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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old male comes to the general physician with a painless lump. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male comes to the general physician with a painless lump. He is referred to urology and subsequent scans reveal a testicular seminoma with metastasis to the lymph nodes that receive lymphatic drainage from the scrotum.

      What are the lymph nodes that receive drainage from the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The scrotum’s lymph drainage is received by the superficial inguinal nodes, which serve as the primary lymph node drainage site for this area.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most probable cause of a macrocytic anaemia that is non-megaloblastic...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable cause of a macrocytic anaemia that is non-megaloblastic in nature?

      Your Answer: Chronic liver disease

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Chronic Diseases and Blood Cell Formation

      Chronic liver disease, coeliac disease, and Crohn’s disease can all affect the formation of red blood cells in different ways. In chronic liver disease, cholesterol and lipids build up in the membrane of red blood cells, causing them to increase in size. However, DNA maturation is not impaired, so the nucleus is still ejected normally. Coeliac disease can lead to villous atrophy in the small intestine, which impairs the absorption of folic acid. Folate is necessary for DNA replication, and its deficiency can result in the formation of immature, large red cells with impaired DNA maturation. Crohn’s disease typically affects the terminal ileum, where vitamin B12 is absorbed. Vitamin B12 is important for the recycling of folate, which is essential for DNA synthesis. Without intrinsic factor, a co-factor in vitamin B12 absorption secreted by gastric parietal cells, vitamin B12 deficiency can occur. Chemotherapeutic agents that affect DNA synthesis can also lead to the formation of megaloblasts, as normal DNA maturation is impaired. Overall, these chronic diseases can have significant impacts on the formation of red blood cells and the body’s ability to produce healthy blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old man with Von Willebrand's disease is scheduled for an intravenous infusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with Von Willebrand's disease is scheduled for an intravenous infusion of desmopressin acetate. The medication works by triggering the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which enhances factor VIII and the creation of the platelet plug in clotting. What substance is responsible for maintaining blood solubility and preventing platelet activation in individuals without clotting disorders?

      Your Answer: Thromboxane

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the coagulation cascade is crucial, but it’s also important to know the substances that the body secretes to maintain normal blood vessel function and prevent excessive clotting. In primary haemostasis, the formation of a platelet plug is a critical step, and several substances in the blood vessels work against platelet activation to keep the blood flowing smoothly.

      Prostacyclin, which is produced from arachidonic acid, inhibits platelet activation. Nitric oxide prevents platelet adhesion to the vessel wall and also dilates blood vessels to increase blood flow. Endothelial ADPase inhibits ADP, which is a platelet activator.

      Fibrinogen, a large and soluble compound, is the precursor to fibrin, which forms an insoluble mesh to trap blood cells and platelets within a clot. This is the final step of the coagulation cascade, and the clot is further strengthened by fibrin-stabilising factor. Thromboxane, produced by activated platelets, increases platelet activation and constricts blood vessels, making it another thrombotic agent. Aggregated platelets produce ADP, which further enhances platelet aggregation.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with a DVT in his right leg, which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with a DVT in his right leg, which is determined to be caused by a genetic disorder. What is the most prevalent hereditary factor leading to DVT?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis is a condition that occurs more frequently in Caucasians than in people of black African, Far East Asian, native Australian, and native American origin. The most common heritable causes of DVT, in descending order, are Factor V Leiden, Prothrombin G20210A variant, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin deficiency. However, Von Willebrand disease and thalassaemia are not associated with DVT.

      Understanding Factor V Leiden

      Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.

      Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.

      Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.

      Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.

      Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
      — | — | —
      Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
      Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
      Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
      Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
      Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
      Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old male presents to his GP with a 5-day-history of mild scrotal...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his GP with a 5-day-history of mild scrotal pain. He reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with a new female partner recently. Upon examination, the right hemi-scrotum is swollen, red, and tender with an enlarged epididymis. The patient has a normal glans penis and a present cremasteric reflex.

      In this scenario, which lymph nodes are most likely to be enlarged?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of increasing early satiety over...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of increasing early satiety over the past month. The doctor suspects a gastric tumor and inquires about potential risk factors, including the patient's diet, which seems to consist of a lot of processed meats.

