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Question 1
Correct
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Which one of the following muscles is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve?
Your Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot initiate shoulder abduction. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be dysfunctional?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The Suprascapular Nerve and its Function
The suprascapular nerve is a nerve that originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. It is located superior to the trunks of the brachial plexus and runs parallel to them. The nerve passes through the scapular notch, which is located deep to the trapezius muscle. Its main function is to innervate both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are responsible for initiating abduction of the shoulder.
If the suprascapular nerve is damaged, patients may experience difficulty in initiating abduction of the shoulder. However, they may still be able to abduct the shoulder by leaning over the affected side, as the deltoid muscle can then continue to abduct the shoulder. Overall, the suprascapular nerve plays an important role in the movement and function of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Nicotine gum
Explanation:Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old female complains of weakness, weight gain, and cold intolerance. You suspect hypothyroidism. What vocal change would you anticipate to have occurred, increasing the probability of this potential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hoarse voice
Explanation:Hoarseness is a symptom that can be caused by hypothyroidism.
When a patient presents with hoarseness, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. However, if the hoarseness is accompanied by other symptoms commonly associated with hypothyroidism, it can help narrow down the diagnosis.
The reason for the voice change in hypothyroidism is due to the thickening of the vocal cords caused by the accumulation of mucopolysaccharide. This substance, also known as glycosaminoglycans, is found throughout the body in mucus and joint fluid. When it builds up in the vocal cords, it can lower the pitch of the voice. The thyroid hormone plays a role in preventing this buildup.
Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.
If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following does not decrease the functional residual capacity?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic surgery
Correct Answer: Upright position
Explanation:When a patient is in an upright position, the functional residual capacity (FRC) can increase due to less pressure from the diaphragm and abdominal organs on the lung bases. This increase in FRC can also be caused by emphysema and asthma. On the other hand, factors such as abdominal swelling, pulmonary edema, reduced muscle tone of the diaphragm, and aging can lead to a decrease in FRC. Additionally, laparoscopic surgery, obesity, and muscle relaxants can also contribute to a reduction in FRC.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital due to recurrent episodes of breathing difficulties. She has been experiencing a gradual worsening of symptoms, including a wet cough and expiratory wheezing, for the past 4 days.
During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 38.2°C, and her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturation levels are at 92% on air. Chest examination reveals mild intercostal retractions, scattered crackles, and expiratory wheezing in both lungs.
What is the most probable causative agent responsible for the symptoms?Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus, which accounts for the majority of cases of serious lower respiratory tract infections in children under one.
Understanding Bronchiolitis
Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.
The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.
Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.
The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic with recent onset of asthma and frequent nosebleeds. Laboratory results reveal elevated eosinophil counts and a positive pANCA test.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
Explanation:The presence of adult-onset asthma, eosinophilia, and a positive pANCA test strongly suggests a diagnosis of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) in this patient.
Although GPA can cause epistaxis, the absence of other characteristic symptoms such as saddle-shaped nose deformity, haemoptysis, renal failure, and positive cANCA make EGPA a more likely diagnosis.
Polyarteritis Nodosa, Temporal Arteritis, and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis have distinct clinical presentations that do not match the symptoms exhibited by this patient.
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss Syndrome)
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is a type of small-medium vessel vasculitis that is associated with ANCA. It is characterized by asthma, blood eosinophilia (more than 10%), paranasal sinusitis, mononeuritis multiplex, and pANCA positivity in 60% of cases.
Compared to granulomatosis with polyangiitis, EGPA is more likely to have blood eosinophilia and asthma as prominent features. Additionally, leukotriene receptor antagonists may trigger the onset of the disease.
Overall, EGPA is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is admitted to the acute stroke unit following a haemorrhagic stroke. Three days after admission he complains of pain and swelling in the left calf. A Doppler ultrasound shows large DVT with extension into the upper leg. Given his recent stroke, anticoagulation is contraindicated, however, there is a significant risk of him developing a pulmonary embolus. The decision is made to insert an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. The registrar inserting the filter is fairly junior, he plans to insert this just above the renal veins, however, asks the consultant if there are any landmarks he can use to guide him. The consultant advises him if he reaches the diaphragm he has gone too far!
At which vertebral level would the diaphragm be encountered when inserting an IVC filter?Your Answer: T10
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The point at which the inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm is being asked in this question. The correct answer is T8, which is where the IVC crosses the diaphragm through the caval opening. The IVC is formed by the joining of the left and right common iliac veins at around L5.
In patients who are at high risk of pulmonary embolus and for whom anticoagulation is not effective or contraindicated, an IVC filter can be used. This filter is usually inserted above the renal veins, but it can be placed at any level, including the superior vena cava, if necessary.
