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Question 1
Correct
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription chart for a premature baby born at twenty-six weeks. While reviewing the chart, you come across sildenafil. Can you explain the purpose of sildenafil in neonatal care?
Your Answer: Treating pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Sildenafil, also known as Viagra, is typically used to treat erectile dysfunction in adults. However, it can also be used to treat pulmonary hypertension in neonates. The appropriate method for calming a distressed neonate depends on the underlying cause, which is often related to respiratory distress or pain. Gaviscon and ranitidine are sometimes used to treat gastro-oesophageal reflux, although this is not an approved use. Caffeine is sometimes used to help wean a neonate off a ventilator.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 21-year-old female inpatient on the surgical ward developed sudden uncontrollable eye movements, with prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Dystonic Reactions: A Comparison of Common Drugs
Metoclopramide, carbamazepine, cyclopentolate, lidocaine, and procyclidine are all drugs that can cause various side effects, including disturbances in eye movement. However, when it comes to dystonic reactions, metoclopramide and procyclidine are the most likely culprits. Metoclopramide, commonly used for nausea and vomiting, can induce acute dystonic reactions involving facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. On the other hand, procyclidine, an anti-muscarinic drug, is useful in the immediate treatment of a drug-induced oculogyric crisis. Understanding the differences between these drugs and their potential side effects is crucial in providing appropriate treatment for patients experiencing dystonic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for her annual medication review. Her regular medications are levothyroxine 75 µg, lisinopril 10 mg and she has recently completed a course of ibuprofen tablets. She has been feeling tired and sluggish recently with frequent headaches. Examination reveals she has gained 2 kg since her last review, blood pressure is 142/78 mmHg, pulse is 88 bpm and she has a dry skin. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests are normal. Her thyroid-function test (TFT) results are: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 mU/l (0.25–4.0 mU/l) Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (12.0–22.0 pmol/l) What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer: Increased dose of levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Reduce levothyroxine dose
Explanation:The patient is experiencing hyperthyroidism due to an excess of levothyroxine replacement. It is important to reduce the dose of levothyroxine and monitor the patient with regular blood tests until they become euthyroid again. Starting carbimazole or increasing the dose of levothyroxine is not recommended as it could lead to further complications. Propylthiouracil is only used in cases of thyrotoxic storm and radio-iodine therapy is not necessary in this case as the hyperthyroidism is due to over-replacement of levothyroxine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with yellowing of the eyes. During the examination, spider naevi are observed, and the liver is tender and enlarged. The blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 11.6 g/dl, Plt 145 * 109/l, WCC 6.4 * 109/l, Albumin 33 g/l, Bilirubin 78 µmol/l, and ALT 245 iu/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:When a young female experiences both abnormal liver function tests and a lack of menstrual periods, it is highly indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.
Understanding Autoimmune Hepatitis
Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects mostly young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.
Autoimmune hepatitis may present with signs of chronic liver disease, and only 25% of cases present with acute hepatitis symptoms such as fever and jaundice. Amenorrhea is a common symptom. Diagnosis is made through the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate, piecemeal necrosis, and bridging necrosis.
Management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide) for a confirmed diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. During a respiratory follow up, the patient reports a decline in vision, particularly a decrease in the vibrancy of colors. What modification would you suggest for the medication?
Your Answer: Stop isoniazid
Correct Answer: Stop ethambutol
Explanation:The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.
Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.
Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 6
Correct
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You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at 34 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate is having trouble starting to breathe and needs resuscitation. They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min. Upon listening to the chest, there is decreased breath sounds on both sides. Heart sounds are displaced towards the middle. The abdominal wall looks sunken. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:The appearance of a scaphoid abdomen is a common presentation of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which occurs when abdominal contents protrude into the chest cavity. This condition can cause breathing difficulties and rapid breathing in newborns. The characteristic auscultation findings are caused by underdeveloped lungs and compression due to the presence of abdominal organs in the chest. Immediate medical attention and respiratory support are necessary. It is important to note that this specific concave abdominal appearance is not seen in any other conditions mentioned.
Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.
The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.
Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden eye pain, sensitivity to light, and feeling like there was something in his right eye after taking out his contact lens. Upon fluorescein examination, the cornea showed uptake. What is the initial treatment recommended for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Topical antibiotic
Explanation:To prevent secondary bacterial infection, topical antibiotics should be administered for a patient with a likely diagnosis of corneal abrasion. It is crucial to use fluorescein to confirm the integrity of the corneal epithelium. While topical lubricant can be used, it is not the primary treatment. Topical anaesthesia is not recommended as it may cause further corneal abrasion due to loss of sensation. Topical steroid is not used to treat corneal abrasion. Simply observing and waiting for the condition to improve is not an appropriate approach.
Understanding Corneal Abrasion
Corneal abrasion is a condition that occurs when there is damage to the corneal epithelium, which is the outermost layer of the cornea. This type of injury is often caused by local trauma, such as scratching the eye with fingernails or getting hit by a branch. The symptoms of corneal abrasion include eye pain, tearing, sensitivity to light, a feeling of having a foreign object in the eye, and redness of the conjunctiva. In addition, the affected eye may experience a decrease in visual acuity.