      What chemical component is most likely responsible for causing gastric and esophageal cancer?

      Your Answer: Nitrosamine

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrosamine increases the likelihood of developing oesophageal and gastric cancer. Nitrosamine is commonly added to processed meats like bacon, ham, sausages, and hot dogs, making frequent consumption of these foods a risk factor for these types of cancer. Nitrosamine is also present in tobacco smoke. On the other hand, flavonoids, which are abundant in plants, have been linked to a decreased risk of gastric cancer. Acrylamide is present in starchy foods, while fluoride is used in water and toothpaste to prevent tooth decay.

      Understanding Carcinogens and Their Link to Cancer

      Carcinogens are substances that have the potential to cause cancer. These substances can be found in various forms, including chemicals, radiation, and viruses. Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus, is a carcinogen that can cause liver cancer. Aniline dyes, on the other hand, can lead to bladder cancer, while asbestos is known to cause mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma. Nitrosamines are another type of carcinogen that can cause oesophageal and gastric cancer, while vinyl chloride can lead to hepatic angiosarcoma.

      It is important to understand the link between carcinogens and cancer, as exposure to these substances can increase the risk of developing the disease. By identifying and avoiding potential carcinogens, individuals can take steps to reduce their risk of cancer. Additionally, researchers continue to study the effects of various substances on the body, in order to better understand the mechanisms behind cancer development and to develop new treatments and prevention strategies. With continued research and education, it is possible to reduce the impact of carcinogens on human health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is worried about the possibility of it spreading. He has come to his urologist seeking more information. The urologist explains that testicular cancer can metastasize to the lymph nodes that drain lymph from the testes. Which lymph node is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread from the testes?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The testes drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes, while the scrotum drains into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the glans penis drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes. The anal canal above the pectinate line drains into the internal iliac lymph nodes, and the descending colon drains into the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes. For a comprehensive list of lymph nodes and their associated drainage sites, please refer to the attached notes.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old female presents with frequent bruising and bleeding gums, prompting concern for...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female presents with frequent bruising and bleeding gums, prompting concern for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. What tests would you order to investigate this?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)

      Explanation:

      The prothrombin time (PT) is used to assess the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, while the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess the intrinsic pathway. The thrombin time is used to assess fibrin formation. A 50:50 mixing study is used to determine if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 19 year old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a...

    Correct

    • A 19 year old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident. The patient is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg, tachycardic with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, and has oxygen saturations of 92%. The medical team administers one litre of 0.9% normal saline for initial resuscitation. The consultant suspects a ruptured spleen and has requested a cross match and four units of blood from the haematology lab. The patient's brother overhears the conversation and believes he is blood group A because he donates blood annually. What blood product can be given to the patient until the cross match result is available?

      Your Answer: O rhesus negative

      Explanation:

      Dilutional anemia can occur as a result of saline administration, which does not improve oxygen transport or coagulopathy.

      When the blood group of a patient is unknown, O rhesus negative blood may be administered as it is considered the universal donor. However, to conserve O negative blood stocks, transfusion guidelines now recommend giving male patients O positive blood in such situations, as Rhesus status is only relevant in pregnancy.

      It is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is prescribed and administered to the right patient, as transfusion reactions can be severe and fatal.

      Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices

      Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.

      Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.

      In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden left leg pain, redness, and swelling. She recently traveled from Australia and denies any history of trauma or family history of similar symptoms. What underlying risk factor may make her more susceptible to this condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera

      Explanation:

      The risk of venous thromboembolism is elevated in individuals with polycythaemia due to the abnormal overproduction of red blood cells, which leads to increased blood viscosity and slower flow rate, increasing the likelihood of clot formation. Conversely, low BMI does not increase the risk of VTE, while obesity is a known risk factor. Additionally, thrombophilia, not haemophilia, is a risk factor for VTE.

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with thrombosis in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with thrombosis in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Use of tourniquets in surgery

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      The remaining choices either cause thrombosis by directly promoting it, such as through damage to endothelial cells, or by altering the consistency or flow of blood.

