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Question 1
Correct
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Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If so, which one is it from the list provided?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases: What You Need to Know
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a crucial aspect of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. For meningococcus, rifampicin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin can be used for prophylaxis, along with vaccination for group C. Rabies can be prevented through active and passive immunization after exposure. Combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce the incidence of HIV infection after needlestick injuries. Measles vaccine can prevent an attack if given within 3 days of contact, and immunoglobulin can be used if the vaccine cannot be given. Unfortunately, there is no effective PEP for HCV, but healthcare workers should be tested and referred for specialist care if they seroconvert. It is essential for healthcare workers to be aware of PEP options to protect themselves and their patients from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents
Explanation:Head Lice Treatment and Prevention
Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.
Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.
If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.
Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.
What medication should she avoid in the future?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya. Six weeks after his return, he visits his GP with complaints of malaise, headaches, and night sweats. During the examination, the doctor observes a symmetrical erythematous macular rash on his trunk and limbs along with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute HIV infection
Explanation:Understanding HIV Seroconversion
HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.
Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His father is worried because two days ago he had been playing in the same room as a child who was subsequently diagnosed with Chickenpox.
He is completely asymptomatic and has no other significant illnesses or allergies. His father declined the varicella vaccine when he was a baby having assumed that it could not be given because one of his grandparents had a history of shingles and a distant relative was undergoing investigation for possible autoimmune disease.
How would you handle this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure that no further action necessary
Explanation:Measles and MMR Vaccination Guidelines
Significant contact with measles is defined as being in the same room as an infected individual for 15 minutes or more. If an individual has not been fully immunised or has not previously had laboratory confirmed measles, it is assumed that they lack immunity. This is important to note for children who have not received the MMR vaccination for no good reason, as family history of epilepsy or autism is not a contraindication.
Ideally, the MMR vaccine should be given within three days of contact with a possible case of measles. A repeat MMR vaccine should be given after at least a month. The first dose of MMR should be given between 12 and 13 months of age, within a month of the first birthday. Immunisation before one year of age provides earlier protection in localities where the risk of measles is higher, but residual maternal antibodies may reduce the response rate to the vaccine. The optimal age chosen for scheduling children is therefore a compromise between risk of disease and level of protection.
If a dose of MMR is given before the first birthday, either because of travel to an endemic country or because of a local outbreak, then this dose should be ignored, and two further doses given at the recommended times between 12 and 13 months of age and at three years four months to five years of age. During the 2012-13 outbreak in Wales, a recommendation was made about the possibility of withdrawal from educational establishments for unvaccinated close contacts.
It is important to follow these guidelines to prevent the spread of measles and protect individuals who may be at risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to have abnormal liver function tests. His hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test is reported as positive.
What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has either acute hepatitis B infection or one of the chronic forms of hepatitis B
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B: Surface Antigen and Antibodies
The hepatitis B virus is surrounded by a coating called the surface antigen (HBsAg). If this antigen is present, it indicates a hepatitis B infection, which can be either acute or chronic. The infected person can also infect others. It usually takes 4-12 weeks for HBsAg to appear after infection. When the surface antigens disappear and surface antibodies (anti-HBs) appear, the infection is considered cleared, which typically happens within 4 months of symptoms appearing. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either an infection or immunization. Chronic hepatitis B is diagnosed when HBsAg is present for more than 6 months. Patients with chronic active hepatitis B have persistent liver inflammation and are at risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer. Patients with the inactive form usually remain asymptomatic and have less risk of complications but remain infectious. Understanding the role of surface antigen and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man, born and raised in the UK, has been diagnosed with HIV. He has no prior medical history and is currently in good health. When is the appropriate time to initiate antiretroviral therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At the time of diagnosis
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision of his right eye. On examination there is conjunctival injection and dendritic ulceration is seen on his cornea.
Select from the list the single most appropriate topical agent for the treatment of this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Herpes Simplex Infection of the Eye: Diagnosis and Treatment
Patients suspected of having a herpes simplex infection of the eye should be referred to the local ophthalmology team on the same day. Steroid eye preparations should not be initiated in the primary care setting. If there is evidence of epithelial keratitis, topical antiviral treatment is recommended, such as aciclovir five times a day until at least 3 days after complete healing. Antibacterial ointment may prevent secondary infection of the lesions. To diagnose the dendritic ulcer, fluorescein is a topical stain used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week history of fever, right sided abdominal pain and general malaise. She has no significant past medical history and has recently travelled to South America, returning 4 weeks ago. During examination, Sarah is found to be pyrexial. She complains of pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen and there is hepatomegaly.
Upon further questioning, Sarah states that she is not sexually active and denies any history of intravenous drug use. Liver function tests reveal a significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP). A full liver screen confirms the diagnosis.
Sarah is prescribed medication for symptomatic management and she makes a full recovery within 3 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Acute hepatitis A is characterized by symptoms similar to those of other forms of acute viral hepatitis, including flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, and abnormal liver function tests. It is difficult to differentiate hepatitis A from other forms of viral hepatitis based on medical history, physical examination, or routine laboratory tests. However, a history of exposure or risk factors, such as travel to regions with high prevalence, can increase suspicion. Unlike hepatitis C and D, which are transmitted through blood, hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are working in a rural GP surgery in Scotland and you have an urgent appointment with an eight-year-old boy and his mother. The child has a history of mild asthma and flexural eczema and his mother is concerned because they went out walking yesterday and this morning she found a tick attached to his upper arm. The child appears well and all observations are normal. The tick has been removed, leaving a puncture mark. The mother is worried about Lyme disease and asks for a prescription. What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No antibiotics necessary - watchful waiting
Explanation:According to the 2018 NICE Guidance, it is not necessary to administer prophylactic antibiotics to individuals who have been bitten by a tick and show no symptoms of Lyme disease. Treatment should only be given if the patient develops erythema migrans or other symptoms associated with the disease. It is important to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them on what symptoms to watch out for.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.
Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old otherwise healthy man comes to his General Practitioner with a 4-day history of a sore throat. It is painful to swallow but he is able to maintain his fluid intake. He is afebrile and has a mild cough. On examination, his tonsils are severely inflamed bilaterally but there is no exudate. There is tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An antibiotic is not indicated
Explanation:Antibiotic Decision Making in a Case of Tonsillitis
Explanation:
When it comes to treating tonsillitis, the decision to prescribe antibiotics should be based on the severity of the infection and the presence of certain criteria. The Centor criteria, which include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough, can help determine if streptococcal infection is present. A FeverPAIN score can also be used to assess the severity of tonsillitis.
In the case of an otherwise healthy, afebrile patient with a Centor score of one for lymphadenopathy and a FeverPAIN score of one for severe tonsil inflammation, antibiotics are not indicated. However, if the condition doesn’t improve or worsens, a reassessment should be offered.
Admission to the hospital for fluids is not necessary if the patient is able to maintain fluid intake despite painful swallowing and shows no other signs of systemic illness.
If antibiotics are deemed necessary, a delayed prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin may be given if the FeverPAIN score is two or three. Clarithromycin may be prescribed as a second-line option if there is a true penicillin allergy and group A streptococcus is suspected as the cause, based on a FeverPAIN score of four or five or Centor score of three or four. Phenoxymethylpenicillin would be the first-line option in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You see a 28-year-old woman with painful lesions on her labia. On examination she has genital herpes.
Select the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular antiviral medication can reduce transmission to sexual partners
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms and Treatment of Herpes
Herpes is a viral infection that can cause lesions on the cervix, vulva, vagina, and prepuce. The first attack is usually the most severe, and healing can take up to 2-4 weeks in primary herpes and 10 days in recurrent attacks. Immunocompromised patients tend to experience longer and more severe attacks. However, a trial in the New England Journal of Medicine in 2004 found that daily use of valaciclovir can reduce transmission by 75% between discordant couples. It is important to understand the symptoms and treatment of herpes to manage the infection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: influenza virus
Explanation:The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population
influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intradermally
Explanation:The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.
The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.
There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of numerous dusky pink macules and papules. She became unwell 6 days ago, when her mother noticed that she had a dry cough, red eyes and a temperature. The rash started 2 days ago, appearing on her face initially, but then spreading to the trunk and limbs. She was in contact with a girl with a similar rash 2 weeks ago. There is no significant past medical history. She had not received all her childhood immunisations because of parental concerns regarding vaccine safety.
Select the single most likely cause of her rash.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles virus
Explanation:Differentiating Measles from Other Childhood Illnesses
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that typically presents with a prodrome of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, conjunctivitis, and fever before the appearance of a rash. Koplik’s spots may also be present on the buccal mucosa. However, other childhood illnesses can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Rubella, for example, has a longer incubation period and is typically milder with no significant respiratory symptoms. Parvovirus B19 can mimic rubella with its slapped-cheek appearance. Infectious mononucleosis may present with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy, but any rash is fine and transient. Mumps may rarely cause a rash, but other symptoms are more prominent. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these illnesses to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) after air travel for individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compression stockings have a role in reducing the risk of VTE in moderate or high risk patients
Explanation:For patients at moderate or high risk, compression stockings are the most suitable preventative measure, with low molecular weight heparin potentially necessary for those at very high risk. Aspirin is not recommended by any current UK guidelines. Although it is sensible to maintain good hydration, there is no evidence to suggest that it effectively prevents VTE, as noted by SIGN in their guideline.
Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention
Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.
The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.
It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals
Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis vaccine to protect infants prior to their initial primary immunisation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As soon as the pregnancy is confirmed
Explanation:Pertussis Vaccination for Pregnant Women
Pregnant women are now recommended to receive a pertussis vaccination during late pregnancy, between 16-32 weeks, to protect their unborn infants against pertussis. Antibody levels in adults reach their peak two weeks after the booster but then significantly decline. Therefore, immunizations given early in pregnancy would likely be less effective and could be falsely associated with any adverse effects identified at the anomaly scan. Additionally, transplacental antibody transfer is minimal after 34 weeks of pregnancy. Immunization after 16 weeks would also provide protection to infants born prematurely who may be particularly vulnerable. The vaccine can be offered up until labor, but just prior to labor is not the optimal time as antibody levels peak at two weeks after the booster. It is important for pregnant women to consider receiving the pertussis vaccine to protect their unborn infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who is in the second trimester of her pregnancy. She presents to you with a red, hot swelling of her right big toe. She suspects that she may have been bitten by an insect in that area last week. She reports that the redness has started to spread onto the dorsum of her right foot over the past few days.
Sarah is stable hemodynamically and has no fever. Her right big toe has a cellulitic appearance. You observe that she has an allergy to penicillin.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of oral erythromycin
Explanation:If a patient is allergic to penicillin, erythromycin is the preferred antibiotic for treating cellulitis during pregnancy. Clarithromycin, another macrolide antibiotic, is the alternative choice for penicillin-allergic patients, but it should be avoided during pregnancy.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks after returning from his elective in South America. He reports experiencing ongoing watery diarrhea and has observed some weight loss. Despite submitting a stool sample, the results come back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Common Cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea
Giardiasis is a type of infection caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia, which is usually acquired from contaminated water supplies. The infection is spread through the faecal-oral route and typically causes watery diarrhoea. Unlike other types of diarrhoea, giardiasis doesn’t cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea.
Diagnosing giardiasis can be difficult, even when looking for cysts in stool cultures, which are frequently negative. As a result, repetitive samples are often required. Chronic infection can lead to malabsorption, and a duodenal biopsy can demonstrate partial villous atrophy. The infection is treated with metronidazole.
Traveller’s diarrhoea in a previously healthy person with a negative stool sample is a typical presentation of giardiasis. While Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis can also present in this way, even without abdominal pain or bloody diarrhoea, the travel history makes giardiasis a much more likely diagnosis. Amoebic dysentery and shigellosis, on the other hand, typically cause profuse, bloody diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections
Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal Candidiasis in HIV Patients
Oesophageal candidiasis is a prevalent cause of oesophagitis in individuals with HIV. It is commonly observed in patients with a CD4 count below 100. The most common symptoms include difficulty swallowing and painful swallowing. The first-line treatments for this condition are fluconazole and itraconazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A local daycare center has reported a recent outbreak of norovirus. The director of the center has reached out to your pediatric clinic for information on the illness and guidance on minimizing the risk of transmission.
What is the best recommendation for preventing the spread of this virus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Handwashing with soaps and warm water before and after contact with those infected with norovirus
Explanation:Handwashing with soap and warm water before and after contact with those infected with norovirus is the most effective way to prevent its spread, while alcohol gels are less effective. Antivirals have no role in treating norovirus, which is not a blood-borne virus and is commonly spread through contaminated food or drinks, touching contaminated surfaces or objects, or direct contact with an infected person. Staff who have had norovirus must stay away from work for at least 48 hours after their symptoms have stopped.
Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important in limiting transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management. Other differential diagnoses include rotavirus, E. coli, and Salmonella infections, each with their own distinguishing features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her urine turning orange since commencing treatment. Which medication is causing this change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across Peru. He complains of sudden onset fever, headache, joint pains, and rash all over his body. He has no pre-existing medical conditions and is not taking any medication.
During examination, he has a petechial rash on his limbs. There are no signs of meningism or focal neurology.
Hemoglobin: 100 g/l
Platelets: 80 * 109/l
White blood cells: 4.0 * 109/l
Eosinophils: 0.4 * 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dengue fever
Explanation:A returning traveler experiencing retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely suffering from dengue fever. This disease is commonly found in South America and Southeast Asia and is characterized by sudden onset fever and joint pain, as well as low platelet counts and bleeding in severe cases. Chagas disease, which is also found in this region, typically presents with mild symptoms and elevated eosinophil levels. Viral hepatitis and malaria are less probable causes of a petechial rash.
Understanding Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.
Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of intermittent diarrhoea, fever (39 oC), headache and a non-productive cough. His pulse is 70 and regular, and his spleen is palpable.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Typhoid
Explanation:Typhoid Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications
Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella enterica, specifically S typhi and S paratyphi. It is primarily spread through contaminated food and drink, and is most commonly reported in the UK among individuals who have traveled to the Indian sub-continent. Symptoms typically appear 10-20 days after exposure and may include diarrhea, fever, headaches, cough, and constipation. Other signs may include Rose spots, a relative bradycardia, and eye complications.
As the infection progresses, patients may experience sustained pyrexia, abdominal distension, and splenomegaly. By the third week, weight loss and delirium may occur, along with a liquid, green-yellow pea soup diarrhea. In severe cases, death can result from toxaemia, myocarditis, intestinal hemorrhage, or gut perforation.
It is important to consider other mosquito-borne illnesses, such as dengue fever and malaria, in the differential diagnosis of febrile patients returning from endemic areas. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing typhoid fever and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small, painful ulcers on the glans penis and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Genital Herpes Simplex Virus Infection from Other Genital Lesions
Primary genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection caused by HSV type 2 is characterized by typical lesions. Unlike syphilis, which presents with a small, painless papule that quickly forms an ulcer, HSV lesions are usually painful and may be accompanied by flu-like symptoms. Enlarged lymph nodes are also common but are usually painful in HSV infection. In herpes zoster, vesiculation and ulceration occur in a dermatomal distribution, while scabies presents with a generalised itch and itchy nodules on the genitalia. Impetigo lesions are painless, superficial, and crusted or eroded, unlike the painful and often multiple lesions seen in primary genital HSV infection. Therefore, a careful examination and history-taking are essential to differentiate primary genital HSV infection from other genital lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brucella serology
Explanation:The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.
Understanding Brucellosis
Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.
Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.
Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.
Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old worker in a care home returns from a camping trip with diarrhoea. A stool specimen is sent which is positive for Campylobacter.
Select the single correct statement regarding management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should stay off work until 48 hours after the diarrhoea has settled
Explanation:Campylobacter: Causes, Management, and Prevention
Campylobacter is the most commonly reported bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in England and Wales. The disease is usually contracted from animals farmed for meat and poultry, but person-to-person transmission can also occur due to poor personal hygiene. The primary management approach is rehydration. Infected healthcare workers or food handlers should not work, and antibiotics may be prescribed to reduce the duration of excretion and manage severe or prolonged illness, especially in pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals. Erythromycin and azithromycin are the most effective antibiotics for treating Campylobacter. Anti-motility drugs should not be used routinely, but may be considered for adults in special circumstances. The disease is typically self-limiting, and cultures are rarely positive after two weeks. For work or school, individuals should be excluded for 48 hours from the last episode of diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.
Explanation:Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:
1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.
Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with COPD and currently receives the yearly flu shot. What should be done regarding the pneumococcal vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be given it as a one-off
Explanation:Individuals who have asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require a booster every 5 years, while most adults only need one dose.
The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.
The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.
Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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The standard immunisation schedule in infancy would prevent which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis
Explanation:Immunisation Policies for Common Diseases
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues, potentially leading to upper respiratory tract obstruction. The most common cause is Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), but immunisation against Hib has significantly reduced its incidence in countries where it is included in routine vaccination schedules.
Cervical carcinoma, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), can be prevented through immunisation, which is offered to 12-year-old girls.
A vaccine for Chickenpox is available and recommended for healthcare workers who may come into contact with the disease if they are not immune.
Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for travellers, patients with chronic liver disease, haemophilia patients who receive plasma-derived clotting factors, intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, contacts of hepatitis A cases, and those with occupational risk.
Tuberculosis (TB) immunisation policies are based on risk. BCG is not part of the standard schedule, but it is offered to infants living in areas with a significant annual incidence of TB or born into families with a history of TB. It is also offered to infants and children with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a significant annual incidence of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and lethargic, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history but admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals bi-basal consolidation, and her blood tests show the following results:
- White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
- Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
- C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
- Sodium: 125 mmol/l
- Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
- Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l
Which pathogen is responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia
Explanation:Legionella is often characterized by flu-like symptoms, a dry cough, relative bradycardia, and confusion, with blood tests indicating hyponatremia and abnormal liver function. Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia are commonly associated with communal water supplies, as hinted at in the question’s reference to a recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia often results in bi-basal pneumonia. The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.
Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.
Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak
Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.
Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.
It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her right arm following a hike in the woods. She reports feeling fine and there is no apparent rash upon inspection.
What is the optimal method for removing the tick?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fine-tipped tweezers
Explanation:To effectively remove a tick, it is best to use fine-tipped tweezers. The tick should be grasped as close to the skin as possible and pulled upwards with firm pressure. It is important to avoid using blunt-nose tweezers, petroleum jelly, or heat from a hot match as these methods can increase the risk of infection or cause the tick to regurgitate into the bite. After removal, the area should be thoroughly cleaned.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is HIV positive and takes antiretroviral therapy. What should she be offered annually in primary care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options listed
Explanation:Managing HIV in Primary Care: Guidelines and Considerations
Patients with HIV are at an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and antiretroviral therapy can further increase the risk of diabetes and dyslipidaemia. Women with HIV are also more susceptible to human papillomavirus-related diseases and should undergo annual cervical screening. To ensure good sexual health and maintain protective sexual behavior, patients should have access to staff trained to carry out a sexual history and sexual health assessment, as well as counseling and support. Additionally, patients should be offered a full sexual health screen annually. Despite concerns about contraindications, the influenza vaccine is safe for patients with HIV as it is an inactivated virus. These guidelines aim to support primary care teams in managing the unique considerations and risks associated with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cough
Explanation:Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus
It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children on long-term steroids should be treated with aciclovir at the onset of the rash
Explanation:Treatment and Prevention of Varicella Infections in Different Populations
Varicella, commonly known as Chickenpox, is a viral infection that primarily affects children. In healthy children, treatment is not necessary unless they are systemically unwell, which may indicate a bacterial infection. However, immunocompromised individuals should be treated at the first signs of disease.
For healthy individuals at increased risk of severe varicella infections, such as those older than 14 years, oral acyclovir may be considered. This medication, taken at a dose of 800 mg five times a day for seven days, can reduce the duration of lesions and other symptoms.
Pregnant women who are not immune to varicella are at risk of passing the infection to their children. The infectivity period lasts from a few days before the onset of lesions until the lesions crust over. School exclusion is typically required for five days.
Overall, understanding the appropriate treatment and prevention measures for varicella infections in different populations is crucial for managing this common childhood illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A mother attends with her 4-year-old son and is anxious because she is going away for a week’s holiday on the next day. She wonders how soon her son will develop symptoms.
Select from the list the option within which the incubation period for Chickenpox lies.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medium (7-21 days)
Explanation:Understanding Incubation Periods and Latent Periods in Diseases
Incubation period refers to the time between exposure to a pathogenic organism and the onset of symptoms. This period can range from minutes to even 30 years, depending on the disease. Latent period, on the other hand, is the time from infection to infectiousness. While the two terms may be synonymous, a distinction is sometimes made between them.
Examples of diseases with short incubation periods include norovirus, influenza, and scarlet fever. Diseases with medium incubation periods include roseola, measles, and pertussis. Mumps, erythema infectiosum, and rubella have long incubation periods, while infectious mononucleosis and hepatitis A have extra-long incubation periods. Hepatitis B has an incubation period greater than six weeks.
Clinical latency occurs in diseases like AIDS, where people infected with HIV may not show any symptoms or signs of AIDS despite having a large viral load. It is important to understand incubation and latent periods in diseases to prevent their spread and manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure. She has been researching her condition online and wants to know which vaccinations she needs due to her diagnosis. Samantha also has hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
What vaccinations would you suggest for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should receive annual influenza vaccination as part of their overall lifestyle approach. Additionally, those with chronic respiratory and heart conditions, such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure, should receive both annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccinations. Meningococcal vaccination is not typically administered to heart failure patients, but is recommended for those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, including those with sickle cell and coeliac disease, as well as those with complement disorder. For patients with splenic dysfunction and chronic kidney disease, a pneumococcal booster should be given every 5 years after the initial dose.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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The school nurse is preparing for a visit from the health inspector tomorrow. She seeks guidance on the appropriate temperature range (in Celsius) for storing vaccines in the fridge. What is the standard temperature range that vaccines should be stored at, unless otherwise stated by the manufacturer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: +2C to +8C
Explanation:Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)
Explanation:Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment
Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fever, dry cough, chest pain and worsening shortness of breath. He experienced a mild headache, myalgia and malaise the day before. He has been healthy in recent weeks and works as an air conditioning system installer and repairer. There are no known underlying medical conditions. What is the most probable causative organism for this infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella species
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Pneumonia: A Case Study
Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens. In this case study, the patient presents with symptoms of high fever, chills, rigours, and a cough. To determine the cause of the pneumonia, different pathogens are considered.
Legionella species is a possible cause, as it is commonly found in recirculating water systems and can be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated water droplets. However, the patient doesn’t have any known exposure to such systems.
Staphylococcus aureus is another potential cause, but the patient doesn’t have any risk factors for staphylococcal pneumonia, which typically occurs in immunosuppressed individuals or intravenous drug users.
Chlamydia psittaci is unlikely, as the patient has not been exposed to birds, which is a common source of infection.
Mycoplasma spp. is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but the patient’s symptoms came on acutely, whereas mycoplasma pneumonia typically has a gradual onset.
Pneumocystis jirovecii is also unlikely, as it is typically seen in immunosuppressed patients with a history of HIV.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, Legionella species is a possible cause of pneumonia, but further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. He is asymptomatic and has no notable medical history. His CD4 count is currently at 290 cells/µL. What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As soon as HIV is diagnosed
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV.
Delaying treatment until symptoms or AIDS-defining illnesses occur is not recommended, as it can lead to increased morbidity and mortality.
The BNF recommends offering antiretroviral treatment to all HIV-positive patients, regardless of their CD4 count.
A CD4 count below 200 cells/µL indicates progression to AIDS, and a count below 50 cells/µL may result in poor response to antiretroviral therapy.
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college with suspected meningitis. She complained of a severe headache, fever, and vomiting that had been getting worse for the past two days. After a lumbar puncture, it was confirmed that she has a positive culture for Neisseria meningitidis.
What antibiotic should be prescribed for her college roommates?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis typically involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. Amoxicillin is primarily used in the treatment of meningitis in young children who are at a higher risk for listeria meningitis. In emergency situations, benzylpenicillin is the preferred treatment for meningitis, but it is not used for prophylaxis. Cephalosporins, such as cefalexin, are typically used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis rather than for prophylaxis.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simple bacterial conjunctivitis commonly resolves without treatment
Explanation:Managing Conjunctivitis in Children: Antibiotics Not Always Necessary
As of April 2010, ophthalmia neonatorum is no longer a notifiable disease. A randomized controlled trial published in the Lancet in 2005 compared placebo with chloramphenicol drops in children with conjunctivitis and concluded that prescribing antibiotic drops for conjunctivitis in children should be stopped. Instead, children should be advised to keep the eye clean and return for review if no better after one week. The Health Professionals Alliance’s guidance on infection control in schools and other childcare settings doesn’t recommend any time away for children with conjunctivitis. Simple bacterial conjunctivitis usually lasts 10-14 days and is self-limiting. A review if no better at one week to exclude corneal involvement or other complications is recommended. Adenoviral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and often rapidly becomes bilateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.
What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old sewage worker complains of feeling unwell and having a fever for the past week. What symptom would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of leptospirosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Productive cough
Explanation:Leptospirosis can lead to pulmonary complications, particularly in cases of severe and advanced disease. These complications may include acute respiratory distress syndrome or pulmonary haemorrhage. The RCGP Curriculum for 2019 includes zoonotic diseases such as brucellosis and leptospirosis in its Knowledge and Skills guide.
Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases
Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.
Which vaccines should this man avoid due to his medical history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:BCG and other live attenuated vaccines should not be administered to HIV positive patients. Similarly, immunocompromised individuals should avoid receiving live attenuated vaccines such as Yellow fever, Oral polio, Intranasal influenza, Varicella, and Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.
Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min
Explanation:In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.
Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
Select ONE choice only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure
Explanation:HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK
The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of feeling constantly fatigued for the past 3 months. She has a history of intravenous drug use and routine testing reveals abnormal liver enzyme tests, including a significant increase in alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Although she is not jaundiced, the GP suspects that she may be suffering from acute hepatitis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be positive in this patient if this suspicion is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C antibody
Explanation:Diagnosing Hepatitis C: Understanding the Clinical Features and Testing Methods
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that often goes undetected due to the lack of specific symptoms. Fatigue, a common symptom, is not enough to suspect hepatitis C unless other risk factors are present. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate HCV, but a positive serology test is needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test is usually positive three months after exposure, but may take up to nine months. HCV RNA testing is used to confirm ongoing infection, and negative results should be repeated after six months. Chronic infection is common in HCV, affecting about 80% of those infected.
Other viral infections, such as hepatitis B and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), may also cause liver abnormalities. Jaundice is more common in hepatitis B, while EBV typically causes mild elevation of serum transaminases. Testing for IgM and IgG antibodies can help diagnose acute or past infections. Enzyme levels, such as alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, may also be used to differentiate between viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.
What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy
Explanation:Flying while pregnant with twins
When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.
Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasal carriage of staphylococci
Explanation:Understanding Boils: Causes, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options
Boils, also known as furuncles, are a common skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. They typically occur in adolescents and young adults, particularly in males. Recurrent infections may be caused by persistent nasal carriage of the bacteria. While the link between diabetes and multiple boils is unclear, individuals with diabetes may experience more extensive boils. Other risk factors include obesity, immunosuppression, skin diseases, poor hygiene, and exposure to chemicals or oils.
