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  • Question 1 - A previously healthy 95-year-old individual with a history of hypertension arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 95-year-old individual with a history of hypertension arrives at the Emergency department with dysphasia and right-sided hemiplegia. A CT scan is performed urgently 2 hours after the symptoms began, revealing a left hemisphere cerebral infarction. What is the time frame for administering alteplase in the treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: 6 hours

      Correct Answer: 4.5 hours

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Thrombolysis in Stroke Patients

      According to the guidelines set by The Royal College of Physicians, thrombolysis with alteplase can be administered within three hours from the onset of stroke symptoms, regardless of the patient’s age, as long as a haemorrhagic stroke is ruled out and there are no contraindications to thrombolysis. However, in patients under the age of 80 years, alteplase can be given up to 4.5 hours from the onset of stroke, and in some cases, up to 6 hours. It is important to note that the benefits of thrombolysis decrease over time.

      The guidelines emphasize the importance of timely administration of thrombolysis to maximize its benefits. However, the decision to administer thrombolysis should be made after careful consideration of the patient’s medical history, contraindications, and the potential risks and benefits of the treatment. It is also important to rule out haemorrhagic stroke before administering thrombolysis, as it can worsen the condition and lead to complications. Overall, the guidelines provide a framework for the safe and effective use of thrombolysis in stroke patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with elevated inflammatory markers, metabolic acidosis, leukocytosis, and an amylase level of 3480 U/L. Which medication is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Exenatide

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and Pancreatitis: A Review of the Evidence

      Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of the hormone GLP-1, which triggers insulin secretion in response to food intake. However, there is a rare but concerning association between exenatide and acute pancreatitis. A recent case-control study found that patients taking GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide had a higher risk of developing pancreatitis compared to those taking other diabetes drugs. As a result, patients starting on exenatide should be informed about the symptoms of pancreatitis and monitored closely for abdominal pain.

      While there is some controversy surrounding the association between gliptins and pancreatitis, the British National Formulary recommends discontinuing sitagliptin if acute pancreatitis is suspected. It is important to note that lactic acidosis, a potential side effect of metformin, should not be confused with pancreatitis, which is characterized by elevated levels of amylase. Overall, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risk of pancreatitis in patients taking exenatide and other GLP-1 mimetics, and take appropriate precautions to monitor and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole, metronidazole and clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      The bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is classified as a gram-negative curved rod, has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the healing process. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be infected with Helicobacter. To treat this infection, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of the bacterium. Triple therapy, which involves a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be the most effective treatment. This therapy should be administered for one week, with proton pump therapy continuing thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old male is undergoing treatment for ischaemic heart disease. He has recently...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male is undergoing treatment for ischaemic heart disease. He has recently reported experiencing cold peripheries. What medication could be causing this symptom?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cold Peripheries

      Beta-blockers are known to cause cold peripheries due to their ability to constrict the superficial vessels. This constriction leads to a decrease in blood flow to the extremities, resulting in a feeling of coldness. In addition to beta-blockers, other factors can also contribute to cold peripheries. Bronchospasm, which is a narrowing of the airways in the lungs, can also cause coldness in the extremities. This is because the body redirects blood flow away from the extremities and towards the lungs to help with breathing. Finally, fatigue can also cause cold peripheries as the body’s energy levels decrease, leading to a decrease in blood flow to the extremities. Overall, there are several factors that can contribute to cold peripheries, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The following result is obtained on a 48-year-old male who is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • The following result is obtained on a 48-year-old male who is admitted with acute onset chest pain:
      Serum Cholesterol 7.3 mmol/L (<5.2)
      He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease.
      What abnormalities might be expected upon examination of this man?

      Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages in nail beds

      Correct Answer: Tendon nodules

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia and its Manifestations

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of cholesterol in the blood. This condition is often indicated by the deposition of cholesterol in various parts of the body. The history of the patient suggests that they may be suffering from familial hypercholesterolaemia. The deposition of cholesterol can be observed around the corneal arcus, around the eye itself (xanthelasma), and in tendons such as achilles, knuckles or triceps tendons (tendon xanthomas).

