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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been treated in the hospital for her first acute asthma exacerbation. She was previously only taking salbutamol as needed. After 24 hours, she is stable on inhaled salbutamol six puffs four times a day via a spacer and twice-daily steroid inhaler.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this acute asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Continue monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required
Correct Answer: Course of oral steroids
Explanation:Correct and Incorrect Treatment Approaches for Acute Asthma Exacerbation in Children
Acute asthma exacerbation in children requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. Here are some correct and incorrect treatment approaches for this condition:
Course of oral steroids: Giving oral steroids early in the treatment of acute asthma attacks in children is advisable. The initial course length should be tailored to response.
Wean down salbutamol to 2 puffs twice a day before hospital discharge: Weaning down salbutamol to two puffs twice a day before hospital discharge is incorrect. Children may be discharged from hospital once stable on 3- to 4-hourly bronchodilators which can be continued at home.
Addition of salmeterol inhaler: Adding a salmeterol inhaler is incorrect. The initial next step of treatment should be inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) for patients who have had an asthma attack in the last two years.
Continue monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required: Continuing monitoring in hospital until salbutamol is no longer required is incorrect. Children may be discharged from hospital once stable on 3- to 4-hourly bronchodilators which can be continued at home.
IV hydrocortisone: Administering IV hydrocortisone is incorrect. It is reserved for the treatment of acute life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful joint swelling. The haematology laboratory results are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Typhus abdominalis
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Common Pediatric Diseases: Symptoms and Management
Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), Acute lymphocytic leukaemia, Alport’s syndrome, and Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) are some of the common pediatric diseases that require prompt diagnosis and management. HSP is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that often affects children and is associated with IgA dominant immune complexes. ALL is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, causing symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and joint pain. Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary nephritis that can lead to chronic kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities. JRA is characterized by swollen joints, fever, and joint pain. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in these diseases, which may require supportive treatment, pain relief, and monitoring for potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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What advice should you give a young adult (who is NOT pregnant) if they ask what is the recommended amount of alcohol they can consume?
Your Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more
Explanation:Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of increasing fatigue, itchy skin, and pain in the upper right side of her abdomen. She has a medical history of autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism and coeliac disease. The doctor suspects that she may have primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). What is the first test that should be ordered for this patient?
Your Answer: Liver ultrasound scan (USS)
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Tests for Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system. It can lead to the destruction of small bile ducts and eventually cirrhosis. While it may be asymptomatic in the early stages, symptoms such as fatigue, abdominal pain, and dry eyes may develop over time. To diagnose PBC, a blood test for anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most appropriate first step. If positive, a liver ultrasound scan and biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. Other tests, such as an MRI scan or tests for anti-La and anti-Ro antibodies, are not used in the diagnosis of PBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient in her 40s comes in with concerns about her family history of cancer. Which type of cancer is the least likely to be passed down through genetics?
Your Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis is responsible for the majority of cases of colon cancer, while HNPCC is responsible for a smaller percentage. Women with HNPCC have a significantly higher risk of developing endometrial cancer, approximately 5 times higher than the general population.
Cancer is a prevalent disease in the UK, with breast cancer being the most common type. Lung, colorectal, prostate, and bladder cancers also rank high on the list of common cancers. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, melanoma, stomach, oesophagus, and pancreas cancers complete the top ten. However, when it comes to cancer-related deaths, lung cancer takes the lead, followed by colorectal, breast, prostate, and pancreatic cancers. Oesophagus, stomach, bladder, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and ovarian cancers also contribute to cancer-related deaths in the UK. It is important to note that non-melanoma skin cancer is not included in these statistics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has confirmed menopause. She is considering HRT (hormone replacement therapy).
Which of the following conditions has an increased risk of association with oestrogen-only HRT?Your Answer: Cervical cancer
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering synthetic oestrogen and progestogen to women experiencing menopausal symptoms. HRT can be given as local (creams, pessaries, rings) or systemic therapy (oral drugs, transdermal patches and gels, implants) and may contain oestrogen alone, combined oestrogen and progestogen, selective oestrogen receptor modulator, or gonadomimetics. The average age for menopause is around 50-51 years, and symptoms include hot flushes, insomnia, weight gain, mood changes, and irregular menses. HRT should be initiated at the lowest possible dosage and titrated based on clinical response. However, HRT is not recommended for women who have undergone hysterectomy due to the risk of endometrial hyperplasia, a precursor to endometrial cancer. HRT may also increase the risk of breast cancer and heart attacks, and non-hormonal options should be considered for menopausal effects in women who have previously had breast cancer. There is no evidence to suggest that HRT is associated with an increased or decreased risk of developing cervical cancer, and observational studies of systemic HRT after breast cancer are generally reassuring. Oestrogen is believed to be a growth factor that enhances cholinergic neurotransmission and prevents oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage, which may help prevent dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?
Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over the past few months. He is embarrassed because he frequently gives presentations for work and some people have joked that he sounds drunk. Upon examination, there is no droop or drooling in his head and face, but he struggles to articulate certain phrases and has difficulty swallowing. His tongue also appears to fasciculate when he sticks it out. In addition, there is mild weakness and hypotonia in his limbs, but his knees and ankles have slight hyperreflexia. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:The presence of fasciculations, along with upper and lower motor neurone signs, strongly suggests motor neuron disease as the underlying condition. The patient’s difficulty with speech and swallowing may be due to bulbar palsy, which is commonly associated with this disease. A stroke, which typically presents with sudden onset of symptoms, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s progressive symptoms over weeks or months. While a cerebellar tumour may cause slurred speech, it would typically be accompanied by other symptoms such as ataxia, vertigo, and difficulty with basic movements. Multiple sclerosis is an uncommon diagnosis in late-middle-aged men and is an upper motor neurone disease, whereas this patient has a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs. There is no evidence of tremor or bradykinesia in this case.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with dysarthria and left-sided weakness that she noticed earlier today. During the examination, left-sided hemiparesis is observed, and her blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the next appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: CT head with contrast
Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT head
Explanation:Assessment and Investigations for Stroke
Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.
When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions
Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:
1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.
2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.
3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.
4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.
5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 26-year-old man with a family history of adult polycystic kidney disease approaches his GP for screening. What would be the most suitable screening test?
Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen
Explanation:The recommended screening test for adult polycystic kidney disease is ultrasound, while genetic testing is not yet routinely advised for screening relatives.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.
To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.
Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has type 2 diabetes that is currently well managed with dapagliflozin. Upon examination, a purple rash with bullae is observed covering the entire perineum and extending up the scrotum. The patient reports intense pain, but reduced sensation is noted upon palpation of the rash. Vital signs are as follows: BP 110/90 mmHg, heart rate 109bpm, respiration rate 21/minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, which often affects the perineum. The patient is experiencing severe pain, which may be causing his fever and rapid heart and breathing rates. As a type 2 diabetic taking dapagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, his risk of developing necrotizing fasciitis is increased. While cellulitis can have similar symptoms in the early stages, the presence of bullae, purple discoloration, and severe pain in a patient with risk factors for necrotizing fasciitis make it less likely. Septic arthritis is not a likely diagnosis as it affects joint spaces, which is not the case in this patient. Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is associated with inflammatory conditions, is not a likely diagnosis as the rash is not ulcerated and the patient has no history of inflammatory bowel disease or rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.
The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.
Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.
After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
- Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
- Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
- Weber's test: lateralisation to the right
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.
Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.
Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy menstrual bleeding, which has worsened over the past six months. She denies experiencing dysmenorrhea, intermenstrual bleeding, or postcoital bleeding. She has completed her family and does not desire any more children. Her gynecological exam is unremarkable, and her cervical screening is current. What is the preferred treatment option?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia is the intrauterine system (Mirena).
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old baby's head. The baby was delivered using forceps due to a prolonged second stage of labor. Upon examination, there is a swelling in the parietal region that does not cross the suture lines. The doctor informs him that it may take several weeks to resolve. What type of head injury is most likely responsible for this?
Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma
Explanation:A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.
In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fatigue. He is currently taking metformin and gliclazide, but may need to discontinue the latter due to his obesity. After conducting several blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- HbA1c: 66 mmol/mol (< 48)
- Ferritin: 204 ng/mL (25 - 350)
- Bilirubin: 23 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 162 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 120 u/L (3 - 40)
- AST: 109 u/L (3 - 40)
Upon further discussion, the patient denies consuming alcohol. What is the most likely explanation for these abnormal findings?Your Answer: Acute hepatitis secondary to gliclazide
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:When a patient with type 2 diabetes and obesity presents with abnormal liver function tests, the most probable diagnosis is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. To confirm this diagnosis, the patient will need to undergo a liver screen, ultrasound, and liver biopsy. While haemochromatosis should be considered in patients with both abnormal LFTs and diabetes, a normal ferritin level makes this diagnosis less likely.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. He is induced with sevoflurane and maintained on sevoflurane and propofol. Suddenly, an alert on the anesthesia machine pops up, indicating elevated end-tidal CO2. The patient's condition appears to have worsened, with skin mottling and excessive sweating.