To diagnose corneal abrasion, doctors typically use fluorescein staining. This involves placing a special dye in the eye that will highlight any areas of damage to the cornea. The abrasion will appear as a yellow-stained area on the surface of the eye. To enhance visualization, doctors may use a cobalt blue filter or a Wood’s lamp.
The treatment for corneal abrasion typically involves the use of topical antibiotics to prevent secondary bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin that causes her discomfort and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be unaffected. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Submandibular Swelling
One possible diagnosis for a painful submandibular swelling is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition is more common in men over 40 and typically causes pain and swelling after eating. Adenoid cystic carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area and can invade local structures such as the facial nerve. Pleomorphic adenomas usually present as a painless lump that slowly enlarges, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands bilaterally. Warthin’s tumour, which is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland, does not typically present as a painful lump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his axillary skin. He reports feeling otherwise healthy and denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, you observe thickened and darkened skin in the axillary creases. The patient's BMI is 38 kg/m² and his blood pressure is within normal limits. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:A thickened brown velvety patch of skin, often accompanied by skin tags, is a common sign of Acanthosis nigricans (AN). This condition is typically found in the axilla, groin, and back of the neck. However, AN is not a standalone condition, but rather a cutaneous sign of underlying disease. The most common type of AN is associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Other underlying conditions linked to AN include Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain medications such as nicotinic acid, insulin, and systemic corticosteroids. In rare cases, AN may indicate an underlying malignancy, particularly stomach cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this possibility when making a diagnosis.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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In a diabetes specialist clinic you are about to review a 62-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who is not responding to dietary advice and weight reduction. He therefore needs to commence taking an oral hypoglycaemic agent.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the oral hypoglycaemic agents used in the management of diabetes mellitus?Your Answer: Glitazones are associated with significant hepatotoxicity
Correct Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase
Explanation:Acarbose works by inhibiting the enzymes responsible for breaking down carbohydrates, specifically α-glucosidase enzymes found in the small intestine and pancreatic a-amylase. On the other hand, metformin reduces the production of glucose in the liver and increases insulin sensitivity, resulting in increased glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Unlike sulfonylureas, metformin does not increase insulin secretion and has a lower risk of hypoglycemia. Sulfonylureas, on the other hand, increase insulin secretion by binding to ATP-sensitive K+ channels in pancreatic b-cells, but have no effect on peripheral insulin sensitivity. While the newer glitazones, rosiglitazone and pioglitazone, are not associated with hepatotoxicity, troglitazone, an older glitazone, was withdrawn due to drug-related hepatitis. Pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of heart failure, bladder cancer, and bone fracture, and should be used with caution in high-risk individuals. Clinicians should regularly review the safety and efficacy of pioglitazone in patients to ensure that only those who benefit continue to receive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.
Admission bloods show:
Na+ 149 mmol/l
K+ 5.2 mmol/l
Urea 22.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 254 µmol/l
His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.
What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline
Explanation:Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.
Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.
Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).
The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.
Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.
Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.
Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a sore throat. He has a Centor score of 4 due to the presence of a fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough, and white exudate on his tonsils. He is allergic to penicillin and takes simvastatin as his only medication. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe for his sore throat?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:A patient with a Centor score of 4 likely has acute group A streptococcal tonsillitis and requires antibiotics. However, the patient is allergic to penicillins and takes simvastatin, which is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzymes. Phenoxymethylpenicillin, the usual first-line treatment, cannot be used due to the allergy. Macrolides such as clarithromycin and erythromycin should also be avoided as they inhibit the cytochrome P450 enzymes and can increase the risk of statin-induced myopathy. Co-amoxiclav is not an option either. Therefore, doxycycline is the best choice as it is not a penicillin and does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzymes, allowing for concurrent use with simvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old professional basketball player presents with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. Auscultation reveals a 2/6 mid-systolic murmur in the mitral area that increases upon sudden standing. The ECG shows LVH and Q waves in V1–4 leads.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Dyspnoea and a Murmur: Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition that can lead to sudden death in young athletes and is characterized by dyspnoea, LVH, and a loud S4. The systolic murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy does not radiate to the carotids and can be differentiated from aortic stenosis, which causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that does radiate to the carotids. Young-onset hypertension is unlikely to cause a murmur, and acute myocardial infarction would show ST elevation or depression on ECG, but not LVH. Atrial septal defect is usually picked up in newborn checks and presents with a brief murmur in early systole and early diastole, while hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with a double or triple apical impulse and a characteristic jerky carotid pulse. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy to prevent sudden death in young athletes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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A 56-year-old HIV positive man presents to your clinic with complaints of haemoptysis and worsening shortness of breath after completing treatment for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. A chest x-ray shows an apical mass in the right lung lobe. He responds well to treatment with itraconazole and steroids. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:Aspergilloma is a type of fungal growth that typically affects individuals with weakened immune systems or those who have pre-existing lung conditions like tuberculosis or emphysema. Common symptoms include coughing, fever, and coughing up blood. Treatment typically involves the use of antifungal medications like itraconazole.
Haemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can be caused by a variety of conditions. Lung cancer is a common cause, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Symptoms of malignancy, such as weight loss and anorexia, may also be present. Pulmonary oedema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, can cause dyspnoea (shortness of breath) and is often accompanied by bibasal crackles and an S3 heart sound. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, can cause fever, night sweats, anorexia, and weight loss. Pulmonary embolism, a blockage in the pulmonary artery, can cause pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and tachypnoea (rapid breathing). Lower respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, typically have an acute onset and are characterized by a purulent cough. Bronchiectasis, a chronic lung condition, is often associated with a long history of cough and daily production of purulent sputum. Mitral stenosis, a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart, can cause dyspnoea, atrial fibrillation, and a malar flush on the cheeks. Aspergilloma, a fungal infection that often occurs in individuals with a past history of tuberculosis, can cause severe haemoptysis and is characterized by a rounded opacity on chest x-ray. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, an autoimmune disease, can affect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts and is associated with symptoms such as epistaxis (nosebleeds), sinusitis, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. Goodpasture’s syndrome, another autoimmune disease, can cause haemoptysis and systemic symptoms such as fever and nausea, as well as glomerulonephritis (inflammation of the kidney’s filtering units).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the past 4 months. He has also noticed a decline in hearing from his left ear over the past 2 weeks. During the examination, Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is louder than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test shows lateralisation to the right ear. Which of the following conditions is likely to present with unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss?
Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:The traditional presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a blend of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing impairment, tinnitus, and a missing corneal reflex.
An acoustic neuroma is typically linked to one-sided tinnitus and hearing loss.
Tinnitus and deafness are not commonly associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a condition characterized by demyelination.
Chronic otitis media is a persistent inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity, which is marked by recurring otorrhoea and conductive hearing loss.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 2 year old child is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by their mother due to a fever, barking cough, and difficulty breathing at night. The child has been diagnosed with croup and you have been requested to review their condition. Upon conducting a thorough history and assessment, you determine that there is no presence of stridor or respiratory distress. What would be your next course of action in managing this case?
Your Answer: Give antibiotics
Correct Answer: Give oral dexamethasone
Explanation:For mild croup, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately, regardless of the severity. The severity of croup is determined by factors such as respiratory rate, respiratory distress, heart rate, O2 saturations, and exhaustion. Treatment for severe croup includes systemic dexamethasone and nebulized adrenaline (5ml of 1:1000), along with oxygen administration. Antibiotics should only be given if there is suspicion of an underlying bacterial infection. It is not recommended to perform an ENT exam due to the risk of an epiglottis diagnosis.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and a presumptive diagnosis of minimal change glomerulonephritis is made. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:A renal biopsy should only be considered if the response to steroids is inadequate.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Migraine can be a debilitating condition that affects many people, but there is no one-size-fits-all solution for managing it. Which of the following is the best statement about migraine.
Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of cerebral blood vessels is characteristic of migraine
Correct Answer: Over half of all patients have their first attack before the age of 20
Explanation:Understanding Migraines: Facts and Diagnostic Criteria
Migraines are a common neurological disorder that affects people of all ages. Here are some important facts to know about migraines:
– The first attack of migraine often occurs in childhood or teenage years, with over half of all patients experiencing their first attack before the age of 20.
– Migraine attacks can last for a few hours to several days, with the International Headache Society diagnostic criteria requiring at least five episodes of headache lasting 4-72 hours.
– While aura is estimated to accompany headache in only a quarter to a third of patients, over half of all patients experience aura before the headache.
– Migraine is classically described as a unilateral, pulsating headache, but subsequent migraines can affect the same side or be bilateral.
– The release of vasogenic amines from blood vessel walls, accompanied by pulsatile distension, is believed to be responsible for migrainous attacks.
– A good history is important in diagnosing migraines, as patients may self-diagnose and overlook other factors such as combined oral contraception.In summary, migraines are a complex neurological disorder that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Understanding the facts and diagnostic criteria can help with proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism. Her blood tests confirm that she is currently experiencing thyrotoxicosis. She is hoping to conceive and wants to discuss her treatment options.
What is the most suitable treatment for her condition in this scenario?Your Answer: 12–18 months of carbimazole
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism in Women Planning a Pregnancy
When it comes to treating hyperthyroidism in women who are planning a pregnancy, there are several options to consider. Definitive treatment, such as thyroidectomy, is the preferred option as it eliminates the risk of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy and the need for medication that could harm the fetus. However, following thyroidectomy, the patient will need thyroxine replacement and should wait until she is euthyroid before trying to conceive.
Propylthiouracil and thyroxine are not recommended for use during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal goitre or hypothyroidism. Carbimazole is teratogenic and should not be started in women planning a pregnancy. Propylthiouracil can be used in low doses if there is no other suitable alternative.