      While dietary and lifestyle modifications are recommended, they are usually not enough to manage the condition. High dose lifelong statin therapy is often necessary to control the levels of cholesterol in the blood. It is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to prevent further complications associated with familial hypercholesterolaemia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of statin therapy in conjunction with lifestyle modifications for the management of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing...

    Correct

    • A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing frequent urination and is ultimately diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. Which medication is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Lithium

      Lithium is a medication that is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. However, it can also cause a number of side effects. One of the most common side effects is gastrointestinal disturbance, which can include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Another common side effect is fine tremor, which can affect the hands and fingers. Weight gain and oedema (swelling) are also possible side effects of lithium.

      In addition, lithium can cause goitre, which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. If taken in excess, it can also lead to blurred vision, ataxia (loss of coordination), drowsiness, and coarse tremor. One of the more unique side effects of lithium is that it causes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) resistance, which can lead to the production of large volumes of dilute urine. Overall, while lithium can be an effective treatment for bipolar disorder, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old woman complains of muscle aches and pains. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of muscle aches and pains. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, which has been treated recently. What medication is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Statins

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Risks of Statin Therapy

      Statins are medications used to lower lipid levels in the body, which can significantly reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. However, one common side effect of this treatment is myalgia, or muscle pain. This side effect can be worsened by certain medications, such as macrolides and fibrates, as well as by hypothyroidism. While myalgia is generally not life-threatening, it can be uncomfortable and may lead some patients to discontinue statin therapy.

      In rare cases, statin therapy can lead to a potentially lethal condition called rhabdomyolysis. This occurs when there is severe muscle infiltration and destruction, which can cause renal failure. While this side effect is rare, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks associated with statin therapy and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider. Overall, the benefits of statin therapy in reducing cardiovascular risk generally outweigh the risks, but it is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to monitor for any potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a true statement about the way local anaesthetics work during minor...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the way local anaesthetics work during minor surgical procedures?

      Your Answer: The sodium ligand gated ion channel is the target of local anaesthetics

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline is sometimes co-administered to prolong the local action of local anaesthetics

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine and Procaine Target VGIC in Sensory Neurons

      Lidocaine and procaine are two drugs that target voltage-gated ion channels (VGIC) in sensory neurons. These drugs are particularly effective against sensory neurons with small diameters, low myelination, and low conduction velocity, such as C and Ad fibers. In contrast, large motor neurons with Aß fibers are less affected by these drugs.

      VGIC have three states: closed, transiently open, and inactivated. Lidocaine binds preferentially to the inactivated state of VGIC and stabilizes it. This mechanism of action is known as use dependence, which means that the drug is more effective when the neuron is firing rapidly.

      Overall, lidocaine and procaine are useful drugs for treating pain and other sensory disorders by targeting VGIC in sensory neurons. Their selective action on inactivated VGIC and use dependence make them effective and safe for clinical use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement about voltage gated ion channels (VGIC) is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about voltage gated ion channels (VGIC) is accurate?

      Your Answer: The calcium VGIC is the target of local anaesthetics

      Correct Answer: Each subunit has six transmembrane spanning domains (S1-S6)

      Explanation:

      Voltage Gated Ion Channels

      Voltage gated ion channels (VGICs) are composed of four subunits, each containing six transmembrane domains (S1-S6). The S4 domain is believed to be the voltage sensor, as every other residue is charged. The channel of calcium and sodium VGICs is formed by a single peptide, while the potassium receptor channel is made up of four separate peptides, indicating that it is evolutionarily more primitive. The sodium VGIC is targeted by local anesthetics. In summary, VGICs are essential for the proper functioning of cells and play a crucial role in the transmission of electrical signals in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement about agonists and antagonists is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about agonists and antagonists is accurate?

      Your Answer: A partial agonist has affinity but reduced efficacy

      Explanation:

      Affinity and Efficacy in Pharmacology

      In pharmacology, the terms affinity and efficacy are used to describe the relationship between a drug and its target receptor. Affinity refers to the strength of the binding between the drug and the receptor, while efficacy refers to the ability of the drug to activate the receptor and produce a response.

