent blood tests show:
CD4 325 * 106/l
What is the recommended course of action for antiretroviral therapy?Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV involves a combination of at least three drugs, typically two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Entry inhibitors, NRTIs, NNRTIs, PIs, and integrase inhibitors are all used to manage HIV. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend starting ART as soon as a patient is diagnosed with HIV. Each drug has its own side effects, and some of the common ones include peripheral neuropathy, renal impairment, osteoporosis, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and P450 enzyme interaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency department with a fever and productive cough. Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a pulse rate of 121 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation of 93% on air. Crackles are heard at the base of the left lung and wheezing is present throughout. A chest x-ray reveals a patchy opacity at the left base with minor blunting of the left costophrenic angle, enlarged airways in both lung fields, and fluid levels. Which organism is most likely responsible for this patient's clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant cause of lower respiratory tract infections (LRTI) in patients with cystic fibrosis. These patients develop bronchiectasis early in life, leading to frequent hospitalizations due to LRTI. Bronchiectasis causes sputum accumulation in the larger airways, leading to bacterial and fungal colonization. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common bacteria found in these patients, and should be considered when providing empirical treatment. If the patient is stable, antibiotic sensitivities should be obtained from a culture sample before starting treatment. However, an anti-pseudomonal agent such as piperacillin with tazobactam or ciprofloxacin should be used as part of empirical treatment for sepsis in cystic fibrosis patients. Staphylococcus aureus is less common in cystic fibrosis patients and is more associated with pre-existing influenza infection. Haemophilus pneumoniae is also an important pathogen in cystic fibrosis, but not as common as Pseudomonas. Haemophilus is the most common pathogen in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Legionella is more likely to cause infections in cystic fibrosis patients than in the general population, but is still less common than Pseudomonas. Klebsiella infection is rare and is usually associated with malnourished alcoholics rather than cystic fibrosis.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections in Humans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the most common infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa include chest infections, skin infections (such as burns and wound infections), otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.
In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. It produces both an endotoxin and exotoxin A, which can cause fever, shock, and inhibit protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.
Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant pathogen that can cause a range of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins and resist antibiotics makes it a challenging organism to treat. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa promptly and appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of painful ulcers on his penis shaft and dysuria for the past three days. He has never experienced such symptoms before. The clinical diagnosis suggests primary genital herpes. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Even if the presentation is delayed for up to 5 days, primary genital herpes infections require oral antiviral therapy.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Virus
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that affects humans. There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital herpes, respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The primary infection may present with severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are common features.
Management of HSV includes oral aciclovir for gingivostomatitis and genital herpes, and topical aciclovir for cold sores, although the evidence base for the latter is modest. Patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir. In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks gestation may require elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low.
The cytopathic effect of HSV can be seen in Pap smears, which show multinucleated giant cells representing infection by the virus. The 3 M’s – multinucleation, margination of the chromatin, and molding of the nuclei – are characteristic features of HSV infection. Understanding the features and management of HSV is important for effective treatment and prevention of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth ulcers. He had a painless penile ulcer two months ago. What is the most probable causative organism for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this individual suggest the presence of secondary syphilis.
Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.
During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.
The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.
In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.
Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.
Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), what should be your first course of action?
Your Answer: Fill out a clinical incident form
Correct Answer: Wash wound under running water, encouraging active bleeding
Explanation:Immediate Actions to Take Following a Needlestick Injury: A Guide for Healthcare Workers
Needlestick injuries are a common occupational hazard for healthcare workers. If you experience a needlestick injury, it is important to take immediate action to minimize the risk of infection. Here are the steps you should take:
1. Wash the wound thoroughly under running water, while encouraging bleeding. This will help to flush out any pathogens that may be present.
2. Determine the patient’s HIV and bloodborne disease status. If the patient is HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk, HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be offered as soon as possible.
3. Begin Truvada and Kaletra PEP treatment if the patient is definitely HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk. PEP should be commenced within 72 hours of exposure for maximum effectiveness.