To prevent recurrent infections, swabs should be taken from various sites to identify the source of the bacteria. If Panton-Valentine leukocidin Staphylococcus aureus (PVL-SA) or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected, specialist advice should be sought. Nasal carriage of staphylococci can be treated with a chlorhexidine and neomycin cream, although re-colonization is common. Antiseptics can also be used to reduce bacteria on the skin.
Overall, maintaining good hygiene practices, such as daily washing and bathing in antiseptic solutions, can help prevent and treat boils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the child to take an airline flight?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 17-year-old flying back to the UK who broke his leg whilst skiing in Canada. Had a plaster cast applied 24 hours ago
Explanation:Patients should wait for 24 hours before taking short flights (< 2 hours) and 48 hours before taking longer flights after applying a plaster cast. This is necessary to avoid the possibility of air getting trapped beneath the cast. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination.
Which serological marker indicates successful hepatitis B immunisation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies
Explanation:Monitoring and Prevention of Hepatitis B through Vaccination
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can lead to chronic liver disease and cancer. Vaccination against hepatitis B is an effective way to prevent the spread of the virus. The development of protective antibodies, known as anti-HBs, is used to monitor the response to vaccination. The antibody profile, along with the results of HBsAg and HBeAg tests, can help determine the phase of HBV infection.
Initially, vaccines were derived from viral proteins in infected blood, but now recombinant HBsAg proteins are used. Vaccination strategies range from universal vaccination in infancy to targeted vaccination of high-risk individuals. In areas with high rates of infection, universal vaccine programs have already reduced the incidence of infection, carriage, and hepatocellular cancer.
Conventional three-dose immunization in adults leads to protective immunity in 90% of individuals. Passive immunization with anti-HBsAg hyperimmune globulin can provide rapid protection after exposure, such as after a needlestick injury. For children born to infected mothers, a combination of passive and active immunization is recommended. However, in some infants, chronic infection with a mutant escape virus has occurred despite vaccination.
In conclusion, monitoring and prevention of hepatitis B through vaccination is crucial in reducing the spread of the virus and preventing chronic liver disease and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, previous Clostridium difficile infection, and chronic kidney disease stage 4. Her regular medications include ramipril, amlodipine, furosemide, and aspirin. She has reported allergies to statins and co-trimoxazole. Upon urine dipstick examination, nitrites and leucocytes are detected, leading to a diagnosis of urinary tract infection. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic to initiate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:The most suitable antibiotic for this patient’s urinary tract infection is amoxicillin. According to the BNF, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are recommended as first-line treatments, while amoxicillin or a cephalosporin are considered alternatives. However, in this case, the patient is allergic to co-trimoxazole, which contains trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole, making it unsuitable. Additionally, the patient has CKD 4, which contraindicates nitrofurantoin, and cefaclor is not recommended due to its association with Clostridium difficile. Doxycycline is not a recommended treatment for UTI. Therefore, amoxicillin is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.
For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethambutol
Explanation:The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A father comes to see you for some advice regarding immunisation of his toddler son who is HIV positive. He is not sure if his son is able to have the usual routine childhood immunisations.
You review his clinical record and discuss things further. The child is well at present with no clinical or biochemical evidence of immunosuppression.
What do you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should only receive 'inactivated' vaccines and 'live' vaccines are absolutely contraindicated
Explanation:Immunisation for HIV-positive patients
Immunisation is a crucial aspect of managing HIV-positive patients. Inactivated vaccines are safe to administer as they pose no risk of infection. However, the response to the vaccine may not be as effective as in immunocompetent individuals. Live vaccines carry a risk of infection, and therefore, certain restrictions apply. For instance, the MMR vaccine is a live vaccine that requires an assessment of immune status before administration. The Department of Health recommends that HIV-positive individuals receive the MMR vaccine according to national guidelines, provided they do not have severe immunosuppression. However, for children under 12, CD4 counts may not be an accurate assessment of immune status, and expert assessment is advised. In conclusion, routine immunisations can be safely given to HIV-positive individuals without evidence of immunosuppression, but specialist advice should be sought to clarify this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated
Explanation:Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.
Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.
For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming trip to Vietnam. He will be visiting coastal tourist spots as well as traveling inland. What is the most suitable medication to prevent malaria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atovaquone + proguanil
Explanation:Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while backpacking abroad. He wants to get tested for HIV and hepatitis B and C, but you advise him that the tests may not show any infection yet. When should he return for an HIV blood test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:It is recommended to conduct HIV testing in asymptomatic patients 4 weeks after a potential exposure. This is the optimal time frame for detecting most infections through tests for antibodies and p24 antigen. Additionally, it may be beneficial to perform an HIV test upon presentation in case of a prior infection (although 1 week may be too soon for detection), and a follow-up test at 12 weeks should be offered to confirm the absence of infection.
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell on the plane, complaining of headache, loss of appetite and sweats. Her temperature was 39.5°C 2 days ago; however, it is now normal.
Select the most appropriate investigation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeated thick and thin blood smears
Explanation:Malaria: Diagnosis and Management
Malaria is a febrile illness caused by Plasmodium species, which can lead to periodic febrile paroxysms every 48 or 72 hours, with asymptomatic intervals and a tendency to relapse. The symptoms and signs of malaria are nonspecific, making it difficult to diagnose. Therefore, it is important to exclude malaria by conducting repeated thick and thin blood smears in patients with acute fever and a history of exposure. If the patient is severely ill or symptoms persist, a therapeutic trial of antimalarial chemotherapy should not be delayed. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a painful, red right eye, blurred vision, and photophobia. Vesicles are observed at the lid margins and fluorescein staining reveals a dendritic ulcer. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex
Explanation:Eye Infections: Differentiating Herpes Simplex from Other Causes
When it comes to eye infections, it’s important to differentiate between different causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. In the case of a man with features of herpes simplex eye infection, including keratitis and ulceration, it’s important to rule out other possibilities. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is more common in older patients and presents with more widespread vesicles. Adenovirus, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumoniae can all cause conjunctivitis, but do not typically present with the same symptoms as herpes simplex. It’s important to note that the absence of a dendritic ulcer doesn’t necessarily rule out a diagnosis of corneal herpes simplex, and referral should be considered if the presentation is otherwise suspicious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in to the surgery having become progressively more ill over a few hours. She is febrile, looks unwell, is pale with cold extremities, tachypnoeic and complains of leg pain. She keeps asking for water but drinks very little. She has had some diarrhoea and vomited once.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcal disease
Explanation:Early Diagnosis of Meningococcal Disease: Importance of nonspecific Features
Meningococcal disease is a severe bacterial infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Although it is a common commensal of the nasopharynx, it is also the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood. The disease can present as bacterial meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.
A recent study of children with meningococcal disease found that classical signs such as haemorrhagic rash, meningism, and impaired consciousness did not appear until 13-22 hours after onset. However, nonspecific features such as leg pain, cold hands and feet, abnormal skin colour, breathing difficulty, and thirst appeared much earlier, with a median onset of 7-12 hours.
These nonspecific features are crucial for early diagnosis and may allow for earlier initiation of life-saving treatment. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be aware of these early symptoms and consider meningococcal disease as a potential diagnosis in children presenting with these features. Early recognition and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for children with meningococcal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have hepatitis B. The nurse has a documented full history of hepatitis B vaccination and was known to be a responder. What is the most suitable course of action to minimize the risk of acquiring hepatitis B?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give hepatitis B vaccine booster
Explanation:Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis
Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety
Explanation:Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine
Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.
Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.
It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile, restless and has excessive drooling from the mouth. Drinking and eating are painful and his breath smells foul. His gums are swollen and red and he has ulcers on the tongue, throat, palate and insides of the cheeks and a few vesicles and erosions on the lips.
Which of the following is the most likely infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Explanation:Herpes Simplex Virus and Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Comparison
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that can cause cold sores on the face (type 1) or genital infections (type 2). Primary type 1 infection is usually mild or subclinical, but can cause herpetic gingivostomatitis, which is the most common clinical manifestation of the infection. After the initial infection, the virus remains latent in nerve cell ganglia and can be reactivated by various stimuli, resulting in a recurrence of symptoms and shedding of the virus.
In contrast, hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A virus and is usually a minor illness with mouth ulcers and vesicles on the hands and feet. While the mouth may be sore, it is not typically as severe as a herpes simplex infection.
Overall, understanding the differences between these two viral infections can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her
Explanation:Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers
Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old office worker has come to the clinic with a painful swollen face that has developed over 24 hours. He is particularly swollen in the parotid area on the left. He has a fever of 38.2oC. He also has malaise, headache and has lost his appetite.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Differential Diagnosis
Mumps is a viral infection that is rare in vaccinated individuals but can affect those who have not been vaccinated or exposed to the virus. The onset of mumps can be sudden, and one-third of cases present with unilateral parotitis. Unlike parotid adenomas, which develop slowly, mumps is characterized by acute inflammation of the parotid gland. Glandular fever, on the other hand, typically affects the neck glands and is often accompanied by a sore throat. In children, parvovirus can cause slapped cheek syndrome, which is characterized by nonspecific viral symptoms followed by the appearance of firm red cheeks a few days later. Sialadenosis, a generalized swelling of the glands, is associated with hypertrophy of the acinar component of the gland and is commonly seen in individuals with systemic diseases such as Sjogren syndrome. Complications of mumps can include epididymo-orchitis, viral meningitis, pancreatitis, and, in rare cases, myocarditis. It is important to differentiate mumps from other conditions with similar symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from a patient who is known to be HIV positive. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have influenza-like symptoms at the start of the influenza season. She has no chronic disease and no symptoms of influenza. The residents have not yet received seasonal influenza immunisation.
What is the single most suitable immediate prophylactic measure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oseltamivir
Explanation:Treatment and Prevention of influenza: A Summary of NICE Recommendations
influenza is best prevented through vaccination, but in cases where the protective response is not quick enough, antiviral medications such as oseltamivir and zanamivir can be effective. These medications work by inhibiting viral neuraminidase and reducing the replication of influenza A and B viruses. They are most effective when started within a few hours of symptom onset and can reduce the duration of symptoms by about 1-1.5 days in otherwise healthy individuals.
Oseltamivir and zanamivir are also recommended for at-risk patients, including the elderly and those with chronic disease, to reduce the risk of complications from influenza. In addition, they can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis when influenza is circulating in the community or in exceptional circumstances when vaccination doesn’t cover the infecting strain.
It is important to note that amantadine is not recommended for the treatment or prevention of influenza. Overall, vaccination remains the most effective way to prevent illness from influenza, but antiviral medications can be a useful tool in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be given regarding participation in sports?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever
Explanation:Screening for splenomegaly cannot be effectively done through clinical examination alone. Additionally, individuals with glandular fever should refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.
During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.
Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.
The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.
TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.
Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.
Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.
The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).
To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since he returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. His wife is concerned because over the past 24 hours he has become more drowsy and febrile. He is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.
On examination pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.
You take some bloods which are reported the next day:
Hb 14.2 g/dl
Platelets 290 * 109/l
WBC 13.8 * 109/l
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 4.1 mmol/l
Urea 8.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 87 µmol/l
Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
ALP 29 u/l
ALT 72 u/l
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatraemia may be detected through blood tests. If the individual has recently traveled abroad, this may also indicate a potential Legionella infection.
Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.
Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who previously visited you with symptoms of vaginal discharge. A swab was taken and has confirmed a diagnosis of gonorrhoea. What recommendations would you make?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attend GUM clinic
Explanation:To manage gonorrhoea, it is now recommended to use a combination of IM ceftriaxone 500 mg and oral azithromycin 1g due to the rising resistance. It is important to ensure strict partner notification and therefore, patients are advised to attend the GUM clinic.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents four days after returning from Thailand with complaints of severe muscle ache, fever, and headache. During the examination, a widespread maculopapular rash is observed. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 160 g/l, Plt 98 *109/l, WBC 2.5 *109/l, ALT 142 iu/l, and malaria film is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dengue fever
Explanation:A returning traveller presenting with retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely to have dengue fever. The characteristic low platelet count and elevated transaminase level support this diagnosis. The 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes Fever in the returning traveller and its possible causes, such as malaria, dengue, typhoid/paratyphoid, chikungunya, and viral haemorrhagic fevers, in its Knowledge and skills guide.
Understanding Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.
Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman who confesses to occasional drug use in the past 5 months visits her primary care physician complaining of jaundice. Her screening blood tests show a hepatocellular pattern with a significant increase in transaminases. The following are her antibody results:
HBsAg +
HBeAg -
Anti-HBcAb +
Anti-HBeAb +
HCV RNA +
What is the most probable reason for her jaundice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute hepatitis B infection
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hepatitis B Infection
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms suggest that she is in the final stages of acute hepatitis B infection, with jaundice still present. Although hepatitis C infection was detected, it is usually asymptomatic until later stages of the disease. The absence of HBeAg indicates that the infection is a few months old. The presence of both anti-HBc and anti-HBe antibodies supports the diagnosis of acute hepatitis B infection. Anti-HBs antibodies, which appear around 3 months after acute infection and persist, are the last antibodies to appear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of upper left gumline pain, accompanied by a loss of appetite and a temperature of 38.2ºC. On examination, there is tenderness over the gum, and a dental abscess is suspected. Urgent referral to a dentist is recommended, along with antibiotic therapy. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Antibiotics may be necessary in cases of fever or delayed presentation to a dentist. The BNF recommends amoxicillin as the first-line treatment for dental abscesses, followed by metronidazole for more invasive dental conditions.