      Abnormal coagulation can be caused by various factors such as heparin, warfarin, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and liver disease. Heparin prevents the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11, while warfarin affects the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. DIC affects factors 1, 2, 5, 8, and 11, and liver disease affects factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11.

      When interpreting blood clotting test results, different disorders can be identified based on the levels of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), prothrombin time (PT), and bleeding time. Haemophilia is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and normal bleeding time. On the other hand, von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and increased bleeding time. Lastly, vitamin K deficiency is characterized by increased APTT and PT levels, and normal bleeding time. Proper interpretation of these results is crucial in diagnosing and treating coagulation disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old woman is a few minutes into receiving a blood transfusion after...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman is a few minutes into receiving a blood transfusion after experiencing a postpartum haemorrhage when she experiences intense chest and abdominal pain. Her temperature has risen to 38.1ºC, and her BP is 80/60 mmHg. The medical team suspects that she is having an acute reaction to the blood product transfusion.

      What is the underlying mechanism of the probable transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Host IgM antibody destruction of ABO-incompatible red blood cells (RBCs)

      Explanation:

      The correct mechanism of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions is the destruction of ABO-incompatible red blood cells (RBCs) by host IgM antibodies. These reactions typically occur due to human error in giving patients ABO-incompatible blood products. Symptoms include hypotension, fever, and abdominal and/or chest pain.

      Fluid overload, host anti-IgA antibodies reacting against donor IgA, and host antibodies reacting with donor white cell fragments are all incorrect mechanisms for acute haemolytic transfusion reactions. These mechanisms are associated with transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), anaphylaxis to blood products in patients with IgA deficiency, and non-haemolytic febrile reactions, respectively. These conditions present with different symptoms and are not associated with the rapid onset of hypotension and abdominal pain seen in acute haemolytic transfusion reactions.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old woman has been referred to the haematology clinic due to intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman has been referred to the haematology clinic due to intermittent lymphadenopathy affecting her neck for the past 18 months. Following a biopsy, the histology report suggests a possible diagnosis of follicular lymphoma. To assist with the diagnosis, genetic analysis is conducted.

      What is the most probable genomic alteration that will be detected?

      Your Answer: T(8;14) causing c-myc gene translocation

      Correct Answer: T(14;18) causing increased BCL-2 transcription

      Explanation:

      Genetics of Haematological Malignancies

      Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:

      – Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      – t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.

      – t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.

      – t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.

      – t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.

      Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his right...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his right upper quadrant. He has no prior hospital visits and generally enjoys good health. Recently retired from his job as a machinist in a PVC factory, he is concerned about his symptoms. A CT scan reveals an irregular tumor in the right lobe of his liver. What type of lesion is most probable?

      Your Answer: Angiosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Angiosarcoma of the liver is a tumor that is not commonly found. However, it has been associated with exposure to vinyl chloride, as seen in this instance. While current factories have taken measures to reduce exposure to this substance, this was not always the case.

      Occupational cancers are responsible for 5.3% of cancer deaths, with men being more affected than women. The most common types of cancer in men include mesothelioma, bladder cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer, lung cancer, and sino-nasal cancer. Occupations that have a high risk of developing tumors include those in the construction industry, coal tar and pitch workers, miners, metalworkers, asbestos workers, and those in the rubber industry. Shift work has also been linked to breast cancer in women.

      The latency period between exposure to carcinogens and the development of cancer is typically 15 years for solid tumors and 20 years for leukemia. Many occupational cancers are rare, such as sino-nasal cancer, which is linked to wood dust exposure and is not strongly associated with smoking. Another rare occupational tumor is angiosarcoma of the liver, which is linked to working with vinyl chloride. In non-occupational contexts, these tumors are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man with aplastic anaemia is due for a blood transfusion. However,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with aplastic anaemia is due for a blood transfusion. However, the red cell unit available in the refrigerator has exceeded its expiration date.

      What is a potential risk associated with administering expired red cell units during a transfusion?