4. Contact occupational health immediately to identify local protocols and receive guidance on next steps.
5. Fill out a clinical incident form to help the hospital identify potential areas for improvement in employee safety.
By following these steps, you can minimize the risk of infection and protect your health as a healthcare worker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Correct
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You are asked to evaluate a 19-year-old student who has recently returned from a gap-year trip to India. He complains of extreme fatigue and loss of appetite during the last week of his journey and noticed that he had jaundice just before his return home. He denies being an intravenous drug user and having unprotected sexual intercourse. Additionally, he did not receive any blood transfusions or tattoos during his trip. He reports having a fever, but it subsided once his jaundice appeared. After conducting liver function tests (LFTs), you find that his alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 950 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l), total bilirubin level is 240 μmol/l (reference range <20 μmol/l), and his alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is slightly above the upper limit of normal. His white blood cell count, albumin level, and prothrombin times are all normal. What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Overview of Viral Infections and Their Clinical Manifestations
Hepatitis A, B, and C, leptospirosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) are all viral infections that can cause a range of clinical manifestations. Hepatitis A is typically transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and is most common in resource-poor regions. Leptospirosis is associated with exposure to rodents and contaminated water or soil. Hepatitis B is transmitted through blood and sexual contact, while hepatitis C is most commonly spread through injection drug use. CMV is typically asymptomatic but can cause severe disease in immunocompromised individuals. Understanding the transmission and clinical manifestations of these viral infections is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?
Your Answer: Mefloquine
Correct Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil
Explanation:Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication
Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.
Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.
It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Correct
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A 20-year-old male returns from Ghana and presents with a fever of 40°C. He reports having bloody stools prior to this. Upon examination, he displays abdominal distension, hepatosplenomegaly, and rose spots on his abdomen. Unfortunately, he passes away before receiving empirical treatment due to bowel perforation, leading to severe sepsis. What is the causative organism responsible for this type of pathology?
Your Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:Infections caused by Salmonella typhi can result in the development of rose spots on the abdomen. While these spots are also associated with C.psittaci infections, they are more commonly seen in cases of typhoid fever. Giardiasis typically does not cause such severe and sudden symptoms, while syphilis is characterized by the presence of painless chancres. Staphylococcus aureus infections, on the other hand, typically result in rapid onset of symptoms, including violent vomiting.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?
Your Answer: Hyponatremia occurs significantly more often in Legionnaires’ disease than in other pneumonias
Explanation:Understanding Legionnaires’ Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Legionnaires’ disease is a type of pneumonia that is caused by the Legionella bacteria. This disease is often overlooked as a possible cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but it is consistently ranked among the top three or four most common causes. The bacteria are found in water sources, and most patients contract the disease through aspiration.
One of the key symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease is hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. This symptom is more commonly associated with Legionnaires’ disease than with other types of pneumonia. The disease is also more likely to occur in patients who are immunocompromised, as cell-mediated immunity appears to be the primary host defense mechanism against Legionella infection.
The urinary antigen test is the preferred initial test for Legionnaires’ disease, but it has low sensitivity and is not particularly specific. The test detects only L. pneumophila serogroup 1, which causes most cases of the disease. Specific therapy includes antibiotics that can achieve high intracellular concentrations, such as macrolides, quinolones, or ketolides.
Predisposing factors for Legionnaires’ disease include age over 50, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, chronic lung disease, and immunosuppression. High fever and gastrointestinal symptoms are clinical clues to this disease. It is important for healthcare providers to consider Legionnaires’ disease as a possible cause of pneumonia, especially in patients with these risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine, accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient known to have hepatitis B. What steps should she take to reduce her risk of contracting the virus?
Your Answer: Give hepatitis B immune globulin
Correct Answer: Give an accelerated course of the hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immune globulin
Explanation:Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least typical of Trichomonas vaginalis?
Your Answer: Strawberry cervix
Correct Answer:
Explanation:A pH level greater than 4.5 is linked to Trichomonas vaginalis and bacterial vaginosis.
Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.
To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.
When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 32
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort over the past 3–4 days. She was prescribed amoxicillin two days ago and has developed a rash. She has lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsillitis. Her white cell count shows abnormal lymphocytosis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Common Viral Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the kissing disease, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and adenopathy. It is primarily transmitted through intimate contact with body secretions, particularly oropharyngeal secretions. Pharyngitis is caused by the proliferation of infected B lymphocytes in the lymphatic tissue of the oropharynx. It is most common in young adults and can be mistaken for streptococcal pharyngitis.