Radioactive iodine is highly effective but is contraindicated in women planning a pregnancy within six months. This option can be considered if the patient is willing to continue contraception until six months after treatment. Ultimately, the best course of action will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest. He reports no recent illness or injury. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine 5mg daily. He is a smoker with a BMI of 30 kg/m². On examination, there is no visible deformity in his lower limbs, and his calves are soft and nontender bilaterally with no edema. The ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.8. The patient is started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. What other treatment should be prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend that patients with peripheral arterial disease should be treated with clopidogrel and atorvastatin. This patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease caused by atherosclerosis. It is important to differentiate this from critical limb ischaemia, which is characterised by pain at rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index of < 0.9 suggests PAD, with an index < 0.5 suggesting critical limb ischaemia. This patient has several risk factors, including smoking, hypertension and obesity. Aspirin is not the first-line antiplatelet for PAD and should only be used if clopidogrel is not tolerated. Low molecular weight heparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis, which is characterised by unilateral calf pain and swelling with tenderness along the deep venous system. Metformin is indicated for diabetes mellitus, which cannot be diagnosed without a HbA1c or blood glucose reading. Regular glucose checks are recommended for patients with vascular risk factors. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Correct
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A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her feet. She has no other significant medical history. What is the recommended initial treatment to alleviate her pain?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy with a history of asthma is being evaluated. He is currently receiving treatment with a salbutamol inhaler as needed and beclometasone inhaler 100mcg twice daily. However, he frequently requires salbutamol for exacerbations and experiences a nighttime cough.
In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Aspiration of the cyst
Explanation:Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.
Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 26
Correct
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As a GPST on a psychiatry placement, you encounter a 75-year-old patient who has been brought in by the police under Section 136. The patient is displaying confusion and aggression towards the nursing team, making it difficult to provide care. Despite attempts to offer oral medication, the patient has refused all treatment and has also declined an ECG. What is the most appropriate medication to administer in order to quickly calm this patient?
Your Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:When it comes to quickly calming down patients who are exhibiting disruptive behavior, oral lorazepam is typically the first choice. According to NICE guidelines, either intramuscular lorazepam or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be used for rapid tranquilization in patients with acute behavioral disturbances. However, lorazepam is recommended for patients who have not previously taken antipsychotic medication and for those whose heart health is uncertain.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?
Your Answer: Lower limb doppler
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic. The child's eczema is typically managed well with emollients, but the parents are worried as the facial eczema has worsened significantly overnight. The child now has painful blisters clustered on both cheeks, around the mouth, and on the neck. The child's temperature is 37.9ºC. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, which is a severe condition.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Correct
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Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. What is true about this type of cancer?
Your Answer: The tumour is confined to myometrial invasion in stage 1 of the FIGO staging system.
Explanation:Understanding Endometrial Cancer: Causes, Stages, and Treatment Options
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. It is the most common female genital cancer in the developing world, and an estimated 3% of women in developed countries will be diagnosed with this malignancy at some point in their lifetime. Here are some key points to understand about endometrial cancer:
Causes:
– It is more common among women using progestogen-containing oral contraceptives.
– Non-hormonal uterine devices have also been found to be strongly protective.
– There are two pathogenic types of endometrial cancer, one of which is associated with obesity, hyperlipidaemia, signs of hyperoestrogenism, and other disease states.Stages:
– The FIGO staging system is used to determine the stage of endometrial cancer.
– Staging is the most important prognostic factor.
– The earlier endometrial cancer is diagnosed, the higher the rate of survival at 5 years.Treatment:
– Standard management of endometrial cancer at diagnosis involves surgery, followed by chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy.
– It is most effectively treated by a combination of radiotherapy and hormone-based chemotherapy.
– The prognosis varies depending on the stage and type of endometrial cancer.Overall, understanding the causes, stages, and treatment options for endometrial cancer is important for early detection and effective management of this malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is screened for hepatitis B following a needlestick injury at work. Her test findings are as follows:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBs positive
IgG anti-HBc negative
IgM anti-HBc negative
What is the doctor's interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Previous immunisation
Explanation:These test results indicate that the patient has been previously immunized against hepatitis B. The vaccine used for immunization only contains the surface antigen, so the absence of antibodies to the core antigen is expected.
If the patient had an acute infection, they would test positive for the hepatitis B antigen and likely have positive IgG and IgM antibodies for the core antigen, but not for the surface antigen.
In the case of a chronic infection, the patient would test positive for the antigen and likely have a positive IgG antibody to the core protein, but a negative IgM antibody and no antibody response to the surface protein.
A negative result for all four tests would indicate no previous infection or immunization.