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive vaginal bleeding. After undergoing...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive vaginal bleeding. After undergoing an ultrasound scan and uterine biopsy, it is revealed that she has an endometrial tumor located in the uterine fundus. Which group of nearby lymph nodes will be the primary location for lymphatic metastasis of this tumor?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of the uterine fundus is similar to that of the ovaries, running alongside the ovarian vessels and draining into the para-aortic lymph nodes. Therefore, option 4 is correct. Options 1, 2, and 5 are incorrect as they refer to the drainage of the cervix and uterine body, which is different from that of the uterine fundus. Option 3 is also incorrect as the external iliac lymph nodes are not involved in the drainage of the uterine fundus.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old woman presents to your GP surgery with recurrent nose bleeds. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to your GP surgery with recurrent nose bleeds. She reports that she sometimes experiences prolonged bleeding after accidental cuts. She is in good health and takes the oral combined contraceptive pill. Her father had mentioned years ago that he also experienced slow wound healing.

      Based on the history provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic cause of coagulation disorders that can result in prolonged bleeding time and nosebleeds. On the other hand, disseminated intravascular coagulation is an acquired condition that does not typically cause increased bleeding time but may occur in patients with sepsis. Acquired hemophilia is also an acquired condition that is not associated with a family history of bleeding disorders. Vitamin K deficiency can lead to increased bleeding time, bruising, and nosebleeds. Reduced liver function can also result in decreased production of clotting factors and an increased risk of bleeding, but this is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms based on their medical history.

      Understanding Coagulation Disorders

      Coagulation disorders refer to conditions that affect the body’s ability to form blood clots. These disorders can be hereditary or acquired. Hereditary coagulation disorders include haemophilia A, haemophilia B, and von Willebrand’s disease. These conditions are caused by genetic mutations that affect the production or function of certain clotting factors in the blood.

      On the other hand, acquired coagulation disorders are caused by external factors that affect the body’s ability to form blood clots. These factors include vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC can also cause thrombocytopenia, which is a condition characterized by low platelet counts in the blood. Another acquired coagulation disorder is acquired haemophilia, which is a rare autoimmune disorder that causes the body to produce antibodies that attack clotting factors in the blood.

      It is important to understand coagulation disorders as they can lead to serious health complications such as excessive bleeding or blood clots. Treatment for coagulation disorders varies depending on the underlying cause and severity of the condition. It may include medication, blood transfusions, or surgery. Regular monitoring and management of these conditions can help prevent complications and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of passing fresh red blood in...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of passing fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and feeling lethargic for the past 2 months. During the digital rectal examination, no abnormalities are detected. However, an urgent flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals a mass in the sigmoid colon. Biopsies of the lesion confirm the presence of adenocarcinoma. In this patient, which lymph node region is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread initially?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric nodes

      Explanation:

      The sigmoid colon’s lymphatic drainage flows into the inferior mesenteric nodes. This is due to the embryological development of the vasculature supply in the hindgut region, which includes the transverse colon down to the rectum. From there, lymph eventually passes to the para-aortic nodes. The axillary nodes are not involved in this process, as they drain the upper limb and lateral breast tissue. Similarly, the internal iliac nodes drain different areas, including the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and frequent nosebleeds. She also...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and frequent nosebleeds. She also reports easy bruising. Upon investigation, the GP finds prolonged bleeding time and thrombocytopenia, leading to a diagnosis of Bernard-Soulier syndrome. What is the missing or defective component in this condition?

      Your Answer: Platelet glycoprotein complex Ib-IX-V

      Explanation:

      Bernard-Soulier syndrome is a bleeding disorder that occurs due to an autosomal recessive deficiency in the platelet glycoprotein complex Ib-IX-V. This complex is responsible for binding to von Willebrand factor (vWF) to allow platelet adherence. As a result of the deficiency, vWF cannot bind, leading to impaired platelet adhesion and the typical symptoms of coagulopathies such as abnormal bleeding and bruising.

      It is important to note that von Willebrand factor is not deficient in Bernard-Soulier syndrome, but its function is impaired due to the lack of the platelet glycoprotein complex Ib-IX-V, which prevents it from binding to platelets.

      Glanzmann’s disease is caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa, which leads to impaired platelet aggregation as fibrinogen cannot bind to platelets.