German measles, or rubella, is a communicable exanthematous disease that is generally benign. However, pregnant women who contract the disease in the early weeks of gestation can experience teratogenic effects. The exanthema of rubella consists of a rose-pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours. It typically fades by the end of the third day.
Chickenpox is a childhood illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by a vesicular exanthem and is typically self-limited and mild.
Herpes simplex viruses are host-adapted pathogens that cause a wide variety of disease states. HSV-1 is associated with orofacial disease, while HSV-2 is associated with genital disease. Oropharyngeal HSV-1 infection causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis more often than gingivostomatitis. Herpes labialis, or cold sores, is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infection.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is prevalent in developed countries, with at least 60% of the population having been exposed. It typically causes an asymptomatic infection or produces mild flu-like symptoms, with few clinical findings on physical examination. High-risk groups, such as fetuses whose mothers become infected during pregnancy or people with HIV, are more susceptible to severe complications.
Overview of Common Viral Infections and Their Characteristics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a tick. She explains that the tick was removed by her husband using tweezers and is worried about the potential for Lyme disease. She reports no symptoms such as rash, headache, fever, lethargy, or joint pain. Her vital signs are normal and a full physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Request an ELISA for Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies
Correct Answer: Re-assure the patient and provide safety netting advice
Explanation:If a patient has been bitten by a tick but shows no signs of Lyme disease, such as erythema migrans or systemic malaise, prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary. According to NICE guidelines, asymptomatic patients with tick bites do not require ELISA investigation or antibiotic treatment. Referral to secondary care is also unnecessary in this case. The best course of action is to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them to be aware of potential symptoms of Lyme disease.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 34
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient scheduled for inguinal hernia repair is discovered to have MRSA during pre-admission screening. Should any treatment be provided to him?
Your Answer: Nasal mupirocin + chlorhexidine for the skin
Explanation:Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 35
Correct
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You are taking the history of an Emergency Department patient who was assaulted. The victim is a 20-year-old female who has a deep laceration on her thigh caused by a rusty machete. The wound has exposed tendon, muscle, and subcutaneous fat. According to her medical records, she received all her childhood immunizations on schedule, including 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last one administered when she was 16 years old.
What is the appropriate management for tetanus risk in this patient?Your Answer: No tetanus vaccine booster and no immunoglobulins required
Explanation:If a patient has received 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the most recent dose administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound. This is the correct course of action. The patient’s childhood vaccinations would have included 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the last dose given at age 14 or later. Therefore, the patient is already adequately protected and does not require a booster or immunoglobulin, regardless of the severity of the wound.
The option of administering a tetanus vaccine booster with antibiotics is not the correct course of action. While antibiotics may be considered for protection against other bacteria, the patient already has sufficient protection against tetanus and does not require vaccination.
Similarly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster with tetanus immunoglobulin is not necessary. As previously mentioned, the patient already has adequate protection from previous vaccinations. Immunoglobulin would only be necessary if the patient had an incomplete or unknown vaccine history or if it had been more than 10 years since the last vaccine.
Lastly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster alone is not necessary. The patient already has protection from previous vaccinations and does not require a booster.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 36
Correct
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Which of the following vaccinations should be avoided in individuals who have HIV, and what is the reason for this recommendation?
Your Answer: BCG
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 37
Correct
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A 29-year-old individual visits the GP complaining of explosive diarrhoea and vomiting that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any presence of blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food item. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He reports feeling significantly fatigued, which is affecting his academic performance. On examination, he appears healthy and has tender cervical lymphadenopathy; his tonsils are enlarged but no exudate is present, and he has tender splenomegaly.
Which of the following investigation findings is most likely to be associated with this condition?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate result from the list below.Your Answer: Raised antistreptolysin titres
Correct Answer: Raised liver transaminases (aspartate transaminase and alanine aminotransferase)
Explanation:The patient has raised liver transaminases, thrombocytosis, neutrophilia, raised antistreptolysin titres, and a reduced estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The most probable diagnosis is glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This infection is common in adolescents and presents with a prolonged sore throat, lethargy, and flu-like symptoms. Splenomegaly or hepatosplenomegaly, along with lymphadenopathy, are often observed. Liver function tests, especially the transaminases, are commonly elevated during active infection. Thrombocytopenia is commonly associated with glandular fever due to splenic involvement. Neutrophilia is less likely in this case than lymphocytosis, which is common with glandular fever. Antistreptolysin titres rise after a streptococcal infection, but glandular fever is a more likely diagnosis than streptococcal infection. Reduced eGFR associated with a sore throat should raise suspicion of dehydration or glomerulonephritis caused by a streptococcal infection, but neither of these diagnoses is as likely as glandular fever. The diagnostic investigation of choice for glandular fever is the Monospot test, which tests for heterophile antibodies to EBV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 39
Correct
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A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Genital herpes
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 40
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain
A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:
Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.
Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.
Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.
Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.
Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for the past week. She reports experiencing headaches and mild abdominal discomfort. She denies having any diarrhea but mentions severe constipation. Recently, she returned from a 3-week trip to India. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC, and she appears bloated. Additionally, a sparse macular rash is observed on her chest. What is the probable causative agent for this presentation?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:While salmonella can cause diarrhoea, typhoid fever is more likely to result in constipation. This is a typical symptom of typhoid fever, along with the appearance of rose spots. It’s important to note that constipation can be a significant indicator of this illness. In contrast, Campylobacter jejuni infection usually causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. E. coli is a common cause of watery diarrhoea, but certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 can lead to severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, and bloody diarrhoea. Giardiasis can cause similar symptoms such as bloating and abdominal pain, but it usually results in chronic diarrhoea. Shigellosis typically causes abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which may or may not be bloody.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following vaccines utilizes an inactive form of the virus or organism?
Your Answer: Yellow fever
Correct Answer: Influenza (intramuscular)
Explanation:Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and worsening difficulty breathing. She works as a factory worker in a plant that produces air filters.
Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause of this illness?Your Answer: Mycoplasma species
Correct Answer: Legionella species
Explanation:Differentiating Between Possible Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of pathogens, making it important to identify the specific cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Legionella pneumophila is a common cause of community-acquired and nosocomial pneumonia in adults, often transmitted through contaminated water sources. Chlamydophila psittaci can cause pneumonia after exposure to infected birds, while Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections when skin or mucosal barriers are breached. Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically causes mild respiratory tract infections, while different groups of Streptococci can cause a range of infections including pneumonia. In this clinical scenario, the patient’s occupation and symptoms suggest an atypical infection, making Legionella pneumophila the most probable cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal discharge.
Which of the following is the best verbal advice to give her?Your Answer: Douche regularly
Correct Answer: Avoid perfumed soaps
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of bacteria. It is important for patients to understand the symptoms, risk factors, and diagnosis of BV in order to properly manage and treat the condition.
Symptoms of BV include vaginal odor, increased vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and rarely, dysuria or dyspareunia. Risk factors for BV include recent antibiotic use, decreased estrogen production, presence of an intrauterine device, douching, and sexual activity that could lead to transmission.
Physical findings of BV include grey, thin, and homogeneous vaginal discharge that adheres to the vaginal mucosa, increased light reflex of the vaginal walls, and typically little or no evidence of inflammation. Diagnosis of BV is made through microscopic examination of the discharge, with demonstration of three of the following four Amsel criteria: clue cells on a saline smear, a pH >4.5, characteristic discharge, and a positive whiff test.
Patients with BV should be advised to wash only with hypoallergenic bar soaps or no soap at all, avoid liquid soaps, body washes, and perfumed soaps, and not to douche or use over-the-counter vaginal hygiene products. While studies have shown inconsistent results, some patients may find relief from symptoms by using yogurt containing live bacteria.
It is important to properly manage and treat BV, as long-standing or untreated cases may lead to more serious complications such as endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, or pregnancy complications. However, with proper care and attention, the prognosis for uncomplicated cases of BV is generally excellent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 45
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent genital lesion. The patient reports experiencing severe pain and first noticed the lesion one week ago. He admits to engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners within the past three months. Upon examination, a deep ulcer with a ragged border is observed on the penis shaft, accompanied by tenderness and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:The man’s ulcer appears to be caused by chancroid, which is known for causing deep and painful genital ulcers accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy. Gonorrhoea is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with penile discharge and no ulceration. Herpes simplex can also cause painful genital ulcers, but they are usually multiple and superficial, and inguinal lymphadenopathy is not as common as with chancroid. Lymphogranuloma venereum causes painless ulceration that heals quickly, while primary syphilis causes a painless ulcer called a chancre.
Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.
Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been found nearby in a disoriented state.
On examination, they have neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash on their arms. Their vital signs are stable except for fever and tachycardia. They score 13/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. An ambulance has been called to transfer them to the hospital.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action to perform while awaiting the ambulance?
Your Answer: Notify the regional Public Health consultant
Correct Answer: Administer a dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Appropriate Actions for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis with Non-Blanching Rash
When a patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and a non-blanching rash, it is crucial to take appropriate actions promptly. Administering a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity is recommended, but this should not delay the transfer to the hospital. It is also important to notify the regional Public Health consultant about the suspected case.
While administering paracetamol for fever and starting the patient on high-flow oxygen may be necessary in some cases, they would not take priority over the administration of parenteral benzylpenicillin. Additionally, an IV fluid bolus is not indicated unless the patient’s vital signs are unstable. By taking these appropriate actions, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and non-blanching rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 47
Correct
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You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
Your Answer: Hand hygiene
Explanation:Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.
Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 48
Correct
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A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits the clinic with complaints of exhaustion and purple skin lesions all over his body. During the examination, you observe multiple raised purple lesions on his trunk and arms. Additionally, you notice some smaller purple lesions in his mouth. He has recently initiated acyclovir treatment for herpes zoster infection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The presence of raised purple lesions is a typical indication of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which may suggest that the patient has an underlying HIV infection. Given the high prevalence of HIV in Uganda and the recent occurrence of herpes zoster, it is possible that the patient’s immune system is compromised. Dermatofibromas, which are typically small and firm, would not be found in the mouth, while psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly lesions that do not appear on mucosal surfaces. A drug reaction is an unlikely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Although a haemangioma can present as a purple raised lesion, it is uncommon to find them in the mouth, and Kaposi’s sarcoma is a more likely diagnosis in this case.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.
Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old hiker comes to you with complaints of fever, joint pain, and a red rash after being bitten by a tick during a recent hike. Upon examination, you find that his neurological and cardiovascular functions are normal. You suspect that he may have contracted Lyme disease and have ordered serology for Borrelia burgdorferi. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Await serological confirmation
Correct Answer: 14 day course of doxycycline
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for early Lyme disease is a 14-21 day regimen of oral doxycycline. For non-disseminated Lyme disease, the first line treatment is a 14-day course of oral doxycycline, making option 2 the correct answer. Amoxicillin may be used if doxycycline is contraindicated, such as during pregnancy. Ceftriaxone is reserved for disseminated disease. Treatment should be initiated based on clinical suspicion, as serology may take several weeks to become positive.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of dysuria and lower abdominal pain for the past three days. She has also noticed an unusual vaginal discharge since yesterday. She has been in a committed relationship for the past year and is sexually active. The urine dipstick is normal and her pregnancy test is negative.
What is the most suitable investigation to be performed next, given the most probable diagnosis?
Choose the SINGLE most appropriate investigation from the options below.
Your Answer: Urine culture
Correct Answer: High vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Sexually Transmitted Infection in Women
When a woman presents with lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and vaginal discharge, it is important to consider the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection (STI), particularly if she is under 25 years old, has had a new sexual partner or multiple partners in the past year, or has a history of STIs. A high vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is the investigation of choice in women suspected of having an STI, such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea. If the NAAT is positive for gonorrhoea, swabs are collected for culture to test for antibiotic susceptibility. Blood tests for inflammatory markers may be useful if an acute abdomen is suspected. HIV serology is not the next investigation in this case, but those diagnosed with STIs are offered screening for HIV. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis may be done if a complicated pelvic inflammatory disease is suspected, but it is unlikely to be helpful in this case. Urine culture would not be useful in the absence of urinary symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 51
Correct
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Which one of the following is true regarding anti-tuberculous therapy?
Your Answer: Visual acuity should be checked before starting ethambutol
Explanation:Rifampicin has a strong ability to induce liver enzymes. During the initial two months of treatment, Pyrazinamide should be administered, but it may cause hepatitis and gout as side effects. Isoniazid may cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.
Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.
In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.