The other options provided in the question, T6, T10, and T11, are not associated with any significant structures. The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm with the vagal trunk at T10.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is found on his bathroom floor next to needles and syringes and is brought into the hospital. He has a Glasgow coma score of 10 and a bedside oxygen saturation of 88%. On physical examination, he has pinpoint pupils and needle track marks on his left arm. His arterial blood gases are as follows: PaO2 7.4 kPa (11.3-12.6), PaCO2 9.6 kPa (4.7-6.0), pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44), and HCO3 25 mmol/L (20-28). What do these results indicate?
Your Answer: Acute type II respiratory failure
Explanation:Opiate Overdose
Opiate overdose is a common occurrence that can lead to slowed breathing, inadequate oxygen saturation, and CO2 retention. This classic picture of opiate overdose can be reversed with the use of naloxone. The condition is often caused by the use of illicit drugs and can have serious consequences if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 24-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a decreased level of consciousness. Upon examination, the patient exhibits Kussmaul respiration and an acetone-like breath odor.
What type of metabolic disturbance is most consistent with the symptoms and presentation of this patient?Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis, oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right
Explanation:The correct answer is that metabolic acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This is seen in the condition described in the question, diabetic ketoacidosis, which is associated with metabolic acidosis. Acidosis causes more oxygen to be unloaded from haemoglobin, leading to a rightward shift in the curve. The other answer options are incorrect, as they either describe a different type of acidosis or an incorrect direction of the curve shift.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fever and productive cough for the past two days. She spends most of her time at home watching TV and rarely goes outside. She has no recent travel history. The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease but has not been compliant with medication and follow-up appointments. Upon physical examination, crackles are heard on the left lower lobe, and her sputum is described as 'red-currant jelly.'
What is the probable causative organism in this case?Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:The patient’s history of severe gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) suggests that she may have aspiration pneumonia, particularly as she had not received appropriate treatment for it. Aspiration of gastric contents is likely to occur in the right lung due to the steep angle of the right bronchus. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a common cause of aspiration pneumonia and is known to produce ‘red-currant jelly’ sputum.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a cause of atypical pneumonia, which typically presents with a non-productive cough and clear lung sounds on auscultation. It is more common in younger individuals.
Burkholderia pseudomallei is the causative organism for melioidosis, a condition that is transmitted through exposure to contaminated water or soil, and is more commonly found in Southeast Asia. However, given the patient’s sedentary lifestyle and lack of travel history, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of pneumonia, but it typically produces yellowish-green sputum rather than the red-currant jelly sputum seen in Klebsiella pneumoniae infections. It also presents with fever, productive cough, and crackles on auscultation.
Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the gut flora of humans. However, it can also cause various infections such as pneumonia and urinary tract infections. It is more prevalent in individuals who have alcoholism or diabetes. Aspiration is a common cause of pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. One of the distinct features of this type of pneumonia is the production of red-currant jelly sputum. It usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs.
The prognosis for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is not good. It often leads to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, which can be fatal. The mortality rate for this type of infection is between 30-50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Correct
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Control of ventilation. Which statement is false?
Your Answer: Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in O2
Explanation:The central chemoreceptors increase ventilation in response to an increase in H+ in the brain interstitial fluid.
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is brought to the paediatrician due to increased work of breathing. The infant was born at term and via spontaneous vaginal delivery 6 months ago.
During the examination, the paediatrician observes moderate subcostal and intercostal recession and notes that the infant appears tachypnoeic. The infant's temperature is 38.9ºC, and a chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals some consolidation in the right lower zone. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are initiated.
Upon reviewing the infant's oxygen dissociation curve, the paediatrician notes a leftward shift relative to the standard adult curve. What is the cause of this appearance in the infant's oxygen dissociation curve?Your Answer: Increased concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)
Correct Answer: Foetal haemoglobin (HbF)
Explanation:The factor that shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left is foetal haemoglobin (HbF). This is because HbF has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin, haemoglobin A, which allows maternal haemoglobin to preferentially offload oxygen to the foetus across the placenta.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of shortness of breath and weakness during mild-moderate exercise. She reports that these episodes have been getting progressively worse and now often result in dizziness. The patient has no significant medical history but was a previous smoker for 15 years, smoking 15 cigarettes per day. Spirometry testing reveals a restrictive lung pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Myasthenia gravis can result in a restrictive pattern of lung disease due to weakness of the respiratory muscles, which causes difficulty in breathing air in. Asthma and COPD are incorrect as they cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, with asthma being characterized by small bronchiole obstruction from inflammation and increased mucus production, and COPD causing small airway inflammation and emphysema that restricts outward airflow. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency also leads to an obstructive pattern, as it results in pulmonary tissue degradation and panlobular emphysema.
Understanding the Differences between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Diseases
Obstructive and restrictive lung diseases are two distinct categories of respiratory conditions that affect the lungs in different ways. Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a reduction in the flow of air through the airways due to narrowing or blockage, while restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a decrease in lung volume or capacity, making it difficult to breathe in enough air.