Since GPs have limited knowledge of dental issues, it is best for the patient to be treated by their dentist. The most effective treatment for an abscess is prompt drainage. Antibiotics are generally not recommended for healthy individuals unless there are signs of spreading infection or if the person is systemically unwell. According to NICE CKS guidelines, antibiotics should only be prescribed for severe infections (e.g. fever, lymphadenopathy, cellulitis, diffuse swelling) or for high-risk individuals (e.g. those who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or have valvular heart disease) to reduce the risk of complications.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.
For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body
Explanation:Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.
GMC Guidance on Confidentiality
Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man comes to see you with a laceration to his right lower leg. He explains that 2 hours ago he was using a sharp tool to cut wood when it slipped and hit deep into his foot.
On examination, there is a 6 cm laceration on the lateral aspect of John's right lower leg which is 4 cm deep. There is a lot of sawdust visible inside the wound.
John is unsure about his tetanus immunisation history and there is no further information about this in his records.
What is the most appropriate option to manage John's wound with regards to tetanus prophylaxis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin, unless the wound is minor and less than six hours old. In the case of Sarah, who has a tetanus-prone wound contaminated with soil, she requires treatment with human tetanus immunoglobulin. According to NICE guidelines, if a person’s immunisation status is unknown or uncertain, an immediate dose of vaccine should be given, followed by a full five-dose course if necessary to ensure future immunity. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. Waiting to confirm the tetanus immunisation history is not recommended, as tetanus prophylaxis needs to be given urgently. Advising that no tetanus prophylaxis is required is also incorrect, especially in the case of a tetanus-prone wound, which requires both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days with a low-grade fever. He has developed painful ulcers in his mouth and gums. During examination, submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection
Explanation:Primary herpes simplex virus infection is indicated by gingivostomatitis, which this man is experiencing.
The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.
Notifiable Diseases in the UK
In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a previous admission complicated by C. difficile infection, which of the following commonly prescribed medications should be potentially discontinued due to its association with an increased risk of C. difficile infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have been identified as a risk factor for C. difficile infection (CDI), with evidence suggesting that they increase the likelihood of infection more than H2 antagonists. As a result, patients with CDI or those at high risk of infection, such as those who have previously experienced CDI, should have their use of PPIs reviewed. Other factors that increase the risk of CDI include advancing age, the use of antibiotics (especially broad-spectrum antibiotics and multiple courses), inflammatory bowel disease, extended hospital stays, immunosuppression, and gastrointestinal surgery.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and profuse diarrhoea. You send a stool sample for culture and the result confirms campylobacter infection.
What is a true statement about this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is usually acquired through eating chicken
Explanation:Campylobacter: The Leading Cause of Diarrhoea in the UK
Campylobacter sp. is the primary cause of diarrhoea in the UK, with a high incidence rate. Although it usually resolves on its own within five days, it can persist for up to four weeks. In rare cases, it can lead to reactive arthritis. Treatment options include ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, erythromycin, or azithromycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man from Pakistan visits his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his feet that has been present for a week. He reports starting some new medications recently. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is revealed that he has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and hypertension.
Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Peripheral neuropathy is a well-known adverse effect of isoniazid, while paraesthesia is a rare side effect of amlodipine according to the BNF. Therefore, it is more likely that isoniazid is the cause in this case.
Common side effects of drugs:
Rifampicin – orange bodily fluids, rash, hepatotoxicity, drug interactions
Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, hepatotoxicityTuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A patient who has just returned from the Ivory Coast is experiencing cyclical fever and headache. During the examination, splenomegaly is observed. After a blood film, the patient is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax malaria. The patient, who is in his 50s, is initially treated with chloroquine and later given primaquine. What is the advantage of administering primaquine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse
Explanation:To prevent relapse in non-falciparum malaria, primaquine is administered to eliminate liver hypnozoites.
Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment
Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.
The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.
In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
Select the single correct statement regarding notification of this disease to the relevant public health authorities.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Notification can be made on clinical suspicion
Explanation:The Importance of Speed and Accuracy in Notifying Infectious Diseases
Infectious disease control relies on the prompt identification and containment of outbreaks. To achieve this, doctors are required to provide identifying information to the Proper Office of the Local Authority for patients with notifiable infectious diseases. However, laboratory staff are not currently obligated to do so. The notifications system prioritizes speed in detecting outbreaks, with accuracy of diagnosis being secondary. Salivary surveillance schemes exist for measles, mumps, and rubella, but recent data shows low incidence compared to the number of notifications submitted. Prompt and accurate notification is crucial in preventing the spread of infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cefaclor
Explanation:C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal pain. She has tiny grey-white papulovesicles and shallow ulcers with surrounding erythema, approximately 1-2 mm in diameter on her uvula, soft palate and tonsils. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxsackievirus
Explanation:Viral Causes of Sore Throat: Herpangina and Adenovirus
Herpangina is a viral infection caused by the Coxsackie A virus, which is most prevalent during the summer and autumn months. Although it primarily affects individuals under the age of 16, adults can also be affected. The virus is named after the town of Coxsackie in New York State. Fortunately, the infection is typically self-limiting.
Adenovirus is the most common viral cause of sore throat. Unlike herpangina, the degree of neck lymph node enlargement is usually minimal, and the throat may not appear red. However, the pain can be severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine
Explanation:The live vaccine for influenza is administered intranasally.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus
Explanation:There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.
Understanding Zika Virus
Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a financial analyst and drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with his friends. He has also developed a skin rash consisting of pink rings with pale centers.
Upon admission, his blood work shows:
- Sodium: 129 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
- Urea: 8.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 155 µmol/L
A chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.
Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia
Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.
Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type of chemical should be used to clean up the vomit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochlorite
Explanation:Managing Body Fluid Spillages
When it comes to managing body fluid spillages, hypochlorite is often recommended. This chlorine-based agent is typically used in granular or powder form and spread over the affected area. However, it’s important to note that chlorine-releasing agents can be hazardous if used in large volumes in confined spaces or mixed with urine. Adequate ventilation is crucial to ensure safety.
In addition to using hypochlorite, it’s recommended that staff wear personal protective equipment such as plastic aprons, gloves, masks, and eye protection when cleaning up body fluids. It’s also important to avoid using mops, as they can spread the contamination further.
Some NHS trusts recommend the use of Virkon, a multipurpose disinfectant that contains oxone, potassium peroxymonosulphate, sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate, sulphamic acid, and inorganic buffers. Virkon is believed to be effective against HIV, hepatitis, and MRSA. By following these guidelines and using appropriate disinfectants, healthcare professionals can effectively manage body fluid spillages and minimize the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion began as a small red papule and has now grown to form a blood-tinged pustule-like lesion measuring 2 cm in diameter over the course of a week. He reports some lymphadenopathy but is otherwise asymptomatic.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orf
Explanation:Common Skin Infections: Orf, Cat Scratch Disease, Ringworm, Pompholyx, and Lyme Disease
Orf, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis, is a skin infection caused by a poxvirus that is typically acquired from sheep or goats. The infection begins with a small, firm, red or reddish-blue lump that develops into a flat-topped, blood-tinged pustule or blister after an incubation period of 5-6 days. The lesion is usually 2-3 cm in diameter but can be as large as 5 cm. Although it may appear to contain pus, incising the lesion will reveal firm, red tissue underneath. Orf can also cause erythema multiforme and typically resolves within 6 weeks.
Cat scratch disease is a mild infectious disease that primarily affects children and is caused by the intracellular bacterium Bartonella henselae. Symptoms may include fever and a papule at the site of the scratch, as well as regional lymphadenopathy.
Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal infection that causes a slowly enlarging scaly lesion with central clearing. Pompholyx, on the other hand, is a type of eczema that presents with multiple vesicles on the palms and soles.
Finally, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through tick bites. It causes a slowly spreading erythematous rash at the site of the bite, accompanied by flu-like symptoms.
In summary, these common skin infections can present with a variety of symptoms and should be diagnosed and treated by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has pain and a rash made up of vesicles on an erythematous background. The rash is on the right flank and right side of the abdomen in an area corresponding to the T12 dermatome and started 3 days ago.
Select the single most suitable management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir 800 mg five times a day
Explanation:Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, can cause severe pain and complications. However, systemic antiviral treatment can reduce the severity and duration of pain, as well as viral shedding and complications. It is crucial to start treatment within 72 hours of the onset of rash and continue for 7-10 days.
Immunocompromised patients are at a higher risk of severe infection and should be treated with a parenteral antiviral drug. If the person is at a higher risk of severe shingles or complications, such as continued vesicle formation, older age, or severe pain, the drug can be started up to a week after the onset of symptoms.
Aciclovir is a common antiviral drug used to treat shingles, but alternatives such as valaciclovir 1000 mg three times a day or famciclovir 500 mg three times a day for 7 days can also be used. It is essential to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man seeks advice regarding his upcoming trip to Australia to visit his daughter who has emigrated. He is concerned about the risk of deep vein thrombosis as he was diagnosed with this condition approximately 40 years ago during his wife's second pregnancy. However, there are no other significant risk factors for venous thromboembolism. What is the best advice to provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wear compression stockings
Explanation:Considering her age, previous DVT, and long haul destination, this woman is at a higher risk of travel related thrombosis. Therefore, the most suitable recommendation for her would be to wear compression stockings.
Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention
Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.
The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.
It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 105
Incorrect
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Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient is most likely to have sufficient immunity after receiving the injection and not require any further injections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man with no risk factors
Explanation:Pneumococcal Infection and Vaccination: Who is at Risk and How to Protect Them
Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus, can cause a range of illnesses including otitis media, meningitis, septicaemia, and pneumonia. Those at higher risk of serious infection include children, the elderly, patients who have had their spleen removed, and those who are immunocompromised.
To prevent pneumococcal infection, vaccines are available. In the UK, a polyvalent vaccine containing purified capsular polysaccharide from each of the 23 types of pneumococcus is commonly used for individuals over the age of 5. Children under 2 years old receive a conjugate vaccine containing 13 types of pneumococcus. Both vaccines are inactivated and do not contain live organisms.
Patients with no spleen or splenic dysfunction, patients with renal disease, and children at special risk of infection should receive further vaccinations at 5-yearly intervals. All people over 65 years should receive a single dose of vaccine. Other patients at risk include those with diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, heart or liver disease, individuals having cochlear implants, patients with CSF leaks, and welders.
In summary, pneumococcal infection can be serious, but vaccines are available to protect those at risk. It is important to follow vaccination guidelines to ensure maximum protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is concerned about his risk of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) after learning that his previous partner has been diagnosed with AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome). Their last sexual encounter was two years ago, and he is currently in good health with no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer him testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody
Explanation:The standard diagnostic and screening test for HIV now includes a combination of HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody testing. Therefore, the correct option is to offer the patient testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. Monitoring for those with confirmed HIV infection involves measuring CD4 lymphocyte cell count and viral load, which is not applicable in this case as the patient doesn’t have a confirmed diagnosis. A full blood count may show features suggesting HIV, but it is not a diagnostic test for HIV. NICE recommends offering an HIV test in primary care to those who request testing, have risk factors for HIV, have another sexually transmitted infection, have an AIDS-defining condition, an indicator condition, or clinical features of HIV infection. Therefore, offering the patient testing for a full blood count or stating that testing is not required as he is asymptomatic are incorrect options.
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 107
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia and Traveller’s Diarrhoea
Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea, often accompanied by E. coli. It can also lead to intestinal malabsorption. The preferred treatment for this condition is metronidazole.
Stool microscopy is a traditional method of detecting cysts and oocysts, but it is laborious and less sensitive than the current antigen detection test. A single stool examination can identify only 50% of cases, while three stool samples can detect up to 90%.
Unlike E. coli 0157 infection, giardiasis doesn’t cause blood loss. HUS, a severe complication, is not associated with giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache, myalgia, and a worsening cough for the past 5 days. He has a non-productive cough. During the examination, you observe a rash consisting of target lesions all over his trunk. On auscultation, bronchial breathing is heard at his right base. He has recently started working as a primary school teacher. Which organism is the most probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Mycoplasma pneumonia is commonly linked to erythema multiforme, which is evident in this patient who experienced flu-like symptoms before developing pneumonia and a rash. The presence of a prodrome and erythema multiforme are typical features of Mycoplasma pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is another possible cause of pneumonia with a viral prodrome, but the distinguishing factor in this case is the presence of erythema multiforme.
Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia
Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.
Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 109
Incorrect
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You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.
What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Explanation:When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 110
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV
Explanation:HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination
Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.
Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.
In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.
The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.
In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of loose stools, nausea, and vomiting for the past 72 hours after attending a recent barbecue. He denies having bloody diarrhea and is able to tolerate oral fluids. He has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg and a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, with no signs of dehydration. He works in the finance industry.
As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action for primary care management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and encourage increased fluid intake, with oral rehydration sachets if needed. No further investigations necessary unless symptoms persist
Explanation:In most cases of acute, watery diarrhoea, stool cultures are not necessary, according to the current NICE CKS guidance. Treatment for gastroenteritis typically involves encouraging increased fluid intake and oral rehydration sachets, unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Stool specimens should only be sent if the patient is systemically unwell, has blood or pus in their stool, is immunocompromised, has a recent history of hospitalization or antibiotic treatment, has recently traveled to a foreign country outside of Western Europe, North America, Australia, or New Zealand, or if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Antibiotics are not typically recommended for healthy adults with acute diarrhoea of unknown cause.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum
Explanation:Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy
Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.
The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.
Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.
Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base in an area on the left side of the abdomen corresponding to the T10 dermatome. Lesions have been present for a week. He had similar lesions on the opposite flank 18 months before. He also has a solitary verrucous papule on the shaft of the penis. He has had multiple unprotected sexual exposures with commercial sex workers.