What could be the probable cause of this sudden change in the patient's condition?Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation:Volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) can cause malignant hyperthermia, a rare genetic disorder that causes skeletal muscle to contract rapidly and can lead to acidosis, increased CO2, and elevated body temperature. This is the likely cause of the patient’s acute deterioration after receiving sevoflurane. Other potential causes, such as cardiac arrest, endobronchial intubation, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and spontaneous appendix perforation, do not explain the specific symptoms observed.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract infection. Despite treatment with antibiotics, environmental changes, and reassurance, she continues to be agitated. You are contemplating prescribing haloperidol. What is one condition that may be significantly exacerbated by the use of haloperidol?
Your Answer: Parkinson's disease
Explanation:If possible, antipsychotics should be avoided as they can exacerbate Parkinson’s disease symptoms. Instead, a low dose of oral lorazepam may be considered as an alternative.
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.
Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the operating room with a fever and a developing purplish rash. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 1200mg
Correct Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 600mg
Explanation:The RCGP has previously provided feedback that doctors are required to have knowledge of emergency medication dosages, with a specific emphasis on suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia.
Paediatric Drug Doses for Emergency Situations
When it comes to prescribing drugs for children in emergency situations, it is important to consult the current British National Formulary (BNF) beforehand. However, as a guide, the following doses can be used for intramuscular (IM) benzylpenicillin in suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia in the community. For children under one year old, the dose is 300 mg. For children between one and ten years old, the dose is 600mg. For children over ten years old, the dose is 1200mg. It is important to note that these doses are only a guide and should be adjusted based on the individual child’s weight and medical history. Always consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to a child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a chest infection and undergoes a standard blood test in the emergency room. The results show his HbA1c level as follows:
HbA1c 48 mmol/mol (27-48 mmol/mol)
What medical condition could cause this reading to inaccurately reflect his blood sugar levels?Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Correct Answer: Splenectomy
Explanation:If a person has undergone a splenectomy, their HbA1c level may be falsely elevated due to the longer lifespan of their red blood cells. HbA1c testing is commonly used to determine diabetes, as it provides an average blood glucose level over a three-month period, which is the lifespan of a typical red blood cell. A higher HbA1c reading can be caused by either a higher average blood glucose concentration or a longer red cell lifespan. Therefore, only a splenectomy would result in an overestimation of blood sugar levels, as it increases the lifespan of red blood cells, while all other conditions would decrease their lifespan and lower the HbA1c reading.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman, who has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, visits your GP clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observe no discernible features of the retina or disc. However, you do notice redness in the vitreous. What is the probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Vitreous hemorrhage caused by proliferative retinopathy is more frequently observed in individuals with T1DM compared to T2DM. This is due to the presence of retinal neovascularization, which results in fragile blood vessels that are susceptible to bleeding. Conversely, vitreous hemorrhage is not typically associated with background, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, or diabetic maculopathy as these conditions do not involve retinal neovascularization.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with sudden-onset back pain radiating down to his feet. He reports weakness in his legs and a tingling sensation around his scrotum. He has experienced urinary incontinence a few times today. Upon examination, he displays decreased power, tone, and sensation in both legs and absent ankle reflexes.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS)
Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Back Pain with Neurological Symptoms
Back pain with neurological symptoms can be a sign of various conditions. Here are some of the differential diagnoses to consider:
Cauda Equina Syndrome
This condition occurs when the lumbar and sacral nerve roots are compressed, leading to bilateral sciatica, neurological deficit in the legs, urinary retention or incontinence, faecal incontinence, and saddle paraesthesia. It is an emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent irreversible damage to the spinal nerves.Guillain–Barré Syndrome (GBS)
GBS is a rare acute polyneuropathy that causes gradually worsening, ascending muscle weakness, usually starting in the legs and potentially affecting respiratory function. It rarely presents with sensory symptoms, making it an unlikely diagnosis for a patient with acute back pain and sciatica.Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
MS is a chronic inflammatory condition of the central nervous system that leads to demyelination. Patients may present with various neurological symptoms, such as visual disturbance, sensory loss, limb weakness, or urinary symptoms. However, sudden onset of back pain is not a typical feature of MS.Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Spinal Cord
This rare condition is caused by untreated vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with gradually developing symptoms, such as unsteadiness, leg weakness, sensory or visual disturbances, and memory problems. However, lower motor-neurone signs in the legs and acute back pain are not typical features of subacute spinal cord degeneration.Urinary-Tract Infection (UTI)
An upper UTI (pyelonephritis) may cause back or loin pain, rigors, vomiting, and urinary symptoms, such as dysuria, increased urinary frequency, or incontinence. However, bilateral sciatica and lower motor-neurone signs are not typical features of a UTI. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?