      Grey platelet syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by alpha granule deficiency, where megakaryocytes fail to pack these granules into platelets and release them in the bone marrow. This results in a large number of agranulocytic platelets in blood smears, which is a diagnostic characteristic of the syndrome.

      Finally, lack of fibrinogen is usually an acquired type of deficiency that may or may not present with clinical manifestations.

      Understanding Bernard-Soulier Disease

      Bernard-Soulier disease is a platelet disorder that is caused by a deficiency of the glycoprotein Ib/IX/V complex. This complex is responsible for acting as a receptor for von Willebrand factor. The disease is rare and inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disease. The lack of the glycoprotein Ib/IX/V complex leads to abnormal platelet function, which can result in bleeding tendencies and easy bruising. It is important for individuals with Bernard-Soulier disease to receive proper medical care and management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 44-year-old man presents with a widespread maculopapular rash and fever after undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents with a widespread maculopapular rash and fever after undergoing haematopoietic cell transplantation for multiple myeloma. The diagnosis is GVHD. What cell type is primarily responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: B cells

      Correct Answer: Donor T cells

      Explanation:

      GVHD is a condition where T cells from the donor tissue (the graft) attack healthy cells in the recipient (the host). This can occur after a haematopoietic cell transplantation and is diagnosed based on symptoms such as fever, rash, and gastrointestinal issues. Antigen-presenting cells activate the donor T cells, but do not attack host cells. B cells, host T cells, and mast cells do not contribute to the attack on host tissue in GVHD.

      Understanding Graft Versus Host Disease

      Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is a complication that can occur after bone marrow or solid organ transplantation. It happens when the T cells in the donor tissue attack the recipient’s cells. This is different from transplant rejection, where the recipient’s immune cells attack the donor tissue. GVHD is diagnosed using the Billingham criteria, which require that the transplanted tissue contains functioning immune cells, the donor and recipient are immunologically different, and the recipient is immunocompromised.

      The incidence of GVHD varies, but it can occur in up to 50% of patients who receive allogeneic bone marrow transplants. Risk factors include poorly matched donor and recipient, the type of conditioning used before transplantation, gender disparity between donor and recipient, and the source of the graft.

      Acute and chronic GVHD are considered separate syndromes. Acute GVHD typically occurs within 100 days of transplantation and affects the skin, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. Chronic GVHD may occur after acute disease or arise de novo and has a more varied clinical picture.

      Diagnosis of GVHD is largely clinical and based on the exclusion of other pathology. Signs and symptoms of acute GVHD include a painful rash, jaundice, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Chronic GVHD can affect the skin, eyes, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs.

      Treatment of GVHD involves immunosuppression and supportive measures. Intravenous steroids are the mainstay of treatment for severe cases of acute GVHD, while extended courses of steroid therapy are often needed in chronic GVHD. Second-line therapies include anti-TNF, mTOR inhibitors, and extracorporeal photopheresis. Topical steroid therapy may be sufficient in mild disease with limited cutaneous involvement. However, excessive immunosuppression may increase the risk of infection and limit the beneficial graft-versus-tumor effect of the transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain and dyspnoea. Upon examination, an area of painful swelling is found in her right calf, indicating a possible deep vein thrombosis. Her Wells' score is calculated to be 4.2. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 105/78 mmHg
      Pulse: 118 bpm
      Temperature: 37.1ºC
      Respiratory rate: 20/min

      A CT pulmonary angiography confirms the presence of a right pulmonary embolism. What medication is most likely to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      Rivaroxaban is a direct inhibitor of factor Xa, which is the correct answer. Pulmonary emboli can be caused by various factors, and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. Factor Xa inhibitors, such as rivaroxaban, have replaced warfarin as the first-line treatment for stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation.

      Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor and has a different mechanism of action compared to rivaroxaban. It is commonly used for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis after total knee or hip replacement surgery.

      Dalteparin is a type of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and has a different mechanism of action compared to factor Xa inhibitors. It is used for prophylaxis against venous thromboembolism in patients who are immobile or have recently had surgery.