Select from the list the single most important investigation in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Unusual Symptoms and Recommended Tests for a Man with Recurrent Shingles and Penile Wart
The man in question is experiencing a recurrent attack of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, which is an unusual occurrence. This symptom is often associated with HIV infection, where opportunistic infections become prevalent as the disease progresses. Other symptoms that may occur include oral candida, oral hairy leukoplakia, recurrent ulcerating herpes simplex, seborrhoeic dermatitis, tinea infections, warts, and molluscum contagiosum.
To screen for syphilis, a treponemal enzyme immunoassay for immunoglobulin M (EIA IgM) test is recommended. Additionally, a full sexual health screen should be offered to the patient, along with an HIV test. It is important to note that the patient will already have varicella zoster IgG from their original Chickenpox infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.
Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management
Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.
To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.
In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic to inquire about influenza immunizations. What is the most suitable vaccination for her child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual intramuscular influenza vaccine
Explanation:The annual intramuscular flu vaccination is offered to children between 6 months to 2 years who are at high risk of flu. This includes babies with cerebral palsy, who are classified as high-risk patients and are eligible for the inactivated intramuscular influenza vaccination from the age of 6 months. It is important to note that the routine immunisation schedule offers a live intranasal influenza vaccine to children from the age of 2 years.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status
Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.
Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.
High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.
Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.
If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 118
Incorrect
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Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Listeriosis
Explanation:Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies
Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A six-year-old girl comes to your clinic accompanied by her father. He reports that she had a fever, runny nose, and headache a few days ago, but now those symptoms have disappeared. However, he is worried about her flushed cheeks and suspects it might be slapped cheek syndrome.
What is the recommended duration for her to stay away from school?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is not necessary to be excluded from school
Explanation:If a child is healthy and has the common rash associated with slapped cheek syndrome, there is no need to exclude them from school as they are no longer contagious once the rash appears. This advice comes from Public Health England.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl has measles.
Select from the list the single most likely complication.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia
Explanation:Complications and Risks Associated with Measles Infection
Measles infection can lead to various complications and risks, including bronchopneumonia, lobar pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis. Bronchopneumonia is the most common cause of death, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or secondary viral infections. Lobar pneumonia, on the other hand, is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other bacterial infections such as cervical adenitis and otitis media can also occur. Close follow-up is necessary for patients with measles.
Borderline vitamin A deficiency increases the risk of death and blindness from measles. The World Health Organization recommends high-dose vitamin A for all children with measles in countries where the case fatality rate is greater than 1%. Encephalitis and hepatitis are rare complications.
Lymphopenia, a condition characterized by low levels of lymphocytes, is a common effect of measles infection. Infants and adults may experience delayed recovery from this condition, and immunodeficiency can persist for several weeks even after lymphocyte counts have returned to normal. This is believed to be a significant contributor to the high all-cause mortality rate following acute measles worldwide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left lower leg. During examination, Samantha has a low-grade fever and the left lower leg is erythematous, mildly swollen, and warm to touch. The diagnosis is cellulitis, and since Samantha is allergic to penicillin, you prescribe a course of oral clarithromycin.
One week later, Samantha returns with new palpitations. What potential side effect of this antibiotic can be observed on an ECG?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Macrolides have been known to cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to palpitations as an uncommon side effect. On the other hand, a shortened PR interval may indicate pre-excitation or an AV nodal (junctional) rhythm, while a prolonged PR interval suggests delayed conduction of the sinoatrial nodal impulse to the ventricles, also known as first-degree AV block. Prominent P waves, on the other hand, are typically caused by right atrial enlargement due to various factors such as chronic lung disease, tricuspid stenosis, congenital heart disease, or primary pulmonary hypertension.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis that turned into an ulcer within a few days. Upon examination, a solitary, circular, hardened ulcer is visible.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Primary Syphilis: The First Sign and Symptoms
Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a small, painless papule that quickly turns into an ulcer known as a chancre. This ulcer is typically solitary, round or oval, painless, and surrounded by a bright-red margin. Unlike other open syphilitic lesions, it is not usually infected with secondary bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the bacteria responsible for syphilis, can be detected in the serum from the sore, which can be easily obtained by slightly abrading the base. If left untreated, primary syphilis can progress to more severe stages of the disease. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have syphilis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with a 9-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stained specimen microscopy
Explanation:Diagnosis and Testing for Gonorrhoea
Gonorrhoea is the most probable diagnosis in this case. To confirm the diagnosis, rapid testing can be done by examining Gram-stained anal specimens for Gram-negative diplococci. Culture testing is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate antimicrobial treatment. It is important to send the specimens to the laboratory as soon as possible. If there is a significant delay in getting the swabs to the laboratory, it may be advisable to refer the patient to a genito-urinary medicine clinic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is planning to travel to South America with her husband, who works for the diplomatic service. She is concerned about the risk of contracting a serious infection and wants to know which vaccine is safest to receive during pregnancy.
Which of the following vaccinations is considered the safest for administration during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Live vs Antigen vs Toxoid Vaccines in Pregnancy
Live vaccines, such as BCG, oral polio, oral typhoid, and yellow fever vaccinations, are not recommended during pregnancy due to their potential risks. However, if travel to an endemic area is unavoidable and there is an increased risk of exposure, yellow fever vaccination may be administered to a pregnant woman. On the other hand, hepatitis A and B vaccinations are antigen-based and can be given safely during pregnancy if there is a high risk of exposure. Tetanus and diphtheria vaccinations are toxoid-based and can also be given with low risk of complications during pregnancy. It is important to understand the differences between these types of vaccines to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 25-week pregnant lady comes to see you to ask about vaccination. She feels well in herself and there have been no complications in the pregnancy. She has been seeing her midwife regularly who has reported no problems.
When should she have the pertussis vaccination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can receive the vaccination now
Explanation:Vaccinations during Pregnancy
The seasonal influenza vaccine and pertussis vaccination are both recommended for pregnant women. The influenza vaccine can be given at any stage of pregnancy, while the pertussis vaccine is ideally administered between 16-32 weeks to maximize antibody transfer to the unborn infant. Both vaccines are inactivated and can be given at the same time or at any interval from each other.
It is important not to delay the administration of the influenza vaccine. The pertussis vaccine should not be given in early pregnancy as antibody levels would decline throughout the pregnancy, resulting in minimal transfer across the placenta. However, it is safe to give in the second trimester. Both vaccines protect against different illnesses and are advised during pregnancy.
It is not recommended to give the pertussis vaccine during labor as antibody production peaks two weeks after vaccination. By following these guidelines, pregnant women can protect themselves and their unborn infants from preventable illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 126
Incorrect
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For a patient undergoing an elective splenectomy, at what age is it best to administer the pneumococcal vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two weeks before surgery
Explanation:According to the current British National Formulary, it is recommended to administer the vaccine at least 14 days prior to a planned splenectomy.
Splenectomy and its Management
Splenectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the spleen. After the operation, patients are at a higher risk of infections caused by pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus, and Capnocytophaga canimorsus. To prevent these infections, patients should receive vaccinations such as Hib, meningitis A & C, annual influenza, and pneumococcal vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V is also recommended for at least two years and until the patient is 16 years old, although some patients may require lifelong prophylaxis.
Splenectomy is indicated for various reasons such as trauma, spontaneous rupture, hypersplenism, malignancy, splenic cysts, hydatid cysts, and splenic abscesses. Elective splenectomy is different from emergency splenectomy, and it is usually performed laparoscopically. Complications of splenectomy include haemorrhage, pancreatic fistula, and thrombocytosis. Post-splenectomy changes include an increase in platelets, Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and Pappenheimer bodies. Patients are at an increased risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, which typically occurs with encapsulated organisms. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccines are essential to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting vaccinated before his upcoming trip overseas. He has a medical history of asthma and has been on a 20 mg daily dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months, which was recently upped to 40 mg during a flare-up. Identify the one vaccine that would not be recommended for this individual.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Understanding Yellow Fever Vaccination and Other Vaccines
Yellow fever vaccination is a type of live vaccine that is made from the 17-d strain of the virus grown in hen’s eggs. However, it is not recommended for individuals with a history of impaired immune responsiveness or anaphylactic reaction to egg. Moreover, those who are currently undergoing corticosteroid therapy should not receive live vaccination. On the other hand, the other vaccines are not live vaccines. Hepatitis B and meningococcal vaccinations are surface antigen based, while the other two are toxoids and do not contain any active components. Understanding the differences between these vaccines is important in ensuring proper vaccination and protection against diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends and is concerned about the prevalence of mosquitoes in the area. She visits the clinic seeking travel vaccinations and advice. What is accurate regarding preventing mosquito bites?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DEET can repel mosquitos for up to 12 hours post application
Explanation:DEET is safe to use topically on infants as young as 2 months old, as well as pregnant and breastfeeding women. It effectively repels mosquitos and can prevent tick attachment for up to 12 hours after application. However, it doesn’t offer any sun protection. To ensure proper protection, it is recommended to apply sunscreen first and then apply DEET on top.
Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with a diarrhoeal illness. They were one of twenty-four students on a study abroad program who developed bloody diarrhoea on the third day.
Which of the following organisms is the likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schistosoma mansoni
Explanation:Understanding Dysentery and Amoebiasis
Dysentery is a gastrointestinal infection that is characterized by frequent stools that may contain blood, mucous, or pus. It is caused by Shigella dysenteriae, which is often associated with unsanitary conditions. The disease is transmitted through faecal contamination of water or food, and symptoms usually appear within one to four days of infection. The bacteria penetrate the mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine, causing intense irritation and producing cramps and watery, bloody diarrhoea.
Amoebiasis, on the other hand, is often asymptomatic initially, with cysts present in the faeces. However, symptoms such as lower abdominal pain and diarrhoea can develop later in the disease course. If left untreated, dysentery can also develop. It is important to note that stool examination has low sensitivity in detecting amoebiasis.
Other gastrointestinal infections that you should also be familiar with include C. difficile and E. coli toxins, bacterial causes such as salmonella and campylobacter, viral causes such as rotavirus and norovirus, and parasitic causes such as Giardia lamblia. Understanding these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate management and preventing further spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week, after recovering from a mild respiratory illness. The coughing fits have been so intense that they have caused vomiting and symptoms of a possible rib fracture. The teacher is concerned that he may have contracted pertussis from his students, but he remembers being vaccinated against it as a child. Can you explain the level of protection provided by childhood immunizations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunity following immunisation usually wanes within 3 years
Explanation:Pertussis Immunity and Vaccination
Pertussis immunity tends to decrease over time, and even if a person was vaccinated as a child, they can still contract the disease as an adult. The duration of immunity following acellular pertussis vaccination is not entirely clear, but it is suggested to last for five to six years. However, a booster given in the second year of life can prolong immunity to six to nine years. For this reason, a booster dose was introduced into the childhood immunisation schedule in 2001. Children born before November 1996 would not have received the booster dose, and their immunity is likely to have waned.
When pertussis vaccination was first introduced in the 1950s, a whole-cell pertussis vaccine was used. In 2001, the booster introduced was an acellular vaccine, and in 2004, the primary course whole-cell vaccine was replaced by the five component diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis/inactivated polio/Haemophilus influenza type b (DTaP/IPV/Hib) vaccine. Adults who received the unboosted whole-cell pertussis primary course and nothing since are highly likely to have waning immunity.
Despite the waning of immunity, it is still important to immunise children. This is because immunisation can help protect them during the time of greatest vulnerability to the effects of pertussis infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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You are asked to visit a nursing home where a 90-year-old man has diarrhoea and vomiting. When you see the patient, he has symptoms suggestive of norovirus infection.
Select the single most appropriate management option in this situation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Barrier-nurse in isolation within the residential home
Explanation:Understanding Norovirus: Symptoms, Transmission, and Control Measures
Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that causes diarrhoea and vomiting. It spreads rapidly through person-to-person contact, aerosol, and contact with infected vomit or stool. The symptoms typically include diarrhoea and vomiting with fever and abdominal cramps, and the illness usually lasts for 12-60 hours.
Outbreaks of norovirus are common in restricted environments such as hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. To prevent the spread of the virus, patients should be barrier-nursed and treated with fluid replacement and symptomatic treatment. It is important to note that these patients should not be admitted to hospitals unless absolutely necessary due to the highly infectious nature of the disease.
Key control measures for norovirus include frequent cleaning, environmental disinfection, and prompt clearance of soiling caused by vomit or faeces. Hygiene and hand-washing are also crucial in preventing the spread of the virus. Anyone who is infected should not prepare food for others until at least 3 days after symptoms have gone.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, transmission, and control measures of norovirus is crucial in preventing outbreaks and protecting public health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection at a relatively late stage when he is already starting to get opportunistic infections. Select from the list the single correct statement about the complications of HIV/AIDS.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Complications of HIV/AIDS and the Role of Antiretroviral Therapy
HIV/AIDS is a disease that suppresses T-cell mediated immunity, leading to various complications. However, antiretroviral therapy (ART) has been effective in inhibiting the replication of the virus, restoring the immune system, and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections. Combinations of three or more drugs are used to prevent resistance.
One of the hallmark complications of late-stage HIV disease is pneumocystis pneumonia, which is now less common due to ART and primary prophylaxis. Symptoms include shortness of breath, dry cough, fever, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. Diagnosis can be difficult, with few signs in the chest and unhelpful radiology.
Mycobacterium avium infection is another complication that often occurs at a CD4 count < 200/mm3, and is seen in 40% of patients with late-stage HIV in industrialized countries. Symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anemia, or hepatic dysfunction. Dementia is usually caused by HIV encephalopathy, but can also be caused by cytomegalovirus encephalitis or cerebral toxoplasmosis. The incidence of Kaposi’s sarcoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has been reduced by ART, but the incidence of other cancers in HIV patients has not changed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 133
Incorrect
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At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At 15 months of age
Explanation:The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules
Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.
It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention
Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.