While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 52
Correct
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When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the District Nurse wants to confirm if the patient has received complete tetanus vaccination. What is the number of tetanus vaccine doses required for life-long protection?
Your Answer: 5
Explanation:Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer: Cefaclor
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.
The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 54
Incorrect
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The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood from a child who is known to have HIV. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to GUM for immediate p24 HIV test of phlebotomist to determine treatment
Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure.
For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used.
For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine.
For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given.
For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 55
Correct
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Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
Your Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive teenager who recently returned from the tropics presents with severe diarrhoea (up to 30 times per day).
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Salmonella species
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium species
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of diarrhoea in an HIV-positive patient
Human cryptosporidiosis, caused by Cryptosporidium species, is a common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients, leading to prolonged and severe diarrhoea. Escherichia coli can cause urinary and enteric infections, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case. Staphylococcus aureus is a commensal bacterium that can cause various infections, but it is not suggested by this clinical scenario. Entamoeba histolytica, which causes amoebiasis, is more prevalent in developing countries and may cause dysentery and invasive extra-intestinal manifestations, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case. Salmonella species can be transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages and may cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, focal disease, or typhoid fever, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case, given the severity of diarrhoea and the patient’s HIV-positive status. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying cause of diarrhoea in this patient and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 57
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having had tonsillitis three times in the past year and currently have a fever and cough. During the examination, the doctor notes tender cervical lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsils. The patient is prescribed phenoxymethylpenicillin. On day 5 of treatment, blood tests are taken and reveal the following results:
Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 390 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 10.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 0.8 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 9.2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.2 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 0.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
What could be the possible reasons for the abnormalities in these blood results?Your Answer: Underlying diagnosis of glandular fever
Explanation:The presence of lymphocytosis and neutropenia in a person who has been treated for recurrent tonsillitis may indicate an underlying condition. Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, is a common cause of recurrent tonsillitis in young people and can result in an increase in activated T and B lymphocytes, leading to lymphocytosis. The virus may also cause neutropenia, although the exact cause is not fully understood. A peritonsillar abscess, tonsillitis unresponsive to treatment, and treatment with phenoxymethylpenicillin are unlikely to cause significant abnormalities in the full blood count. While lymphoma may explain the lymphocytosis, it would not account for the neutropenia and is less likely than an underlying glandular fever infection.
Understanding Neutropaenia: Causes and Severity
Neutropaenia is a medical condition characterized by low neutrophil counts, which is below 1.5 * 109. A normal neutrophil count ranges from 2.0 to 7.5 * 109. It is crucial to recognize this condition as it increases the risk of severe infections. Neutropaenia can be classified into three categories based on its severity: mild (1.0 – 1.5 * 109), moderate (0.5 – 1.0 * 109), and severe (< 0.5 * 109). There are several causes of neutropaenia, including viral infections such as HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, and hepatitis. Certain drugs like cytotoxics, carbimazole, and clozapine can also cause neutropaenia. Benign ethnic neutropaenia is common in people of black African and Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, but it requires no treatment. Haematological malignancies like myelodysplastic malignancies and aplastic anemia, as well as rheumatological conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis, can also cause neutropaenia. Severe sepsis and haemodialysis are other potential causes of neutropaenia. In summary, neutropaenia is a medical condition that can increase the risk of severe infections. It is important to recognize its severity and underlying causes to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 58
Correct
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A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 59
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old intravenous drug user who complains of pyrexia and malaise. Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic, pale, and is coughing. A soft murmur is detected, and mild erythematous macular lesions are observed on both palms. Although the patient is experiencing general aches, there is no specific tenderness reported. Can you identify the probable diagnosis and explain the significance of the lesions?
Your Answer: Osler nodes
Correct Answer: Janeway lesions
Explanation:Janeway lesions are painless, red, and bloody lesions that appear on the palms and soles. They are typically associated with infective endocarditis.
Based on the patient’s history of intravenous drug use, fever, and heart murmur, it is likely that he has infective endocarditis. Both janeway lesions (caused by septic emboli) and osler nodes (caused by immune complex deposition) can be present in endocarditis. However, in this case, the lesions are more likely to be janeway lesions as they are not painful.
Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages that can also be seen in endocarditis, but they would be detected during a fundoscopy exam.
If the patient had meningitis, the rash would not be limited to the palms and would not disappear when pressed.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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