If the patient had a previous, resolved infection, they would test positive for both anti-HBs and anti-HBc, but the absence of HBsAg would indicate that they are not currently infected.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe headache at the back of her head, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and a subsequent CT angiogram shows an aneurysmal bleed on the posterior cerebral artery. Assuming that the patient's vital signs and Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score remain stable, what is the definitive treatment plan for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Craniotomy and open clipping of the aneurysm
Correct Answer: Coiling of the aneurysm
Explanation:After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, the preferred treatment for most intracranial aneurysms is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is the most probable course of action given the patient’s stable condition. If the patient showed signs of raised intracranial pressure, such as haemodynamic instability or a change in GCS, craniotomy and clipping of the aneurysm might be considered. However, regardless of whether the aneurysm is coiled or clipped, the primary objective is to prevent further bleeding by mechanically occluding the aneurysm, preferably within the first 24 hours. Therefore, the other options are unlikely to be the correct and definitive management for the patient’s condition.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with bloody diarrhoea, vomiting and fever. Her siblings and parents have also had similar symptoms after attending a birthday party at a local park. Her stool sample is positive for E. Coli and the Paediatric Team are concerned that she has haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) secondary to this infection.
Which of the following results are most likely to be found if this patient is suffering from HUS?
Your Answer: Acute renal failure, low platelets, low haemoglobin
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition characterized by the simultaneous occurrence of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. This set of blood tests shows all three of these symptoms, indicating a possible diagnosis of HUS. HUS is most commonly found in children, with 90% of cases caused by Shiga toxin-producing E. coli. However, a patient with normal renal function and high platelet count is unlikely to have HUS, as low platelet count is a typical symptom. If a patient has ongoing diarrhoea or vomiting due to E. coli infection, they may require intravenous fluids to support their renal function. A raised haemoglobin level is not expected in HUS, as patients usually have reduced haemoglobin due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Additionally, HUS typically causes thrombocytopenia, not high platelet count. In some cases, children with HUS may require platelet transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite taking the highest dosage of bisoprolol, she experiences chest pain during physical activity, which hinders her daily routine as she frequently needs to take breaks and rest after walking short distances. Her pain never occurs while at rest, and she has no known allergies or drug sensitivities. What is the recommended course of action for managing Samantha's condition?
Your Answer: Refer to cardiology
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines (2019), if a beta-blocker is not effectively controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB) like amlodipine should be added. It is important to ensure that the patient is taking the highest tolerated dose of their current medications before adding new ones.
Ramipril is not the best treatment option for this patient as there is no evidence of hypertension in their medical history. While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can be effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke in patients with angina and hypertension, they are not indicated in this case.
Verapamil is a CCB that can be used to manage angina, but it should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker as this can increase the risk of severe bradycardia and heart failure.
As the patient is not displaying any signs of unstable angina, such as pain at rest or rapidly progressing symptoms, admission to the emergency department is not necessary.
If there is evidence of extensive ischaemia on an electrocardiograph (ECG) or the patient is not responding well to an optimised drug treatment, referral to cardiology for angioplasty may be necessary.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 34
Correct
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As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic in the morning with a deformity in his right hand. He denies any tingling or numbness but mentions experiencing slight difficulty in using his hand, particularly when writing. The little and ring fingers appear to be slightly flexed, with no observable weakness. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Dupuytren's contracture
Explanation:Dupuytren’s contracture is characterized by the thickening of the palmar aponeurosis, resulting in the inward bending of the medial digits. This can severely affect hand function, but does not involve any sensory issues, making nerve palsy unlikely. Ganglions typically appear as cystic swellings on the back of the hand, while trigger finger is associated with a digit catching or snapping during flexion.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present for five days. He reports no associated shortness of breath, cough, collapse, or pleuritic nature of the chest pain. The patient had a recent sore throat and headache last week, which has since resolved. There is no family history of sudden cardiac death in a first-degree relative, and the patient has never smoked.
Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 125/89 mmHg, heart rate is 95/min, temperature is 37.3ºC, and oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Pulsus paradoxus is not present. Blood results reveal Hb of 154 g/L, platelets of 425 * 109/L, WBC of 11.5 * 109/L, Na+ of 137 mmol/L, K+ of 4.6 mmol/L, urea of 6.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, CRP of 40 mg/L, and Troponin T of 13 ng/L. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in lead I, II, III, aVL, V5, and V6, and PR segment elevation in aVR.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Myocarditis
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The ECG changes in this patient suggest pericarditis, given their young age, widespread ST-segment elevation, and normal troponin levels. While PR segment depression is typically seen in pericarditis, note that the PR segment may be elevated in aVR. Myocarditis would be a possible diagnosis if the troponin levels were elevated. Infective endocarditis is less likely due to the absence of fever and ECG changes consistent with pericarditis. Although cardiac tamponade is a potential complication of pericarditis, it is unlikely in this case as the patient’s blood pressure is normal and pulsus paradoxus is not present.
Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 37
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with a 9-day history of cramping abdominal pain, fever and diarrhoea, opening his bowels up to 7 times per day. He has a past medical history of COPD and reports to have completed 2 courses of antibiotics to treat an exacerbation within the last 2 weeks.