      Fondaparinux is an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa and is not the correct answer. It is used for the treatment of deep-vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and acute coronary syndrome.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old, ex-smoker, of 25 pack years arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old, ex-smoker, of 25 pack years arrives at the emergency department with central crushing chest pain that spreads down his left arm. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2 and V3. He has a medical history of asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type II diabetes. The patient's complete blood count indicates a haemoglobin level of 17.1 g/dL. What is the probable cause of this patient's elevated haemoglobin level?

      Your Answer: Inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic hypoxia caused by COPD is a secondary factor leading to polycythaemia in this patient. While an anterior ST elevation MI is likely the acute issue, it would not explain the polycythaemia. Asthma is not a cause of polycythaemia and would not be responsible for the ECG changes. An inferior MI would not be associated with polycythaemia and would only cause ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following processes enables phagocytosis to occur? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following processes enables phagocytosis to occur?

      Your Answer: Opsonisation

      Explanation:

      Phagocytosis is facilitated by opsonisation, which involves coating the micro-organism with antibody, C3b, and specific acute phase proteins. This leads to an increase in phagocytic cell surface receptors on macrophages and neutrophils, which is mediated by pro-inflammatory cytokines. As a result, these cells are able to engulf the micro-organism.

      Phagocytosis: The Process of Cell Ingestion

      Phagocytosis is the process by which cells ingest foreign materials or pathogens. The first step in this process is opsonisation, where the organism is coated by an antibody. The second step is adhesion to the cell surface, followed by pseudopodial extension to form a phagocytic vacuole. Finally, lysosomes fuse with the vacuole and degrade its contents.

      Phagocytosis is an essential process for the immune system to fight off infections and diseases. It is a complex process that involves multiple steps, including opsonisation, adhesion, and pseudopodial extension. The end result is the degradation of the foreign material or pathogen by lysosomes. Understanding the process of phagocytosis is crucial for developing treatments for diseases that involve the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 63-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of non-specific back pain, fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of non-specific back pain, fatigue and loss of appetite. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with diet, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and seasonal affective disorder. He has a 30 pack-year smoking history. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits except for saturations of 94% on room air. A chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lung fields bilaterally, unchanged from a previous x-ray. Blood tests and urine analysis reveal a positive urinary Bence-Jones protein. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of multiple myeloma can be supported by the presence of Bence-Jones protein on urinary analysis, although it is not always necessary. This haematological malignancy of plasma cells is characterized by bone pain and lytic bone lesions. Hypercalcaemia can also indicate the presence of multiple myeloma.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory arthritis that typically affects young men and is associated with HLA-B27. Symptoms include early-morning back pain that improves with exercise, and an elevated ESR may be observed.

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a haematological malignancy that is linked to genetic translocation on chromosome 9 (Philadelphia chromosome). It is characterized by high white cell count, splenomegaly, and blast cells seen on marrow biopsy.

      Gastric and pancreatic cancer may present with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, loss of appetite, and abdominal fullness or pain. Biochemistry may be normal or show raised inflammatory markers, and diagnosis is confirmed through biopsy following imaging.

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents after falling off the monkey bars at the playground. Shortly after, her left elbow became swollen and very painful. Her parents are worried because her father has a history of von Willebrand disease. The patient is evaluated for a bleeding disorder. The girl has no previous medical issues and is generally healthy.

      What is the most probable blood test result for this patient?

      Your Answer: Normal APTT, normal PT

      Correct Answer: Increased APTT, normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A is the most likely diagnosis for the child based on the family history and presentation of haemarthrosis. Haemophilia is a genetic condition that affects clotting factors VIII or IX, which are part of the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. APTT is a test that measures the intrinsic and common clotting cascades, but it does not include factor IX, so haemophilia B may not always show an abnormal APTT. PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade and is associated with factors I, II, V, VII, and X. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is normal in haemophilia. Therefore, APTT may be raised, PT will be normal, and bleeding time will be normal in haemophilia.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A six-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department due to sudden abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A six-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department due to sudden abdominal pain and distension. The infant has a history of lethargy, growth restriction, and overall weakness. Upon abdominal examination, splenomegaly is noted. Further investigations reveal a diagnosis of sickle cell disease, with the acute presentation believed to be an acute crisis. Based on this information, what is the most probable haemoglobin trait in this patient?