      An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a response. An agonist has both high affinity and high efficacy, meaning it binds strongly to the receptor and produces a strong response.

      An antagonist, on the other hand, binds to the receptor but does not activate it, blocking the action of other agonists. An antagonist has high affinity but no efficacy, meaning it binds strongly to the receptor but does not produce a response.

      A partial agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor and produces a response, but the response is weaker than that produced by a full agonist. A partial agonist has high affinity but reduced efficacy, meaning it binds strongly to the receptor but produces a weaker response.

      the concepts of affinity and efficacy is important in drug development and in the effects of drugs on the body. By manipulating these properties, researchers can develop drugs that selectively target specific receptors and produce desired effects with minimal side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting a handful of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting a handful of her father's anxiety medication. He takes lorazepam 1 mg TID for generalized anxiety disorder which has not responded well to other treatments.

      She has consumed 8 mg lorazepam and is now unresponsive, with a respiratory rate of eight per minute and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air.

      The patient does not react to verbal stimuli, but responds to a painful sternal rub and attempts to push the examiner's hand away.

      Given that the half-life of lorazepam is approximately 10-20 hours, how long will it take for the medication to be eliminated from her system?

      Your Answer: 80 hours

      Correct Answer: 200 hours

      Explanation:

      Clonazepam and Flumazenil in Benzodiazepine Overdose

      Conventionally, a drug is considered to be eliminated from the system after four or five half-lives, leaving only a small fraction of the original amount. However, this does not necessarily mean that the drug’s clinical effects have disappeared. For instance, a person who has taken clonazepam, a potent benzodiazepine used to treat certain seizure disorders, may still feel relatively alert even after only one half-life has passed.

      Clonazepam is a long-acting benzodiazepine that is approximately 20 times more potent than diazepam. In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, flumazenil may be a useful antidote. Flumazenil is particularly effective in uncomplicated cases of benzodiazepine overdose, and it works by reversing the effects of benzodiazepines on the central nervous system. Therefore, it may be considered as a treatment option for individuals who have taken an excessive amount of clonazepam or other benzodiazepines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - How can this question be restated? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can this question be restated?

      Your Answer: β2 adrenoreceptors are ligand gated ion channels

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptors are ligand gated ion channels

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Receptors in the Body

      There are various types of receptors in the body that play important roles in different physiological processes. One type of receptor is the 5HT3 receptor, which is a ligand gated ion channel. This means that it opens and closes in response to the binding of a specific ligand, allowing ions to flow in and out of the cell. Another type of receptor is the aldosterone receptor, which is a steroid receptor. This receptor binds to the hormone aldosterone and regulates the body’s electrolyte balance.

      The β2 adrenoreceptor is another type of receptor, which is a g protein coupled receptor. This receptor is activated by the hormone adrenaline and plays a role in regulating heart rate and bronchodilation. Finally, the insulin receptor is a tyrosine receptor kinase. This receptor is activated by the hormone insulin and plays a crucial role in regulating glucose metabolism in the body. the different types of receptors in the body is important for how different physiological processes are regulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old male patient is started on azathioprine treatment by a gastroenterologist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient is started on azathioprine treatment by a gastroenterologist for Crohn's disease. After six months of treatment, you receive a request from the gastroenterology department to assist with monitoring his treatment.
      What is the current recommended protocol for monitoring patients on long-term azathioprine therapy?
      Note:
      FBC - Full blood count
      LFT - Liver function tests
      U&E - Urea and electrolytes.

      Your Answer: FBC every 6 months, U&E and LFT every 12 months

      Correct Answer: FBC, LFT and U&E every three months

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine: A Cytotoxic Agent for Severe Refractory Eczema and Other Conditions

      Azathioprine is a cytotoxic drug that is converted to mercaptopurine, which acts as a purine analogue that inhibits DNA synthesis. It is used off-label for severe refractory eczema, post-transplant, and in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease. However, bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity are serious and well-known complications of azathioprine therapy. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, and skin eruptions. Patients with low levels of the enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT), which metabolizes azathioprine, are at increased risk of toxicity, and their enzyme activity is often measured before starting treatment.