After being diagnosed with a likely infection, the patient is started on oral vancomycin but shows little improvement. The treatment is then switched to fidaxomicin, but he still reports ongoing pain and diarrhoea even after completing the course.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole
Explanation:If the initial treatment of C. difficile with vancomycin or fidaxomicin is ineffective, the next step should be to administer oral vancomycin with or without intravenous metronidazole.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 38
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office in a distressed state. Her 4-year-old daughter passed away a few weeks ago due to a car accident. During the consultation, she reveals that she is having trouble sleeping, cannot function normally, and experiences severe stomach cramps. She admits to having thoughts of wishing she had died instead of her daughter, but denies any current suicidal thoughts. She also mentions seeing her daughter sitting on the couch at home, but acknowledges that it is not real. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?
Your Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Experiencing a grief reaction is common after a significant loss, and it can manifest with physical and psychological symptoms that can last up to six months. It can be challenging to differentiate between depression and a typical grief reaction since they share similar symptoms. However, a regular grief reaction typically lasts less than six months, while depression can persist for a more extended period. Although she has brief visual hallucinations, psychosis is an incorrect diagnosis since she does not exhibit any other indications.
Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 39
Correct
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Generalised myositis is a known side effect of certain drugs. Among the options listed below, which drug is most likely to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Muscle Effects of Common Medications
Many medications can have effects on muscles, including statins, metoclopramide, amitriptyline, cyclizine, and venlafaxine. Statins can increase the risk of muscle toxicity, especially in patients with a history of muscular disorders, high alcohol intake, renal impairment, or hypothyroidism. Metoclopramide is associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and acute dystonic reactions, but not generalised myositis. Amitriptyline and cyclizine are rarely associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and tremor, and amitriptyline may cause myalgia on drug withdrawal. Venlafaxine commonly causes hypertonia and tremor, and more rarely myoclonus, but not generalised myositis. It is important to be aware of these potential muscle effects when prescribing and monitoring these medications.
Muscle Effects of Commonly Prescribed Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 40
Correct
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A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.
On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?Your Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Explanation:An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She has been experiencing headaches, fatigue, and body aches for the past week. She has also been complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. This morning, her mother noticed swollen glands on both sides of her neck. The mother asks if her daughter can still attend school.
What would be your advice to the mother?Your Answer: She can only go back to school after the swellings are resolved and she feels completely back to normal
Correct Answer: She should be kept off school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands
Explanation:If a child develops swollen glands due to mumps, they should stay away from school for 5 days starting from the day the swelling began. As the child’s swollen glands started one day ago, they should not attend school for the next 5 days. Waiting for a month is not necessary, but the child should not return to school until the 5-day exclusion period is over, even if the swelling has not completely resolved. The option suggesting waiting until all swellings have resolved before returning to school is incorrect.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. Influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms of her hands. She reports that these rashes tend to occur every summer. Despite trying over-the-counter emollients and antihistamines, there has been only marginal improvement. The patient is otherwise healthy with no other medical conditions and does not smoke.
During examination, bilateral vesicles are observed on the palms and sides of the fingers. The palms appear dry with areas of skin peeling, while the rest of her body is unaffected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pompholyx eczema
Explanation:Palmoplantar pustulosis is often accompanied by psoriasis on other areas of the body and is strongly linked to smoking. Unlike pompholyx eczema, the connection to high temperatures and humidity is not as significant. Scabies, which is caused by the parasite Sarcoptes scabiei, results in severe itching of the hands and web spaces but is typically not a recurring issue. Symptoms include linear burrows and erythematous papules rather than vesicles.
Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by high temperatures and humidity, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation by wearing gloves or protective footwear and avoiding exposure to irritants. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of a lump in his testicle. During the examination, the lump disappears when he lies down. The scrotum shows dilated veins, while the abdominal examination is unremarkable. He expresses concern about his inability to conceive despite trying. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Varicocoele
Explanation:Common Causes of Testicular Lumps: Varicocele, Epididymitis, Hydrocele, Inguinal Hernia, and Testicular Teratoma
Testicular lumps can be a cause for concern and require medical attention. Here are some common causes of testicular lumps:
Varicocele: This is a painless swelling of the testes on the left side, which can be described as a bag of worms within the spermatic cord above the testis. It tends to occur in those aged 12+ years and is rare in pre-pubertal boys. Varicoceles are associated with male infertility, and a quarter of men with abnormal semen parameters will have a varicocele.
Epididymitis: This is inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by infection such as chlamydia infection, gonorrhoea, mumps, bacterial coliforms or syphilis. It may present as acute testicular pain, swelling and tenderness, and associated symptoms include urethritis, increased urinary frequency and dysuria. Systemic symptoms may include fever and rigors.
Hydrocele: This is a non-tender, painless, cystic scrotal swelling below and anterior to the testes. It will normally transilluminate and does not tend to reduce on lying flat. Although hydroceles can fluctuate in size and are affected by movement, they are not usually a cause for concern.
Inguinal hernia: This is a condition where a part of the intestine or other tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles, causing a lump in the groin or scrotum. If reducible, the lump may disappear on lying flat.