      Your Answer: HbA HbS

      Correct Answer: HbS HbS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an abnormal haemoglobin chain, known as HbS, is synthesized due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in people of African descent, as the heterozygous condition offers some protection against malaria. In the UK, around 10% of Afro-Caribbean individuals are carriers of HbS. Symptoms in homozygotes typically do not develop until 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules take over from fetal haemoglobin.

      The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerize and sickle in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and can cause haemolysis, block small blood vessels, and lead to infarction.

      To diagnose sickle-cell anaemia, haemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test. It is essential to understand the pathophysiology and symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia to provide appropriate care and management for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 27 - What type of cell is found in higher quantities in the blood sample...

    Incorrect

    • What type of cell is found in higher quantities in the blood sample of an individual who has a viral infection?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Blood Cell Types and Their Presence in Various Disorders

      Lymphocytes are a type of blood cell that can be found in higher numbers during viral infections. Eosinophils, on the other hand, are present in response to allergies, drug reactions, or infections caused by flatworms and strongyloides. Monocytes are another type of blood cell that can be found in disorders such as EBV infection, CMML, and other atypical infections. Neutrophils are present in bacterial infections or in disorders such as CML or AML where their more immature blastoid form is seen. Lastly, platelets can be increased in infections, iron deficiency, or myeloproliferative disorders.

      In summary, different types of blood cells can indicate various disorders or infections. By analyzing the presence of these cells in the blood, doctors can better diagnose and treat patients. It is important to note that the presence of these cells alone is not enough to make a diagnosis, and further testing may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old male presents with recurrent swollen joints which are painful. His parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old male presents with recurrent swollen joints which are painful. His parents have noticed this is usually precipitated by minor accidents while playing on the playground. A plasma factor assay is requested which reveals a diagnosis of haemophilia A.

      Which of the following tests is most likely to be normal in this patient?

      Your Answer: Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

      Correct Answer: Bleeding time

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is typically unaffected by haemophilia as it is a disorder of secondary haemostasis and does not impact platelets. However, APTT is likely to be prolonged due to a deficiency in factor VIII, which is reduced in haemophilia A. The disruption of the coagulation cascade is a result of this factor VIII deficiency. In cases of severe haemophilia A with significant blood loss, haemoglobin levels may be low.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old male visits his GP complaining of fatigue. The GP schedules a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits his GP complaining of fatigue. The GP schedules a blood test to rule out anaemia as a possible cause. Typically, where do red blood cells undergo breakdown in the body?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen is responsible for breaking down most of the red blood cells. This is achieved through the action of macrophages that identify and eliminate old red blood cells. It is worth noting that in a healthy individual, the liver, kidneys, and blood vessels do not participate in the breakdown of red blood cells. Additionally, while the bone marrow plays a crucial role in producing blood cells, it is not involved in the destruction of red blood cells.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of increasing fatigue, nosebleeds, and swollen gums. The admitting physician suspects the possibility of acute leukemia and seeks consultation with their senior colleague. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: A diagnosis of acute leukaemia could be confirmed if >10% blasts were identified in either his peripheral blood or in his bone marrow

      Correct Answer: He is more likely to be cured than if he was diagnosed with a chronic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia Types and Prognosis

      As with high-grade lymphomas, acute leukaemias have a higher chance of being cured than chronic leukaemias. However, chronic leukaemias such as CLL may not require treatment at the time of diagnosis and may not cause death for many years. Acute leukaemias, on the other hand, have a higher initial mortality rate.

      The diagnosis of acute leukaemia can be made if the blasts account for more than 20% of the bone marrow or peripheral blood, or if there is a blast count with a recognized cytogenetic abnormality associated with AML. Gum hypertrophy is more commonly associated with AML, especially acute monocytic leukaemia.

      Females generally have a better prognosis than males when it comes to acute leukaemias. ALL most commonly arises from B-lymphocyte populations, while AML arising from pre-existing conditions such as the myeloproliferative neoplasms is associated with a poorer prognosis than that arising de novo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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