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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man presents for a routine check-up and inquires about the benefits...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents for a routine check-up and inquires about the benefits and drawbacks of taking daily aspirin. He has normal blood pressure and his cholesterol and glucose levels are within normal limits.
      What is the one accurate statement regarding the advantages and disadvantages of aspirin in primary prevention?

      Your Answer: Aspirin use in primary prevention reduces risk of non-fatal myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      The Pros and Cons of Aspirin in Primary Prevention

      Aspirin has been found to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction in primary prevention studies. However, this benefit is counterbalanced by an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is highest in the first 1-2 years of use but decreases with continued use. Despite this, there is a significant body of evidence indicating that aspirin can reduce the risk of cancer, particularly colorectal cancer, and also lower the risk of metastases. Additionally, stopping aspirin use can lead to a temporary increase in the risk of myocardial infarction. Currently, there is no consensus on whether aspirin or other antiplatelets should be recommended for primary prevention in otherwise healthy patients due to insufficient evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 2 - You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks...

    Correct

    • You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.

      What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.

      Which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: She should receive antibiotic prophylaxis

      Correct Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients

      NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      727
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. She has experienced increased shortness of breath since the diagnosis and now requires four pillows to sleep comfortably. Which medication is most likely to provide the quickest relief of symptoms for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Understanding the Recommendations

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. When it comes to medication, it’s important to understand which drugs are recommended and when they should be prescribed. Here’s a breakdown of some common medications and their appropriate use in heart failure treatment:

      Furosemide: This loop diuretic is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for patients with symptoms of fluid overload. The dose should be adjusted based on symptoms and reviewed regularly.

      Spironolactone: While this aldosterone antagonist can be considered for all patients, NICE advises that it should only be added if symptoms persist despite optimal treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. Referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Carvedilol: This beta-blocker is indicated for heart failure, but it won’t provide rapid symptom relief. It may even worsen symptoms if given while there are still signs of fluid overload.

      Digoxin: This drug has a limited role in heart failure management and should not be routinely prescribed. It may be helpful for patients in normal sinus rhythm.

      Ramipril: An ACE inhibitor should be prescribed routinely, but it should not be initiated in patients with suspected valve disease until a specialist has assessed the condition. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist is an alternative if the ACE inhibitor is not tolerated.

      Understanding the appropriate use of these medications can help improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels...

    Incorrect

    • What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment

      Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.

      It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.

      Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).

      One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.

      Repeat investigations show:

      Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.

      What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.

      ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.

      It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old man comes to your GP clinic complaining of feeling generally unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes to your GP clinic complaining of feeling generally unwell and lethargic. His wife notes that he has been eating less than usual and gets tired easily. He has a history of hypertension but no other significant medical history. He drinks alcohol socially and has a stressful job as a banker, which led him to start smoking 15 cigarettes a day for the past 13 years. He believes that work stress is the cause of his symptoms and asks for a recommendation for a counselor to help him manage it. What should be the next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for an urgent Chest X-Ray

      Explanation:

      If a person aged 40 or over has appetite loss and is a smoker, an urgent chest X-ray should be offered within two weeks, according to the updated 2015 NICE guidelines. This is because appetite loss is now considered a potential symptom of lung cancer. While counseling, smoking cessation, and a career change may be helpful, investigating the possibility of lung cancer is the most urgent action required. It is important to address each issue separately, as trying to tackle all three at once could be overwhelming for the patient.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with worsening dyspnea. His ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Congestive Heart Failure

      Congestive heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper treatment to improve survival rates and alleviate symptoms. One of the recommended treatments is the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Enalapril, which have been shown to reduce left ventricular afterload and prolong survival rates. This is particularly important for patients with diabetes mellitus. Antiplatelets like aspirin are only indicated for those with concurrent atherosclerotic arterial disease. Standard drugs like digoxin have not been proven to improve survival rates compared to ACE inhibitors. Diuretics like furosemide provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload but do not improve survival rates. Antiarrhythmic agents like lidocaine are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of congestive heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (2/3) 67%
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