Testicular teratoma: This is a solid testicular lump within the testis, which is suggestive of a tumour. Testicular cancers can be subdivided into seminomas, teratomas and yolk-sac tumours. Over 95% of testicular cancers arise from the germ cells. Teratomas typically present at age 20–30 years, whereas seminomas typically present at age 35–45 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening right knee pain and limited mobility. He reports falling off his bike a few days ago but did not experience any knee pain until yesterday. Upon examination, the right knee appears red and hot with only 20º of flexion and a small effusion. The patient has a history of a conservatively treated ACL rupture in the other knee.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, saturations 98% on room air, blood pressure 102/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelets of 500 * 109/L, a white cell count of 13.6 * 109/L, a sodium level of 142 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.0 mmol/L, a urea level of 4.0 mmol/L, a creatinine level of 110 µmol/L, and a CRP level of 130 mg/L. X-ray results show no obvious bony injury.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic review
Explanation:Septic arthritis is most commonly observed in adults’ knees, which presents as sudden joint pain and immobility, accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers. Urgent orthopaedic evaluation is necessary for aspiration and potential washout, as untreated septic arthritis can lead to joint destruction within hours to days. Discharging the patient with oral antibiotics or physiotherapy is not recommended. Administering colchicine is not appropriate as there is no history of gout or pseudogout, and X-ray results do not indicate chondrocalcinosis. Ordering an MRI knee scan may delay appropriate treatment and will not impact management.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Correct
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A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.
Explanation:Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 46
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks. She has been unwell with a cough and cold for one week. The rash is purpuric, macular and symmetrical to both buttocks and legs, and is non-blanching.
Which of the following is the likely cause?
Select the SINGLE cause from the list below.Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Common Childhood Vasculitis
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a common vasculitis of childhood that affects small vessels. It typically occurs in children, with 50% of cases in under-5s. The exact cause of the immune-mediated vasculitis is unknown, but it commonly follows a viral or streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). Classic features include a non-blanching rash (palpable purpura, usually of the lower limbs), abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement/glomerulonephritis.
Possible complications of HSP include glomerulonephritis and renal failure, gastrointestinal bleed/intussusception, and pulmonary hemorrhage. Treatment is usually supportive, and the condition is self-limiting in most patients.
Other conditions, such as intertrigo, meningococcal disease, slapped cheek disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences. For example, intertrigo affects skinfolds, meningococcal disease presents with red flags such as fever and headache, slapped cheek disease has a facial rash that precedes a rash on the limbs, and SLE typically has vague and insidious systemic symptoms before skin changes.
Investigations for HSP include bloods, blood pressure monitoring, and urinalysis. Treatment usually involves observation and monitoring, with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief and sometimes corticosteroids given.
In summary, HSP is a common childhood vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement. It often follows a recent illness such as an upper respiratory tract infection and is usually self-limiting. Other conditions may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 47
Correct
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A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an excruciating one-sided headache. He reports the pain is unbearable and situated behind his right eye. During the examination, his right eye appears red and watery, with a small pupil, and the patient seems restless. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has been experiencing these headaches every night for a few weeks. What medication can be administered for long-term prevention of these headaches?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil is utilized to prevent cluster headaches in the long term, while sumatriptan is employed as an immediate rescue therapy in conjunction with high-flow oxygen. It is important to carefully read the question to ensure the correct medication is selected. Propranolol is used for migraine prevention, while sertraline, an SSRI, is used to treat depression and has a similar mechanism of action to sumatriptan.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.
To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with indigestion has been taking her friend's omeprazole for the past week, which has improved her symptoms. You want to check for the presence of Helicobacter pylori by using a stool antigen test (SAT) or a carbon-13-labelled urea breath test (UBT). What is the recommended waiting period after stopping a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) before conducting these tests?
Your Answer: 2-day washout period for either UBT or SAT
Correct Answer: 2-week washout period for either UBT or SAT
Explanation:H. pylori Testing and Treatment Guidelines
To ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for H. pylori infection, it is recommended that adults with dyspepsia or reflux symptoms undergo a 2-week washout period before testing for H. pylori if they are receiving PPI therapy. This applies to both the carbon-13-labelled urea breath test (UBT) and stool antigen test (SAT). Testing should not be performed within two weeks of PPI use, as this can lead to false negatives.
Patients with dyspepsia should be offered H. pylori ‘test and treat’ using a UBT, SAT, or laboratory-based serology. Office-based serological tests should not be used due to their inadequate performance. Retesting for eradication should be performed using a UBT, as there is insufficient evidence to recommend the SAT for this purpose.
First-line treatment for H. pylori eradication involves a 7-day, twice-daily course of a PPI, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. Multiple regimens are available, and local protocols should be consulted.
Guidelines for Accurate H. pylori Testing and Treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 50
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to you with complaints of numbness and pain in his hands and feet since this morning. He had visited for gastroenteritis 2 weeks ago. On examination, he has a bilateral reduction in power of 3/5 in his upper and lower limbs. He has no history of any other medical conditions and is usually in good health. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, leading to demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection and causes rapidly advancing ascending motor neuropathy. Proximal muscles are more affected than distal muscles.
A stroke or transient ischaemic attack usually has a sudden onset and causes unilateral symptoms such as facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech.