To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She has been feeling unwell since her return, experiencing shortness of breath and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears pale and a blood test reveals iron-deficiency anemia. A stool sample is positive for hookworm and she begins treatment. Her mother is worried that the rest of the family may have contracted the infection.
Select the only accurate statement regarding the transmission of hookworm.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Walking barefoot is a risk factor for the disease
Explanation:Hookworm Infestation: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hookworm infestation is a parasitic infection caused by a nematode worm that lives in the small intestine of its host. It is acquired through eating contaminated food or walking barefoot on contaminated ground. The worms migrate through the body to the lungs, where they are coughed up and swallowed, completing their life cycle in the digestive tract and excreted in faeces.
Most hookworm infections are asymptomatic, but the most significant risk is anaemia due to loss of iron and protein in the gut. The worms suck blood and damage the mucosa, but the blood loss is occult. Larval invasion of the skin can cause intense, local itching, usually on the foot or lower leg, followed by lesions that look like insect bites. They can also cause the serpiginous lesions of cutaneous larva migrans.
Diagnosis is made by finding characteristic worm eggs on microscopic examination of the stools, and there may also be eosinophilia. Albendazole is the most effective medication for treatment. Relying on adequately cooked food will prevent faeco-oral but not percutaneous transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after being bitten on the hand by a dog while walking in the park. She has a laceration on her left index finger which is bleeding. There is no visible foreign object and the wound appears clean. She is stable and has no other medical issues. Her last tetanus shot was 2 years ago.
What is the most probable treatment that Sarah will receive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics
Explanation:It is not advisable to administer post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV after being bitten by a human. Since the wound is free from contamination and the individual received a tetanus shot 4 years ago, there is no need for a tetanus booster.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis
Explanation:Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.
Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a hepatitis C test. What should be done in response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an anti-HCV antibody test
Explanation:HCV RNA tests are typically not requested unless the antibody test comes back positive.
Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash on her right leg. She has no drug allergies and no other predisposing risk factors. She has been taking flucloxacillin for seven days. The rash has been slow to respond but has not worsened. She is afebrile and feeling otherwise well.
What is the most appropriate drug option now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Cellulitis: A Comparison of Treatment Options
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. The choice of antibiotic treatment depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Here is a comparison of the most commonly used antibiotics for treating cellulitis:
Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is recommended as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis because it covers both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. A 7-day course is recommended, with a review after 2-3 days to ensure there is no worsening of the condition. If symptoms persist after 7 days, another 7-day course should be continued. If there is no improvement after 14 days, specialist advice or hospital admission should be considered.
Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is recommended for patients with lymphoedema who develop cellulitis. It is not the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis.
Clarithromycin: This antibiotic is an alternative to flucloxacillin for patients with penicillin allergy. However, if the patient has no drug allergies, flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment.
Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic should be reserved for more severe infections to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. It is recommended for facial cellulitis close to the eyes or nose if intravenous treatment is not required.
Penicillin V: This antibiotic has a narrow spectrum and mainly covers streptococcal infections. It is not resistant to penicillinase, which most staphylococci produce, leading to resistance against penicillin V. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for cellulitis.
In conclusion, the choice of antibiotic treatment for cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis, while other antibiotics may be used for specific patient populations or in more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 140
Incorrect
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What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not experience any symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 70% of women and 50% of men
Explanation:Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination reveals a tender prostate. A urine dipstick test shows white blood cells.
What is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Prostatitis: Antibiotics and Pain Relief
Acute prostatitis is a bacterial infection of the prostate gland that can cause pain, fever, and difficulty urinating. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends starting antibiotics immediately while waiting for urine culture results. Quinolones like ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin are preferred over trimethoprim because they are effective against a wider range of urinary pathogens. Treatment for at least four weeks is recommended to prevent chronic prostatitis. In severe cases, hospital admission or referral may be necessary. Pain relief with paracetamol and/or ibuprofen may also be necessary. Some authorities recommend α-blocker therapy like tamsulosin to improve outflow obstruction, but it is not first-line management. If quinolones cannot be taken, trimethoprim may be used as an off-label option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after being exposed to her mother who has been diagnosed with facial shingles one day ago.
She was unaware of what the rash was and had examined the rash closely two days ago before her mother was diagnosed. She informs you that she is unaware of ever having Chickenpox.
What is the most appropriate action that should be taken for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be tested immediately for IgG antibodies to Varicella zoster
Explanation:Management of VZV Exposure in a Non-Immune Patient
The patient has a significant history of exposure to Varicella zoster virus (VZV), which puts her at risk of acquiring Chickenpox if she is non-immune. However, it is possible that she may have had VZV infection as a child. Therefore, the first step in managing this situation is to measure IgG antibodies to VZV. If the antibodies are present, no further action is required, and the patient can be relatively reassured.
On the other hand, if the patient is non-immune, she will likely need to be treated with VZ immunoglobulin. This treatment has been shown to reduce the severity of the infection and prevent fetal infection. It is important to note that prompt management of VZV exposure in non-immune patients is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 143
Incorrect
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You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling to Africa to climb Mount Kenya in 3 months time. They would like you to prescribe some malaria prophylaxis as Kenya is a malaria endemic country. They were given some information from the nurse and they think they would like to take atovaquone/proguanil (brand name Malarone). They are aware that most regimens have side effects and would like to know a bit more about what to expect from this drug.
What is a common side effect of atovaquone/proguanil that the 16-year-old boy and his father should be aware of before taking it as a malaria prophylaxis for their upcoming trip to Kenya?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal upset
Explanation:Malaria is a serious illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that infect red blood cells and is transmitted through mosquito bites. When traveling to areas where malaria is prevalent, it is recommended to take medication to prevent infection. There are several options available, including chloroquines, proguanil, mefloquine, and doxycycline. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects, with gastrointestinal upset being the most common. Other side effects may include headaches, rash, and neuropsychiatric reactions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each medication with a healthcare provider before starting prophylaxis.
Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 144
Incorrect
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What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients
Explanation:Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his leg. He was feeling ill and needed intravenous antibiotics. He is now finishing his course of oral antibiotics. He has no reported allergies to medications.
What medication is expected to be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:For individuals with cellulitis or erysipelas, an antibiotic is necessary. These conditions are characterized by acute inflammation and swelling, with erysipelas having more superficial lesions with a distinct raised margin.
When selecting an antibiotic, consider the severity of symptoms, the location of the infection, the risk of complications, and previous antibiotic use. If the individual was admitted to the hospital due to systemic illness, oral flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment for erysipelas. However, co-amoxiclav should be used for cellulitis near the eyes or nose.
Ciprofloxacin should only be used for specific indications due to its association with Clostridium difficile infection. Doxycycline is not the first choice, and if there is a penicillin allergy, clarithromycin or erythromycin should be used instead of flucloxacillin for erysipelas or cellulitis.
Erythromycin is not the first-line choice, but it may be appropriate if there is a history of penicillin allergy.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.
For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine blood tests, abnormal liver function is detected, prompting a hepatitis screening. The test results are as follows:
- Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
- Negative for HBsAg
- Positive for Anti-HBs
- Negative for Anti-HBc
- Positive for Anti-HCV
What is the most likely interpretation of these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination
Explanation:To determine if a patient has cleared the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients are able to clear the infection on their own. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.
When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and typically indicates acute disease lasting 1-6 months. If HBsAg is present for more than 6 months, it suggests chronic disease and infectivity. The presence of anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination, and is not present in chronic disease. Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasting for approximately 6 months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and appears as a result of the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.
Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and unpleasant griping abdominal pain. The symptoms appeared 6-7 hours after he ate a rice-based dish from a local Chinese takeaway. His flatmate had similar symptoms after visiting the same takeaway a few days earlier, which resolved within a day. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Understanding Bacillus cereus Infection
Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning. Its incubation period is between 6 to 24 hours, and symptoms usually appear within 1 to 2 days. The bacteria produce a toxin that can cause either severe diarrhea or profuse vomiting, depending on the type of toxin produced.
In Europe, Bacillus cereus infection is commonly associated with diarrhea. The bacteria are often found in reheated fried rice, which is a common cause of the infection. However, the infection is self-limiting, and appropriate oral rehydration advice is usually enough to manage the symptoms.
Overall, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes of Bacillus cereus infection to prevent its spread and manage its effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain, tenesmus, and cramping during bowel movements. Four years ago, he traveled to Thailand for a vacation and had unprotected sex with a sex worker. A few weeks later, he noticed a sore on his penis and tenderness in his left groin, which eventually resolved.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum
Explanation:Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is commonly found in tropical regions and typically presents with a painless genital papule or pustule that later ulcerates. Within 2 to 6 weeks, unilateral painful lymphadenopathy develops. If left untreated, LGV can progress to proctocolitis or even systemic illness.
African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is caused by the protist Trypanosoma brucei. It is spread by the tsetse fly and is not sexually transmitted. It presents with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and severe neurological complications.
Genital herpes typically results in multiple painful genital ulcers, which is different from the solitary painless genital sores associated with LGV.
Chancroid is an STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It also results in genital ulceration and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, but the ulcers are painful (unlike LGV) and are more likely to be multiple. Chancroid is also unlikely to progress to proctocolitis.
Understanding STI Ulcers
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 149
Incorrect
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Giuseppe is a 39-year-old man who has been advised by a colleague that immunisations should be offered to men who have sex with men (MSM).
Giuseppe has been in a relationship with his boyfriend for the past 6 months and has another male sexual partner.
What immunisations should Giuseppe be recommended for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Men who engage in sexual activity with other men should be offered immunization against hepatitis A, according to the Green Book guidelines. It is recommended that MSM with multiple sexual partners be informed about the risks of hepatitis A and the importance of maintaining good personal hygiene. Immunization should be offered to these individuals, especially during periods of outbreaks. Additionally, MSM should also be offered vaccination for hepatitis B and HPV. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C, hepatitis D, gonorrhea, or genital herpes. However, these STIs can be treated with medication.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the disease.
What is the most suitable marker for monitoring his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD4 lymphocyte count
Explanation:Understanding the Importance of CD4 Lymphocyte Count in HIV-related Immune Impairment
The CD4 lymphocyte count, also known as T-helper cell count, is a crucial indicator of immune impairment in individuals with HIV. While CD4 counts can vary even in the absence of HIV infection, a fall in the count to below 200/mm3 without antiretroviral treatment can increase the risk of opportunistic infections by 80% over three years. However, some patients with stable low CD4 counts can remain well for several years, and this variability is partly explained by differences in HIV viral load.
The level of CD4 lymphopenia determines the potential spectrum of infections, with certain infections such as oral candidiasis and pneumocystis pneumonia being more frequent at CD4 counts of 100-200/mm3, while others like disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection and cytomegalovirus retinitis are rarely seen until the CD4 count drops below 50/mm3.
While plasma HIV RNA levels strongly predict progression to AIDS and death, regular monitoring of CD4 counts is usually sufficient. Anti-HIV IgG is also used in the diagnosis of HIV infection. Understanding the importance of CD4 lymphocyte count in HIV-related immune impairment is crucial for effective management and treatment of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of the children at her preschool. When you examine her she seems mildly unwell but there are no signs of sepsis or significant dehydration.
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding her management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should stay away from nursery until 2 days after his symptoms have settled
Explanation:Childhood Diarrhoea: Causes and Treatment
Childhood diarrhoea is commonly caused by viruses, with rotavirus being the most prevalent. Other viruses such as norovirus, echoviruses, and enteroviruses can also cause diarrhoea. Rotavirus causes outbreaks of diarrhoea and vomiting during the winter and spring, affecting mainly children under 1 year old. Adults usually have some immunity to the virus, but the elderly can be susceptible. Rotavirus vaccine is now included in childhood vaccination programmes. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for children and is ineffective against viruses. Loperamide can reduce the duration of diarrhoea, but its adverse effects are unclear and it should not be prescribed. According to NICE guidance, children should avoid school or nursery for at least 48 hours after their symptoms have settled and avoid public swimming pools for 2 weeks. Childhood diarrhoea can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 152
Incorrect
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Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead of the winter. She asks you about storage of the intranasal influenza vaccination for adults.
Which of the following is the correct advice to give?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be stored specifically between +2°C and +8°C in line with the storage of the intramuscular influenza vaccines
Explanation:Vaccine Storage and Sensitivity
To maintain the potency and effectiveness of vaccines, it is important to store them properly. Vaccines can be sensitive to changes in temperature and exposure to light, which can reduce their shelf life and potency. Excessive heat can cause a decline in potency, while freezing can increase reactogenicity and reduce vaccine potency. Freezing can also lead to cracks in vaccine containers, which can result in contamination.
The nasal influenza vaccine should be stored between +2°C and +8°C and protected from light, similar to the intramuscular influenza vaccine. Refrigeration with close temperature monitoring is necessary to achieve this. However, the nasal influenza vaccine can be left out of the refrigerator for up to 12 hours before use, as long as it is not exposed to temperatures above 25°C. If it has not been used within 12 hours, it should be disposed of rather than re-refrigerated for future use. Proper vaccine storage is crucial to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is not known to be a carrier of blood-borne viral infections and is thought to be a low risk of having such an infection.
Select from the list the single most appropriate action.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take blood for virology (HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C) from the injured worker
Explanation:Risks and Guidelines for Healthcare Workers Exposed to Bloodborne Pathogens
Healthcare workers are at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. While the risk of transmission is low, it is important to follow clear guidelines from the Department of Health to ensure the safety of the worker.
If a healthcare worker is exposed to blood, they should have blood taken for virology to check for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. If there is a significant risk of HIV, post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral therapy should be started as soon as possible. HIV status and hepatitis serology should be rechecked at 3 and 6 months, and liver function tests should be performed and repeated at these intervals as well. Female workers should also have their β-hCG level checked to exclude pregnancy.