Your Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline
Explanation:The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia
Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: Side-effects of IUD
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found to have an elevated plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l (reference range 62–106 μmol/l). Her blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg, and fundoscopy reveals mild hypertensive changes and background diabetic retinopathy. She has a neuroischaemic ulcer on her left foot and no palpable pedal pulses. Urine dipstick is negative, and renal ultrasound shows a 8.5-cm left kidney and a 6.2-cm right kidney, with reduced cortical thickness.
What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Renal Dysfunction and Their Clinical Features
Renal dysfunction can have various causes, and identifying the underlying condition is crucial for appropriate management. Here are some common causes of renal dysfunction and their clinical features:
Renal artery stenosis (RAS): RAS can lead to renovascular hypertension and renal impairment, especially in older individuals with atherosclerosis or diabetes mellitus. Symptoms may include sudden worsening of hypertension or renal function, and ultrasonography may show kidney size asymmetry. Treatment options include pharmacologic control of hypertension and serum cholesterol levels, as well as surgical or percutaneous revascularisation in selected cases.
Membranous nephropathy: This is a type of nephrotic syndrome that often presents with oedema and significant proteinuria (>3.5 g/24 h). It is more common in adults and may be asymptomatic in some cases.
Cholesterol emboli syndrome: This condition may occur after an invasive arterial procedure and is characterised by renal dysfunction, hypertension, and distal ischaemia due to small-vessel occlusion. Livedo reticularis and blue toe syndrome may also be present.
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis: This is a complication of diabetes mellitus that can cause persistent albuminuria, declining glomerular filtration rate, and elevated blood pressure. Physical findings associated with long-term diabetes may also be present.
Reflux nephropathy: This condition is caused by the backflow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys and can lead to renal scarring. It is more common in children with urinary tract abnormalities but can also occur in adults with bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder. Symptoms may include nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infection.
In summary, renal dysfunction can have diverse causes and presentations, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to establish the diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history of restricting food intake weight loss and excessive exercise. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: Which Ones Are Necessary?
When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, certain medical investigations may be necessary to evaluate their overall health and identify any potential complications. However, not all investigations are routinely required. Here is a breakdown of some common investigations and when they may be necessary:
Electrocardiogram (ECG): A baseline ECG is important to assess for any cardiovascular instability, including heart rate and QT interval. Electrolyte abnormalities from eating disorders can impact cardiac stability.
24-hour Holter monitor: This investigation may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.
Chest X-ray (CXR): A CXR is not routinely required unless there is clinical concern of other respiratory symptoms.
Serum prolactin: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
Transthoracic echocardiography: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a clinical history or examination findings to suggest imaging of the heart is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain usually occurs after running and is accompanied by occasional swelling and joint locking. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults
Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.
Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.
Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.
Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A patient in his late 60s with advanced prostate cancer and bone metastases receives intravenous zoledronic acid for pain and bone fractures. However, he presents to the emergency department three days later with muscle spasms, body aches, and tingling around his lips. Additionally, he reports worsening nausea and vomiting since the day after the infusion. What are the expected serum study results for this patient?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct any hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency in the patient. This is especially important for patients with metastatic prostate cancer who may experience symptoms such as muscle spasms, tingling sensations, and nausea/vomiting, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. Bisphosphonates like zoledronic acid reduce bone turnover, which can further exacerbate the effects of calcium or vitamin D deficiency on serum calcium levels. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hypernatremia are unlikely to occur as a result of bisphosphonate therapy and are therefore incorrect options.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents for follow-up. He is currently on lisinopril 10 mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and aspirin 75mg once daily. His blood pressure is well managed at 126/78 mmHg. However, he informs the healthcare provider that he is scheduled for a tooth extraction next week. What guidance should be provided regarding his aspirin regimen?
Your Answer: Take aspirin as normal
Explanation:According to the BNF section on ‘Prescribing in dental practice’, patients who are taking anti-platelets should not discontinue their medication and should continue taking it as prescribed.
The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Correct
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As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?Your Answer: Section 4
Explanation:In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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