      To minimize the risk of complications, current guidelines from the British Association of Dermatologists and the British National Formulary recommend monitoring full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and urea and electrolytes (U&E) every three months once patients are established on azathioprine treatment. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the benefits of azathioprine while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.7
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due to work-related stress. She took two paracetamol earlier today, but when it didn't help, she took two aspirin. However, she developed an itchy rash on her face and is experiencing breathing difficulties. What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of metabolism

      Correct Answer: Idiosyncratic

      Explanation:

      Idiosyncratic Reaction to Medication

      A person’s idiosyncratic reaction to medication is a peculiar response that is not expected from the drug’s mode of action. In this case, a woman is experiencing an allergic reaction to either aspirin or paracetamol. The fact that she is having difficulty breathing is a serious symptom that requires urgent treatment. It is important to note that not all allergic reactions are the same, and some can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if any unusual symptoms occur after taking medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the term used to describe a drug that binds to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but is unable to produce a comparable effect even with increasing doses?

      Your Answer: Competitive antagonist

      Correct Answer: Partial agonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists, Antagonists, and Partial Agonists

      Agonists, antagonists, and partial agonists are terms used to describe drugs that interact with receptors in the body. Competitive antagonists work by binding to the same receptor site as the agonist, preventing it from binding and producing its effect. However, increasing the concentration of the agonist can overcome this effect.

      Allosteric drugs, on the other hand, act at a site separate from the receptor site of the agonist. This can either enhance or inhibit the effect of the agonist. Partial agonists, like buprenorphine, produce a weaker effect than a full agonist. When combined with a full agonist, like morphine, the overall effect is decreased, leading to poor pain control.

      the differences between agonists, antagonists, and partial agonists is important in the development and use of drugs for various medical conditions. By targeting specific receptors in the body, these drugs can produce a desired effect or block unwanted effects. Proper dosing and combination of these drugs can lead to effective treatment and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.4
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old woman arrives at the Emergency department after a night out with her friends. According to her friends, she has been talking to herself about nonsensical things and appears agitated and restless. During the examination, it is noted that her reflexes are heightened and an electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ventricular ectopics. What type of substance abuse is suspected in this case?

      Your Answer: Barbiturate

      Correct Answer: Ecstasy

      Explanation:

      Ecstasy Overdose

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA, is a drug that stimulates the central nervous system. It can cause increased alertness, euphoria, extroverted behavior, and rapid speech. People who take ecstasy may also experience a lack of desire to eat or sleep, tremors, dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension. However, more severe intoxication can lead to excitability, agitation, paranoid delusions, hallucinations, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. In some cases, convulsions, rhabdomyolysis, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias may also develop.

      Severe cases of MDMA poisoning can result in hyperthermia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure, hyponatremia, and even hepatic damage. In rare cases, amphetamine poisoning may lead to intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage and acute cardiomyopathy, which can be fatal. Chronic amphetamine users may also experience hyperthyroxinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.1
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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain and swelling in her right calf. Upon further examination, it is confirmed that she has a deep vein thrombosis. Can any of the medications she is currently taking be a contributing factor to this condition?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Thromboembolic Risk and Oral Contraceptives

      The use of combined oral contraceptives (OCP) is known to increase the risk of thromboembolism. This is due to the estrogen component of the pill, which promotes a pro-thrombotic environment. However, the risk of thromboembolism on the OCP is only about five times higher than normal, which is significantly lower than the risk during pregnancy, which is six to ten times higher. On the other hand, there is no clear evidence of an increased risk of thromboembolism associated with the use of progesterone-only contraceptive pills (mini pill). It is important for women to discuss their individual risk factors with their healthcare provider before starting any form of hormonal contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.6
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking methotrexate, folic acid, Adcal-D3,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking methotrexate, folic acid, Adcal-D3, ibuprofen, and paracetamol. She visits the GP clinic complaining of a sore throat. Upon examination, her tonsils are enlarged with pus, she has tender cervical lymphadenopathy, and a fever of 38.5°C. She does not have a cough. What course of action would you suggest for her management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency with suspected neutropenic sepsis