Spirometry is a common diagnostic tool used to differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In obstructive lung diseases, the ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is less than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to exhale air. In contrast, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by an FEV1/FVC ratio greater than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to inhale air.
Examples of obstructive lung diseases include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, while asthma and bronchiectasis are also considered obstructive. Restrictive lung diseases include intrapulmonary conditions such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and drug-induced fibrosis, as well as extrapulmonary conditions such as neuromuscular diseases, obesity, and scoliosis.
Understanding the differences between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. While both types of conditions can cause difficulty breathing, the underlying causes and treatment approaches can vary significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is shot in the chest during a robbery. The right lung is lacerated and is bleeding. An emergency thoracotomy is performed. The surgeons place a clamp over the hilum of the right lung. Which one of the following structures lies most anteriorly at this level?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:At this location, the phrenic nerve is situated in front. The vagus nerve runs in front and then curves backwards just above the base of the left bronchus, releasing the recurrent laryngeal nerve as it curves.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the anatomical level of the transpyloric plane?
Your Answer: L4
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has been admitted and treated for infective exacerbations of COPD three times in the past year. Despite his respiratory issues, he continues to smoke. He is currently receiving only short-acting beta2-agonist therapy. During his COPD patient review with the nurse practitioner at his local general practice, spirometry results reveal a drop in his FEV1 from 65% to 58%.
What is the most effective approach to manage his condition and prevent further decline in his FEV1?Your Answer: Add a long-acting beta2-agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:The most effective intervention to slow the decrease in FEV1 experienced by patients with COPD is to stop smoking. If the patient has no asthmatic/steroid-responsive features, the next step in management would be to add a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and a long-acting muscarinic antagonist. If the patient has asthmatic/steroid-responsive features, the next step would be to add a LABA and an inhaled corticosteroid. Oral theophylline is only considered if inhaled therapy is not possible, and oral prednisolone is only used during acute infective exacerbations of COPD to help with inflammation and is not a long-term solution to slow the reduction of FEV1.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenzae vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a productive cough that has lasted for 5 days. He has also been feeling generally unwell and has had a fever for the past 2 days. The doctor suspects a bacterial respiratory tract infection and orders a blood panel, sputum microscopy, and culture. What is the most likely abnormality to be found in the blood results?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:Neutrophils are typically elevated during an acute bacterial infection, while eosinophils are commonly elevated in response to parasitic infections and allergies. Lymphocytes tend to increase during acute viral infections and chronic inflammation. IgE levels are raised in cases of allergic asthma, malaria, and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Anti-CCP antibody is a diagnostic tool for Rheumatoid arthritis.
Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenzae infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.
Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.
Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a cause of increased anion gap acidosis?
Your Answer: Uraemia
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide
Explanation:Causes of anion gap acidosis can be remembered using the acronym MUDPILES, which stands for Methanol, Uraemia, DKA/AKA, Paraldehyde/phenformin, Iron/INH, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, and Salicylates.
Disorders of Acid-Base Balance
The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the accurate embryonic source of the stapes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second pharyngeal arch
Explanation:The stapes, which is a cartilaginous element in the ear, originates from the ectoderm covering the outer aspect of the second pharyngeal arch. This strip of ectoderm is located lateral to the metencephalic neural fold. Reicherts cartilage, which extends from the otic capsule to the midline on each side, is responsible for the formation of the stapes. The cartilages of the first and second pharyngeal arches articulate superior to the tubotympanic recess, with the malleus, incus, and stapes being formed from these cartilages. While the malleus is mostly formed from the first arch, the stapes is most likely to arise from the second arch.
The Development and Contributions of Pharyngeal Arches
During the fourth week of embryonic growth, a series of mesodermal outpouchings develop from the pharynx, forming the pharyngeal arches. These arches fuse in the ventral midline, while pharyngeal pouches form on the endodermal side between the arches. There are six pharyngeal arches, with the fifth arch not contributing any useful structures and often fusing with the sixth arch.
Each pharyngeal arch has its own set of muscular and skeletal contributions, as well as an associated endocrine gland, artery, and nerve. The first arch contributes muscles of mastication, the maxilla, Meckel’s cartilage, and the incus and malleus bones. The second arch contributes muscles of facial expression, the stapes bone, and the styloid process and hyoid bone. The third arch contributes the stylopharyngeus muscle, the greater horn and lower part of the hyoid bone, and the thymus gland. The fourth arch contributes the cricothyroid muscle, all intrinsic muscles of the soft palate, the thyroid and epiglottic cartilages, and the superior parathyroids. The sixth arch contributes all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except the cricothyroid muscle), the cricoid, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages, and is associated with the pulmonary artery and recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Overall, the development and contributions of pharyngeal arches play a crucial role in the formation of various structures in the head and neck region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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