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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man's mother visits his General Practitioner with concerns about her son's behavior. The young man has become isolated from his social circle, has developed an interest in the paranormal, and appears increasingly disheveled. He has been observed talking to himself and recently covered the TV screen with paper. His speech is erratic and jumps from one unrelated topic to another. He is not using any psychotropic drugs and has no history of health issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Delirium
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differentiating between Schizophrenia and other Mental Disorders
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, social withdrawal, blunted emotions, and breaks in thought processes. These symptoms are often accompanied by an irritable or depressed mood. When presented with a patient exhibiting these symptoms, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.
Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is a complex psychological disorder where the individual appears to have two or more distinct personalities that alternate and dictate their behavior. This disorder is associated with severe childhood trauma, which is not present in the case of the patient in question.
Bipolar disorder is characterized by extreme mood swings, ranging from mania to depression. While the patient exhibits some symptoms of depression, they are not displaying symptoms of mania, making bipolar disorder an unlikely diagnosis.
Delirium is a serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment. While an underlying physical cause should be excluded, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with a psychotic illness than delirium.
Depression is characterized by continuous low mood, hopelessness, low self-esteem, tearfulness, and irritability. While patients with severe depression may suffer from psychotic episodes, the patient in question is exhibiting symptoms more consistent with schizophrenia, such as knights move thinking and responding to auditory hallucinations.
In conclusion, differentiating between schizophrenia and other mental disorders requires a thorough understanding of the symptoms and their presentation. While some disorders may share similar symptoms, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history and behavior can help determine the correct diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria and frequency, four weeks after giving birth. She exclusively breastfeeds her child and had an uneventful antenatal period and delivery. On examination, her abdomen appears normal and she has no fever. A urine dipstick reveals positive results for blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest. He reports no recent illness or injury. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine 5mg daily. He is a smoker with a BMI of 30 kg/m². On examination, there is no visible deformity in his lower limbs, and his calves are soft and nontender bilaterally with no edema. The ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.8. The patient is started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. What other treatment should be prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend that patients with peripheral arterial disease should be treated with clopidogrel and atorvastatin. This patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease caused by atherosclerosis. It is important to differentiate this from critical limb ischaemia, which is characterised by pain at rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index of < 0.9 suggests PAD, with an index < 0.5 suggesting critical limb ischaemia. This patient has several risk factors, including smoking, hypertension and obesity. Aspirin is not the first-line antiplatelet for PAD and should only be used if clopidogrel is not tolerated. Low molecular weight heparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis, which is characterised by unilateral calf pain and swelling with tenderness along the deep venous system. Metformin is indicated for diabetes mellitus, which cannot be diagnosed without a HbA1c or blood glucose reading. Regular glucose checks are recommended for patients with vascular risk factors. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.
Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches on his mouth and legs. During examination, his doctor observes violaceous, purple papular lesions on his calves and feet, leading to a suspicion of Kaposi's sarcoma. What is the cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Human herpes virus 8
Explanation:HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) is the cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is commonly found in HIV patients. Parvovirus B19 causes fifths disease or slapped cheek syndrome in children and can also lead to foetal hydrops. The human papilloma virus is linked to genital warts and cervical cancer. Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) and is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, gastric cancer, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.
Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: CA 19-9
Correct Answer: Serum electrophoresis
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of central abdominal pain, extreme thirst and polyuria. She has no past medical history but her mother and sister both have diabetes. She is noted to be breathing heavily with breath that smells of acetone. An urgent set of investigations is taken.
Which of the following test results are most likely in this patient?
Select the SINGLE most likely results from the list below.
Your Answer: pH 7.23, pCO2 2.2 kPa, pO2 11.2 kPa, Na+ 140 mmol/l, K+ 3.5 mmol/l, HCO3 13 mmol/l, glucose 7.9 mmol/l, ketones 0.6 mmol/l
Correct Answer: pH 7.21, partial pressure of pCO2 2.1 kPa, partial pressure of pO211.2 kPa, Na+ 131 mmol/l, K+ 3.1 mmol/l, HCO3 12 mmol/l, glucose 31 mmol/l, ketones 4.2 mmol/l
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results: Distinguishing Diabetic Ketoacidosis from Other Conditions
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent treatment. It can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes mellitus (DM) or be the first presentation of type I DM. To diagnose DKA, the Joint British Diabetes Societies have established specific criteria, including a blood glucose of more than 11 mmol/l or known DM, a venous pH of less than 7.3 and/or a serum bicarbonate of less than 15 mmol/l, and ketonaemia of more than 3 mmol/l or ketonuria 2+ on dipstick.
When interpreting blood test results, it is important to distinguish DKA from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a metabolic acidosis may indicate DKA, but it would also be present in other conditions. In DKA, you would expect a combination of high blood glucose, low pH and serum bicarbonate, and high ketone levels.
Normal blood test results would rule out DKA, but hyperkalaemia may be present despite low total body potassium levels. Potassium levels may need to be monitored and adjusted during treatment. Respiratory alkalosis, indicated by low pCO2 and high pH, would suggest hyperventilation rather than DKA.
In summary, interpreting blood test results is crucial in diagnosing and distinguishing DKA from other conditions. Understanding the specific criteria for DKA diagnosis and recognizing the patterns of abnormal results can help healthcare professionals provide timely and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse after she has taken a bath, tingling and burning sensations in her hands and feet, and headaches. She has felt fatigued over the past year and a half, however, the symptoms of itching and tingling peripheries have only been present for the past 3 months. On examination, she is noted to have a palpable spleen which is 3 cm below the costal angle. She has a full blood count which shows:
Hb 184 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Phlebotomy
Explanation:The primary treatment for polycythaemia vera is venesection, which is used to maintain normal levels of haemoglobin. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with the condition, including pruritis, numbness and tingling in the extremities, headaches, lethargy, and splenomegaly. Venesection involves removing blood from the patient to reduce haemoglobin levels, and may need to be performed weekly initially, but can be spaced out to every 6-12 weeks once the condition is under control. Ibuprofen is not a recommended treatment for polycythaemia vera, but aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of clotting. Paroxetine has been studied as a treatment for pruritis associated with polycythaemia vera, but should not be used as a replacement for venesection. Ruxolitinib is a medication used to prevent thrombus formation in patients who are resistant or intolerant to hydroxyurea, but is not a first-line treatment for the condition.
Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.
The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.
The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 5-day history of severe diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal pain, fever, and fatigue. He has never experienced these symptoms before. In the past 3 months, the patient has undergone treatment for upper urinary tract infections with both co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin. He has no known allergies and does not take any regular medications. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count, and a stool sample confirms the presence of Clostridium difficile toxin. According to national guidelines, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A course of oral vancomycin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with confirmed Clostridium difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This infection typically occurs in patients who have recently taken broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin, which disrupt the gut flora. Discontinuing the implicated antibiotic and starting appropriate eradicative therapy is necessary. Oral fidaxomicin is an alternative but is less available. Metronidazole is no longer a first-line antibiotic due to lower cure rates than vancomycin, but it may be used if vancomycin is not available. IV vancomycin is ineffective as insufficient quantities are excreted into the gut lumen. Clindamycin is not a cure for Clostridium difficile but is associated with an increased risk of developing it. Conservative management is not recommended as the infection may worsen and lead to complications such as toxic megacolon.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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