      Correct Answer: Send an urgent venous blood sample for full blood count and commence benzylpenicillin 500 mg QDS for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate and Tonsillitis: Differential Diagnosis and Treatment

      Methotrexate therapy can lead to a rare but serious complication known as marrow failure, which can manifest as fever and sore throat. However, in cases where there are clear signs of tonsillitis, such as in this patient, it is more likely to be the cause of the symptoms. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count is necessary to rule out marrow failure.

      In this case, the patient meets the Centor criteria for antibiotic treatment of sore throat, which includes the presence of anterior cervical adenopathy, tonsillar exudates, fever, and absence of cough. A score of four or higher suggests that the tonsillitis is more likely to be bacterial in origin, making treatment with antibiotics reasonable.

      While marrow failure is a serious complication, admitting the patient to the hospital as an emergency would not be a reasonable use of resources in this case. Instead, the focus should be on treating the tonsillitis and monitoring the patient for any signs of worsening symptoms or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.8
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  • Question 20 - A patient is being treated for a pneumonia. She is given 200 mg...

    Correct

    • A patient is being treated for a pneumonia. She is given 200 mg of an antibiotic. The concentration of the drug in her bloodstream is measured at 5 mg/L.

      What is the volume of distribution of this drug?

      Your Answer: 40 L

      Explanation:

      Volume of Distribution

      The volume of distribution is a measure of the volume required to achieve a specific concentration of a drug in the plasma. For instance, if 200 mg of a drug is administered and the concentration in the plasma is 5 mg/L, this is equivalent to dissolving the drug in 40 L of fluid. However, the volume of distribution varies depending on the drug’s properties, such as its affinity for proteins or fats. In general, a volume of distribution that is ten times greater than the average total plasma volume suggests that the drug is primarily bound to tissues or fat rather than being freely available in the plasma. This information is crucial when determining the appropriate loading doses for certain medications, particularly those used to treat epilepsy. To summarize, the volume of distribution is essential for optimizing drug dosing and ensuring effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old male patient complains of a persistent cough that has been bothering...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient complains of a persistent cough that has been bothering him for the past three months. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, which he manages with medication. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of his cough?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      ACE Inhibitors and Coughing: the Mechanism

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are known to cause coughing in almost a third of the people who use them. However, angiotensin blockers, which have similar benefits to ACE inhibitors, do not cause coughing and are often prescribed to patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. The reason behind this difference lies in the mechanism of action of these drugs. ACE inhibitors lead to the accumulation of bradykinin in the bronchial tissue, which triggers coughing. On the other hand, angiotensin blockers do not affect bradykinin levels and hence do not cause coughing. this mechanism is crucial in selecting the right medication for patients who are intolerant to ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.9
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  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old man with a history of renal impairment and severe osteoporosis has...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of renal impairment and severe osteoporosis has come in with a worsening of his chronic lower back pain. Upon examination, an L4 wedge fracture was discovered on a lumbar spine x-ray. What medication is recommended for pain management?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Medications and Renal Impairment

      When it comes to renal impairment, it is important to be cautious with certain medications. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they can worsen renal impairment. This is because renal prostaglandins, which control the rate of blood flow into the kidney, are impaired by NSAIDs. As a result, renal blood flow is reduced, exacerbating the impairment.

      On the other hand, morphine can be used in renal impairment, but it should be used with caution. While it is an effective pain reliever, its excretion is reduced in individuals with renal impairment, which can lead to a buildup of the drug in the body. Therefore, paracetamol is typically the first line of treatment for pain relief in individuals with renal impairment, with morphine used only as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.5
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  • Question 23 - Which diabetes medication is the least likely to cause weight gain? ...

    Correct

    • Which diabetes medication is the least likely to cause weight gain?