Ideally, a sample of blood should be obtained from the donor to determine if they are a potential source of infection. Healthcare workers should already be immune to hepatitis B from previous immunization, but if not, they may need to receive the vaccine.
In summary, healthcare workers should be aware of the risks associated with exposure to bloodborne pathogens and follow the appropriate guidelines to ensure their safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor complaining of symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection. The physician prescribes an antibiotic. After a few days, the man's partner notices that he appears pale and jaundiced and is feeling unwell. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Haemolysis in G6PD is caused by the sulfamethoxazole component of co-trimoxazole, not by the trimethoprim component.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notices a yellowish tint to the whites of her eyes. The patient resides in a remote fishing village and consumes a diet high in seafood. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and reports no weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. The following are her liver function test results:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/l
- ALP: 160 u/l
- ALT: 550 u/l
- γGT: 30 u/l
- Albumin: 35 g/l
All other routine blood results are normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E doesn’t cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and off her food. She has recently been helping out with lambing on the farm. On examination she has generalised lymph node swelling and a palpable liver edge. Her white blood cell count is just below the normal range.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brucellosis
Explanation:Brucellosis: A Zoonotic Infection from Farm Animals
Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection that occurs due to contact with farm animals such as sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, or dogs. It is most commonly seen in farmers, vets, or abattoir workers. Although rare in UK residents, it is prevalent worldwide and caused by Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus. The infection can be acquired through inhalation, ingestion, or a break in the skin.
The incubation period ranges from 1 week to 3 months, and the symptoms include fever (usually undulant), sweating, weight loss, myalgia, arthralgia, and mild depression. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be present, and the white cell count may be normal or low. Antibody testing confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves a combination of doxycycline and rifampicin for at least 6 weeks. Shorter courses are associated with a high relapse rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 158
Incorrect
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The parents of a 14-week-old baby come to the GP clinic with their child as they have noticed a change in their behavior over the past day. The baby seems less active, not smiling, sleeping more than usual during the day, and having 50% fewer breastfeeds. During the examination, the baby appears unwell and not responding to social cues. The observations are normal except for a temperature of 38ºC, and a small non-blanchable rash is visible on the left thigh.
The GP suspects meningococcal disease. What is the immediate dose of benzylpenicillin that the GP should administer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin IM 300 mg STAT
Explanation:Administer Benzylpenicillin IM 300 mg STAT to a child <= 11 months suspected of meningococcal disease before urgent hospital transfer. When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like tiny pieces of cotton moving on his stool and around his anus.
Select from the list the single most suitable management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebendazole
Explanation:Understanding Threadworm: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Threadworm, also known as pinworm or enterobiasis, is a common nematode infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis. This infection is exclusive to humans and doesn’t affect family pets. Female worms lay eggs outside the anus, causing irritation and discomfort. The eggs can easily spread through contaminated hands, food, clothing, and bedding, leading to re-infection.
Diagnosing threadworm involves examining adhesive tape applied to the anal area under a microscope, as stool examination is only positive in 5% of cases. Asymptomatic infection is common, so it is recommended that the entire family be treated together. Mebendazole is the preferred drug for treating threadworm in adults and children over 2 years old. It is given as a single oral dose and repeated after 2-3 weeks in case of re-infection. Piperazine, licensed for use in children as young as 3 months, paralyzes the worms but doesn’t kill them. It is often combined with senna as a powder (Pripsen) to expel the worms and is given as a single dose, repeated after 14 days.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of threadworm is crucial in preventing the spread of this common infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 160
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.
The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease
Explanation:Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis
The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.
The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.
In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit her mother who is unwell. The flight will be 6 hours in duration. She will be 28 weeks pregnant at the time of the flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.
What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated single pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 24 of pregnancy
Explanation:Airline Restrictions for Pregnant Passengers
Most airlines have restrictions on pregnant passengers flying beyond a certain gestation period. For single, uncomplicated pregnancies, the limit is usually week 37, while for those carrying twins or more, it is week 32. This is due to the increased risks of medical conditions and the possibility of going into labor while in the air.
In addition to these restrictions, pregnant passengers should also be advised on how to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, doing in-seat exercises, staying hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 163
Incorrect
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You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.
His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.
What is your response?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics
Explanation:Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts
Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.
If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.
It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to travel to Spain on holiday. He plans to fly, but is prepared to drive and take the ferry if you tell him that he is not fit to do so.
You currently manage his COPD with a high dose seretide inhaler and PRN salbutamol. On examination at the surgery he looks relatively well. He has good bilateral air entry on auscultation of his chest and sparse bilateral wheeze.
What level of O2 saturation constitutes the threshold above which he should be able to fly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Fitness to Fly: Guidelines and Recommendations
Maintaining good health is crucial when it comes to air travel. Before boarding a plane, it is important to ensure that you are fit to fly. One way to determine this is by assessing your ability to walk 50 meters on level ground or climb a flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. If you can do this, it is usually indicative that you are fit to fly.
Another way to assess fitness to fly is through a hypoxic challenge test. This test mimics the conditions on a plane, and if your PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) is less than 55 mmHg, it is not recommended to fly.
During an exam, you may be asked about your fitness to fly after an illness. It is important to consider any recent health issues and consult with a healthcare professional before making a decision to fly.
If you have experienced a pneumothorax (collapsed lung), it is recommended to wait at least two weeks after conservative management before considering flying. Additionally, evidence of resolution of the pneumothorax should be confirmed before flying.
In summary, it is important to prioritize your health and assess your fitness to fly before boarding a plane. By following these guidelines and recommendations, you can ensure a safe and comfortable flight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the discharge reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus, but sensitivities are not yet available. What is the most suitable initial antimicrobial therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone stat dose
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, while ciprofloxacin should only be considered if the organism is confirmed to be susceptible, as resistance is becoming more common. Penicillin, which was previously the preferred treatment, is now seldom used due to widespread resistance.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with a cough, conjunctivitis and coryza. She developed a confluent maculopapular rash starting in the head and neck area and spreading elsewhere on the body within a few days. Subsequent testing has confirmed measles. Her mother has reached out to you because she seems to be more unwell and you schedule an appointment for her evaluation.
What is the most frequent complication that occurs after a measles infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute demyelinating encephalitis
Explanation:Complications of Measles
It is crucial to understand that measles can lead to various complications. While it is essential to be aware of the rare and severe complications, it is also important to keep in mind the common ones. Pneumonia occurs in 1-6% of cases, while otitis media affects 7-9% of cases. Diarrhoea is another common complication, occurring in approximately 8% of cases, and convulsions may occur in 1 in every 200 cases. Although rare, encephalitis (1 per 1000 cases) and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis are also possible complications. It is worth noting that pancreatitis is more commonly associated with mumps infection.
After advising parents to treat their children symptomatically with fluids, rest, and paracetamol, it is crucial to remain vigilant for any symptoms and signs of complications. While death in the UK occurs in around 1 in every 5000 cases, it is still important to take necessary precautions and seek medical attention if any complications arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a fever and headache. Upon examination, the child appears ill, with a central capillary refill of 4 seconds, a heart rate of 150 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min, a temperature of 38ºC, and a non-blanching rash on his right leg and torso.
What is the recommended course of action for the parents?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months
Explanation:Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.
Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 μ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests
Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.
Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.
It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psittacosis
Explanation:Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure
Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.
Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and blood.
What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim for 3 days
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Urinary Tract Infections
Antibiotic treatment is effective in treating uncomplicated cystitis in women. Trimethoprim is the preferred drug for empirical treatment, but resistance can occur in 10-20% of Escherichia coli infections. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin can be used as alternatives for patients who cannot take trimethoprim. The recommended treatment period for women is three days, while men should be treated for seven days.
Amoxicillin is not routinely used due to its low effectiveness, with 50% of organisms being resistant. Cranberry juice and other cranberry products have no evidence to support their use in treating urinary tract infections.
In summary, antibiotic treatment is the most effective option for treating urinary tract infections, with trimethoprim being the preferred drug for women. Treatment should be for no longer than three days in women and seven days in men. Amoxicillin and cranberry products are not recommended for routine use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on her left ankle that has been getting increasingly itchy. Despite using over-the-counter creams, she has not seen any improvement. Her ankle is surrounded by a significant area of redness measuring approximately 12 cm in diameter. She reports no fever and has been in good health otherwise.
What is the next course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral loratadine
Explanation:Cream is a highly effective topical corticosteroid that can be utilized for the treatment of bite reactions. However, for milder cases, hydrocortisone 1 may be sufficient.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.
When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 months and 3 months
Explanation:UK Immunisation Schedule and Meningococcal Serogroup C Vaccine
We have provided a reference to the current UK immunisation schedule at the end of this text. It is a two-page A4 summary that we suggest you save and print for future reference. According to the schedule, the meningococcal serogroup C (MenC) vaccine is given to infants at one year old and as part of the MenACWY vaccine at age fourteen. However, the infant dose of MenC conjugate vaccine is no longer administered at three months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with stable sickle cell anaemia presents with an erythematous rash all over her body, which is associated with painful swollen joints. On examination she has clinical signs of anaemia. The full blood count shows absent reticulocytes in the peripheral blood.
Which pathogen is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 Infection: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications
Parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, but can also be transmitted through contaminated surfaces. Children between the ages of 6 and 10 are most commonly affected, with up to 70% of the population having been infected by the age of 20. Susceptible adults can also become infected, often through exposure to the virus from their own children. Epidemics tend to occur every 4-5 years, with peak infection rates in the winter and spring.
The most common symptom of parvovirus B19 infection is erythema infectiosum, a rash illness characterized by a red rash on the face and extremities. The rash typically appears 17-22 days after exposure to the virus and is preceded by mild fever and fatigue. In addition to the rash, more than 80% of adults with parvovirus B19 infection experience joint pain and swelling, particularly in the small joints of the hands and feet. A positive test for parvovirus B19-specific IgM indicates current or recent infection.
While parvovirus B19 infection typically doesn’t cause significant anemia in individuals with normal red-cell lifespan and function, it can lead to a more severe form of anemia called aplastic crisis in individuals with shortened red-cell lifespan, such as those with sickle-cell anemia. During the acute phase of aplastic crisis, there is a lack of reticulocytes in the blood and erythroid aplasia in the bone marrow. However, recovery is typically marked by the presence of reticulocytosis and giant pronormoblasts in the bone marrow.
In summary, parvovirus B19 infection is a common viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including rash and joint pain. While typically not severe, it can lead to complications in individuals with certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic after being bitten by a dog on his left hand. What would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a bacterial cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eyes glued together in the morning by discharge
Explanation:Understanding Conjunctivitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin layer that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. While viral conjunctivitis is more common in children, bacterial conjunctivitis is less common but more prevalent in adults. The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis, while adenovirus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis.
Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis include itchy eyes, mucopurulent discharge, and a positive history of infectious conjunctivitis. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a watery discharge and the presence of follicles. Bacterial conjunctivitis is usually bilateral, but if symptoms persist on one side, a review of the diagnosis is necessary.
There is an ongoing debate about the use of antibiotics in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, as the condition is self-limiting, and the benefits of antibiotics are marginal. Current guidelines do not recommend staying away from school or work.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for conjunctivitis is crucial in managing the condition effectively. If you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention promptly to receive the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of 39 oC but no localising symptoms and signs. The fever responded well to ibuprofen and paracetamol and has resolved. The mother was warned to watch out for a rash and returns anxious because small pink spots have appeared on her body, arms and legs. The spots blanch on pressure.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Roseola infantum is a common viral infection that primarily affects children between the ages of 6 months and 1 year. Caused by the herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6), this highly contagious illness is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, which can reach up to 40°C and last for 3-4 days. Once the fever subsides, a rash of small pink spots typically appears on the body, arms, and legs, but not on the face. The rash usually lasts for about 12-14 hours and may be accompanied by a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
While the initial fever may cause concern for parents and healthcare providers, the sudden drop in temperature and the appearance of the characteristic rash are reassuring signs of roseola. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions before making a diagnosis. With proper understanding of the symptoms, causes, and diagnostic process, parents and healthcare providers can effectively manage and treat roseola infantum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is planning a trip and has been advised by his travel agent to take antimalarial medication. What is the correct statement about chemoprophylaxis for malaria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mefloquine is contraindicated in patients with a history of psychiatric illness
Explanation:Antimalarials for Travellers: Importance and Considerations
Travellers should always seek up-to-date information on appropriate antimalarials for different regions before embarking on their journey. It is important to note that all travellers should be advised to use antimalarials where there is a risk, regardless of their previous exposure or the level of luxury of their accommodation.
While some may believe that immunity to malaria is strong and long-lasting, it is actually quite mild and wanes quickly when patients move away from the affected area. Therefore, it is crucial to take the necessary precautions to prevent contracting the disease.
Doxycycline is an effective antimalarial, but it can cause photosensitivity, making it less suitable for patients who plan to spend time sunbathing. Malarone, on the other hand, is ideal for short trips or where only part of a holiday is spent in malaria-prone areas, as it is taken for only 2 days before and 1 week after travel.
For all other antimalarials, they should be taken from 1 week before until 4 weeks after travel to the affected area. However, it is important to note that mefloquine is contraindicated for patients with a history of psychiatric illness or epilepsy, as it can cause a range of neuropsychiatric symptoms, including depression, panic attacks, agitation, hallucinations, psychosis, convulsions, and suicidal ideation. If such symptoms occur, the drug should be discontinued and replaced with an alternative antimalarial.
In conclusion, taking the necessary precautions and seeking professional advice on antimalarials is crucial for travellers to prevent contracting malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving the ear is painful. The external auditory canal is swollen and tender.