      Your Answer: Exenatide

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and its Benefits for Overweight Patients

      Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of GLP-1, a hormone released by the gut in response to food intake. This hormone triggers insulin secretion in the pancreatic beta-cells, which makes GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide effective in stimulating insulin release. Additionally, exenatide is associated with weight loss, making it a good choice for patients who are significantly overweight.

      According to NICE guidelines, exenatide should be used in patients with a BMI exceeding 35 kg/m2 or in those with significant weight-related comorbidity, even if their BMI is less than 35 kg/m2. After six months of therapy, exenatide should only be continued if the patient’s HbA1c has fallen by 11 mmol/mol and their weight has decreased by 3%.

      However, exenatide does have some side effects, including nausea and vomiting. It should also be avoided in patients with renal failure, impaired liver function, and gastroparesis. On the other hand, other diabetes medications like gliptins, glitazones, and sulphonylureas are associated with significant weight gain, while repaglinide may result in minimal or no weight gain.

      Overall, exenatide is a promising option for overweight patients with diabetes, as it not only stimulates insulin release but also promotes weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.6
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old patient who had a kidney transplant two years ago is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient who had a kidney transplant two years ago is currently taking ciclosporin. However, due to a manufacturing issue, the patient cannot obtain their prescribed medication, Sandimmune, for the next five days. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Switch him to another formulation and monitor his renal function, ciclosporin level and blood pressure whilst the changeover is being made

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant used to prevent graft rejection and treat various conditions. Different formulations have varying pharmacokinetic properties, so it is important to prescribe by brand and monitor patients closely when switching formulations. Consultation with a renal unit is recommended before switching therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - β-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like propranolol, are commonly prescribed in medical practice. In which...

    Correct

    • β-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like propranolol, are commonly prescribed in medical practice. In which of the following conditions are β-adrenergic receptor antagonists not recommended for use in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers and Asthma

      Beta blockers are commonly used to treat various cardiovascular diseases due to their negative chronotropic and inotropic effects. However, they can be detrimental to individuals with asthma. This is because beta blockers antagonize beta-2 receptors, which can lead to bronchoconstriction and trigger asthma attacks. As a result, beta blockers are not recommended as a treatment for asthma. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential adverse effect and to consider alternative medications for patients with asthma who require cardiovascular treatment. Proper management of both conditions is crucial to ensure optimal health outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of sudden chest pain and is being evaluated...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of sudden chest pain and is being evaluated for acute coronary syndrome. Upon fasting, his serum cholesterol level was found to be 7.1 mmol/L (<5.2). What is the best initial course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy for Hypercholesterolemia in Acute Coronary Syndrome

      Hypercholesterolemia is a common condition in patients with acute coronary syndrome. The initial treatment approach for such patients is statin therapy, which includes drugs like simvastatin, atorvastatin, and rosuvastatin. Statins have been proven to reduce mortality in both primary and secondary prevention studies. The target cholesterol concentration for patients with hypercholesterolemia and acute coronary syndrome is less than 5 mmol/L.

      According to NICE guidance, statins should be used more widely in conjunction with a QRISK2 score to stratify risk. This will help prevent cardiovascular disease and improve patient outcomes. The guidance recommends that statins be used in patients with a 10% or greater risk of developing cardiovascular disease within the next 10 years. By using statins in conjunction with risk stratification, healthcare professionals can provide more targeted and effective treatment for patients with hypercholesterolemia and acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - You are administering lidocaine to numb the skin of a young patient before...

    Incorrect

    • You are administering lidocaine to numb the skin of a young patient before a minor procedure. What is a true statement about this medication?

      Your Answer: Can be safely administered with adrenaline in ring blocks

      Correct Answer: Can be used to treat ventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine: Characteristics and Uses

      Lidocaine is a medication that is quickly broken down by the liver, making it unsuitable for oral administration. Its effects last for only 20 minutes, but this can be extended to approximately 90 minutes when combined with the vasoconstrictor adrenaline. However, this combination should not be used in areas where there is a risk of ischaemia.

      Lidocaine is a potent antiarrhythmic drug that falls under class I, as it prolongs the action potential. It can be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, although it is not included in the ALS algorithm and should only be administered by a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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