Select the single most likely infecting organism.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Understanding Acute Otitis Externa: Causes and Complications
Acute otitis externa is a condition characterized by inflammation of the outer ear canal. While infection is the most likely cause, skin diseases and irritants may also contribute to the condition. In the acute phase, there may be little discharge. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause, followed by other Gram-positive and Gram-negative species. Fungal pathogens like Candida albicans and Aspergillus species may also be responsible, especially after prolonged treatment with antibiotics. Malignant otitis externa, a rare but life-threatening complication, occurs when the infection spreads to the mastoid and temporal bones. It is usually caused by P. aeruginosa or S. aureus and affects elderly people with diabetes or those who are immunocompromised. Symptoms include intense pain and headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to discuss the result of his recent CD4 count.
Which statement concerning the T lymphocyte CD4 count is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has a relationship with the risk of developing opportunistic infections
Explanation:The Importance of CD4 Count in HIV Diagnosis and Treatment
CD4 count plays a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of HIV. HIV binds to CD4 receptors on various cells, leading to immune dysfunction and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. A high CD4 count during the acute phase of HIV infection is common, but a count of ≤ 200 cells/mm3 is diagnosed as AIDS. CD4 tests are also used to determine the efficacy of treatment and when to initiate antiretroviral therapy. While not a direct HIV test, CD4 counts provide valuable information about a patient’s immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Explanation:There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.
Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.
HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular inhalers and is otherwise well. She also takes a combined oral contraceptive pill.
What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship Between Medications and Oral Candidiasis
Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common fungal infection that can affect the mouth and throat. While it can occur in anyone, certain medications can increase the risk of developing this condition. Here is a breakdown of how different medications may impact the likelihood of oral candidiasis:
Inhaled Corticosteroid: Patients with well-controlled asthma may use inhaled corticosteroids, which can increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water after inhalation can help reduce this risk. Antifungal medication can be used to treat oral candidiasis without discontinuing therapy.
Inhaled β2 Agonist: This type of inhaler is used as a reliever for poorly controlled asthma and doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Common side effects include palpitations, tremors, and hypokalaemia.
Combined Oral Contraceptive: While the combined oral contraceptive pill doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis, it may be associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis.
Montelukast: This oral medication used to treat asthma doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Dry mouth is a possible side effect, along with gastrointestinal problems, headaches, and sleep disturbance.
Type II Diabetes Mellitus: Patients with poorly controlled diabetes may be more susceptible to recurrent infections, including oral candidiasis. If a patient presents with symptoms or risk factors for diabetes, blood glucose and/or haemoglobin A1c should be checked.
Understanding the relationship between medications and oral candidiasis can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His daughter is healthy and in good shape. As per the NHS immunisation recommendations, when should the child be offered the flu vaccine for the first time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-3 years
Explanation:influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020 and subsequently tested positive for the virus. Her dyspnea gradually worsened, and she was hospitalized ten days into her illness. She received oxygen therapy and was discharged one week later. She has been off work for three months since the onset of her symptoms and has interacted with several colleagues during this time. She now comes to you nine months after the onset of her symptoms, complaining of persistent fatigue. On physical examination, everything appears normal. Her chest X-ray, lung function tests, electrocardiogram, full blood count, and thyroid function tests are all normal, and she has been discharged from the care of respiratory physicians. How would you manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider that she could be suffering with psychological effects following her illness
Explanation:Dealing with Uncertainty in Long Covid Management
Dealing with uncertainty can be challenging for both patients and clinicians, especially in a rapidly evolving field like long covid management. It is unlikely that candidates will be tested on precise details that may change between question setting and the exam. Instead, questions may focus on the management of conditions that are poorly understood or the more reliable do not dos.
One important point to note is that there is no reliable evidence to support prescribing steroids or antivirals for suspected long covid, especially by a generalist. At least 10% of people with acute covid-19 may experience symptoms that persist for months, and recovery timescales can vary. There is no set date by which patients should have settled, and there is no evidence that patients are infectious at this stage of the disease.
It is also important to consider psychological illness as a potential factor in long covid management. Clinicians should keep an open mind about this when evaluating patients, while also being alert to alternative diagnoses and investigating where appropriate. By staying informed and adaptable, clinicians can better navigate the uncertainties of long covid management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever and headache. He is a frequent smoker. He woke up that morning to discover an itchy vesicular rash mostly on his face and trunk.
What is the most suitable course of action for his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Treatment for Chickenpox
Chickenpox is a common viral illness that can be treated with aciclovir if caught early. Most doctors would prescribe this medication to patients over the age of 12 within the first 24 hours of the rash appearing. Aciclovir can help reduce the severity of the illness, but it is ineffective if started later. The recommended dose is 800 mg taken five times daily for seven days.
Children usually have milder symptoms and only require symptomatic treatment. However, non-immune pregnant women who come into contact with Chickenpox may be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin to reduce the severity of the illness. If a rash develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy, aciclovir may be given. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or someone you know has Chickenpox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.
Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.
Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
Select from the list the commonest source of infection in the UK.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contaminated food
Explanation:Campylobacter Enteritis: A Common Bacterial Infection of the Gut
Campylobacter enteritis is a prevalent bacterial infection of the gut in industrialized countries, affecting people of all ages, especially young adults. In the United Kingdom alone, there are approximately 55,000 laboratory isolations reported annually, with an incidence rate of 100/100,000. However, the actual incidence rate is likely to be ten times higher than reported.
The consumption of raw or barbecued meats, particularly poultry, carries a significant risk of infection. Broiler chickens are the most common source of Campylobacter spp, and almost all retailed chickens are contaminated. Therefore, self-infection or cross-contamination to other foods can occur if proper hygiene is not observed. Other sources of infection include unpasteurized milk, contaminated water, and pets with diarrhea. Person-to-person spread is also possible.
Campylobacter is a notifiable disease in the UK. Although the condition is often self-limiting, antibiotic treatment may be necessary in severe cases, worsening disease, immunocompromised individuals, or symptoms lasting more than seven days. Erythromycin is the first-line antibiotic of choice, with a recommended dosage of 250-500mg for up to seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.
Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.
Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.
Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.
It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.
Understanding Chancroid
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.
Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy
Explanation:To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.
Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharge with a foul odor that began 1 week ago. She experiences dysuria and dyspareunia. During examination, her vagina appears erythematous.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis
Explanation:Understanding Vaginal Discharge: Causes and Symptoms
Vaginal discharge is a common occurrence in women, but it can sometimes indicate an underlying health issue. The most common causes of vaginal discharge are physiological, bacterial vaginosis, and candidal infections. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by the anaerobe Gardnerella vaginalis, which disrupts the normal vaginal flora. It causes a thin, profuse, and fishy-smelling discharge without itch or soreness. Candidiasis results in a thick, white, non-offensive discharge, which is associated with vulval itch and soreness. It may cause mild dyspareunia and external dysuria.
Sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas vaginalis can also cause purulent vaginal discharge. These infections may be asymptomatic, making it difficult to differentiate between them without laboratory testing. T. vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes an offensive yellow vaginal discharge, which is often profuse and frothy. It is associated with vulval itch and soreness, dysuria, abdominal pain, and superficial dyspareunia. A pelvic examination may reveal red blotches on the vaginal wall or cervix, and the labia may be swollen.
It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of vaginal discharge to identify any potential health issues and seek appropriate treatment. Regular gynecological check-ups and practicing safe sex can help prevent and manage vaginal discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 191
Incorrect
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What advice should be given regarding rubella vaccination and attempting to conceive after a patient is found to be non-immune to rubella during investigation for infertility?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should not try to get pregnant for at least 1 month following vaccination
Explanation:Rubella Vaccination and Pregnancy
Women who have received the rubella vaccination are advised to wait for at least one month before attempting to become pregnant. This recommendation is in accordance with guidelines from both the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). It is important to follow this advice to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus. By waiting for a month after vaccination, women can reduce the risk of any potential complications that may arise during pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial for women to consult with their healthcare provider and discuss their vaccination history before planning to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing quite ill. He has been experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhea, leg pain, and headache overnight. He appears pale, has cold extremities, neck stiffness, and a few spots that blanch on pressure.
What is the most crucial management option to consider?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin and admit to hospital
Explanation:Early Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis
Suspected meningococcal meningitis should be treated as an emergency, even in the absence of a non-blanching rash. The rash may be nonspecific or absent early on in the disease. Any patient with suspected bacterial meningitis or suspected meningococcal septicaemia should be admitted to the hospital immediately. In cases where there may be a delay in admission, Benzylpenicillin should be given. The recommended dose of benzylpenicillin is 1200 mg for adults, 600 mg for those aged 1-9 years, and 300 mg for those aged < 1 year. Cefotaxime may be used as an alternative in cases of penicillin allergy. Antibiotics should be injected intravenously or intramuscularly (IM) in adults and IM in children, with the recommended site of IM injection being the quadriceps muscle. GPs should carry these drugs (up-to-date) in their bags.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive for Chlamydia. He has had a number of partners over the past 12 months. Who should be contacted as part of routine contact tracing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms
Explanation:For symptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks before the onset of symptoms. For women and asymptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent sexual partner.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is housebound due to her disability.
Which vaccination should she receive annually?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: influenza
Explanation:The Importance of Annual influenza Vaccination
influenza vaccines are designed to protect against the two subtypes of human influenza A (H3N2 and H1N1) and influenza B viruses. However, due to changes in the surface antigens of the virus, the composition of the vaccine must be modified annually. To ensure global recommendations on vaccine composition and surveillance for potential pandemic viruses, the World Health Organisation maintains a network of collaborating laboratories.
Annual re-immunisation is particularly recommended for those at the highest risk of morbidity, including patients in chronic care facilities (especially the elderly), those with chronic cardiopulmonary, lung or renal diseases, diabetes mellitus, haemoglobinopathies, and those who are immunocompromised. It is also offered annually to patients aged 65 and over.
While protection may be less effective in the elderly than in children, immunisation has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchopneumonia, mortality, and hospital admission. In children aged 1-5, it has been shown to reduce influenza-associated respiratory illness in the 1- to 15-year age group by up to 90%, and may reduce influenza-associated otitis media by up to 30%.
In conclusion, annual influenza vaccination is crucial for protecting vulnerable populations and reducing the spread of the virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 195
Incorrect
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You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her
Explanation:The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.
GMC Guidance on Confidentiality
Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to India. Hepatitis A is diagnosed.
Select from the list the single most common mode of transmission.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contaminated food
Explanation:Common Modes of Disease Transmission
Diseases can be transmitted through various means, including oral ingestion, blood contamination, tick bites, sexual contact, and mosquito bites. Hepatitis A is an example of a disease that is acquired orally, while Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV are blood-borne diseases. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease and typhus, are caused by infectious agents transmitted through tick bites. Sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, syphilis, and gonorrhoea, are commonly spread through sexual contact. Mosquito bites can also transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever. It is important to be aware of these modes of transmission and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of diseases.
Modes of Disease Transmission
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.
She has no other symptoms and physical examination is normal. She works as a teacher.
You send blood samples for tests. Her full blood count, urea, electrolytes, and thyroid function tests are normal but her liver functions tests are abnormal. Because of this you send some blood to the laboratory to test for hepatitis. You explain first to your patient what the tests are for.
The results are:
Anti-HAV IgG Negative
HBsAg Negative
Anti-HBs Positive
Anti-HBc Negative
HBeAg Negative
Anti-HBe Negative
Anti-HCV Positive
What is the patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Hepatitis C Infection and Vaccination Recommendations
Abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies suggest that a patient has hepatitis C infection. If a patient has been vaccinated against hepatitis B, it may indicate that they work in a healthcare setting. The risk of seroconversion to hepatitis C after a needlestick injury from a patient positive for hepatitis C virus is low, but still present. Patients may not experience symptoms during seroconversion, and many with hepatitis C have normal liver function tests.
It is important to vaccinate patients against hepatitis B if they have not already been vaccinated, as co-existent hepatitis B infection can worsen liver injury. Patients with hepatitis C who do not have detectable immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) antibodies are at risk of acquiring hepatitis A infection, which can be severe and associated with increased mortality. Therefore, hepatitis A vaccination is recommended.
In summary, patients with abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies should be checked for hepatitis C infection, even if their liver function tests are normal. Healthcare workers may have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Vaccination against hepatitis B and A is recommended for patients with hepatitis C infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea, diarrhoea and headache. On examination the patient looks unwell and has red/bluish petechiae on the extensor surfaces of both legs that do not blanch on pressure.
Select the single most important immediate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Prehospital Antibiotic Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Infection
Health authorities in many countries recommend that general practitioners initiate prehospital antibiotic treatment, such as benzylpenicillin, in suspected cases of meningococcal infection. The primary objective of this strategy is to halt the rapid growth of meningococci in the bloodstream before intravascular inflammation becomes irreversible or causes severe complications. Patients who live far from the hospital and experience rapidly progressing symptoms, resulting in compromised circulation and extensive haemorrhagic skin lesions, are most likely to benefit from this approach if implemented early enough. Retrospective studies conducted in England and Wales indicate that prehospital penicillin treatment can reduce case fatality. In cases of penicillin allergy, cefotaxime is a viable alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is safe for nursing mothers to use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:The use of trimethoprim during breastfeeding is deemed safe.
Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider
Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.
Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old businessman returns from a recent trip to the Philippines and presents with symptoms of diarrhoea, flu-like illness, and a rash on his trunk. He also has cervical lymphadenopathy and a widespread maculopapular rash. On examination, his vital signs are stable. What investigation would be most helpful in determining the cause of his illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:The symptoms and timing of this man’s illness suggest that he may be experiencing HIV seroconversion illness. Although he may have contracted a gastrointestinal infection while traveling, this is unlikely to account for his rash and swollen lymph nodes.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion
HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.
Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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