Raynaud’s disease causes numbness and pain in the fingers and toes, typically in response to cold weather or stress.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Correct
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An obese 28-year-old female visits her GP with concerns about acne and difficulty conceiving after trying to get pregnant for two years. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Woman with Acne and Infertility
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), endogenous Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), and primary hypoparathyroidism are all potential differential diagnoses for a woman presenting with acne and infertility. PCOS is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism, including excess terminal body hair in a male distribution pattern, acne, and male-pattern hair loss. Endogenous Cushing’s syndrome and primary hypoparathyroidism are less likely, as they do not present with acne and infertility. Addison’s disease is characterized by hyperpigmentation, weakness, fatigue, poor appetite, and weight loss, while CAH may present with oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, and/or infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 52
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis
Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Correct
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An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency department confused. He is unable to provide further history but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and abdomen is soft with no tenderness. The initial blood tests reveal:
- Na+ 134 mmol/l
- K+ 4.7 mmol/l
- Urea 7.8 mmol/l
- Creatinine 104 µmol/l
- Adjusted Ca2+ 3.5 mmol/l
- Mg2+ 0.81 mmol/l
What would be your initial treatment plan?Your Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:Severe cases (>3.0 mmol/l) requiring admission are often caused by malignancy, as seen in this patient. Treatment involves obtaining IV access and conducting appropriate biochemistry tests to check for other electrolyte abnormalities. A chest x-ray and ECG should also be performed. The first intervention should be fluid resuscitation to replace the deficit and maintain hydration, which may require large volumes (3-4 litres in the first 24 hours). If hypercalcaemia persists, IV bisphosphonates like zoledronate or pamidronate can be administered. Specific anticancer therapies can be considered after this.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who has undergone a total hip replacement (THR) comes for evaluation because of discomfort on the side of her prosthesis. What is the primary cause for a revision surgery in a patient who has had a THR?
Your Answer: Infection
Correct Answer: Aseptic loosening of the implant
Explanation:The primary cause for the revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, followed by pain and dislocation.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits the doctor's office accompanied by his wife, who is worried about his well-being. The man has been experiencing episodes of confusion and drowsiness that appear to occur unpredictably for the past five years. Additionally, he has developed a tremor in his right hand on one side of his body. The man's wife reveals that she has slept in a different bed from her husband for the past three decades due to his frequent nightmares. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parkinson's disease dementia
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:The correct answer is Dementia with Lewy bodies, which is a type of dementia that is characterized by fluctuating cognition. This can be confusing as there are different types of dementia, especially non-Alzheimer’s disease dementia. In this case, the man’s symptoms and the classification of dementias point towards DLB. Parkinson’s disease dementia is also a type of dementia that falls under the category of Lewy body dementia, but it is characterized by tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity that develop before dementia. DLB, on the other hand, presents with dementia before these motor symptoms. Other clues that suggest DLB include the man’s periods of confusion and sleepiness that come and go randomly, as well as his wife’s report of him suffering from bad nightmares, which is a distinctive feature of DLB. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease dementia typically presents with slowly worsening memory loss and forgetfulness, while frontal lobe dementia primarily presents with behavioural changes and reckless behaviour.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?
Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Correct
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You assess a 45-year-old male with Marfan's syndrome. What is the probable reason for mortality in individuals with this condition?
Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Aortic dissection may be more likely to occur in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome due to the dilation of the aortic sinuses.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 58
Correct
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A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus
Explanation:Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms
Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 59
Correct
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In which of the following respiratory diseases is clubbing not a feature?
Your Answer: Bronchitis
Explanation:The Significance of Finger Clubbing in Respiratory and Non-Respiratory Diseases
Finger clubbing, the loss of the natural angle between the nail and the nailbed, is a significant clinical sign that can indicate underlying respiratory and non-respiratory diseases. Suppurative lung diseases such as long-standing bronchiectasis, acute lung abscesses, and empyema are commonly associated with finger clubbing. However, uncomplicated bronchitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) do not typically cause clubbing, and patients with COPD who develop clubbing should be promptly investigated for other causes, particularly lung cancer.
Finger clubbing is also commonly found in fibrosing alveolitis (idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis), asbestosis, and malignant diseases such as bronchial carcinoma and mesothelioma. In cases where finger clubbing is associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, a painful osteitis of the distal ends of the long bones of the lower arms and legs, it is designated grade IV.
Overall, finger clubbing is an important clinical sign that should prompt further investigation to identify underlying respiratory and non-respiratory diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 60
Correct
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A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
Result Normal
Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis
Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with vaginal bleeding and is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit. The ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy, but the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). What is the appropriate management for her?
Your Answer: Treat immediately with oral erythromycin & intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin only
Explanation:GBS is a type of bacteria commonly found in the vagina of many women. While it is generally harmless, it can cause serious infections in newborns, leading to significant health problems and even death.
If GBS is detected during pregnancy, it does not require immediate treatment as it will not reduce the likelihood of transmission to the baby during delivery. However, intravenous benzylpenicillin or clindamycin is necessary during labor to reduce the risk of transmission. This applies to GBS found in vaginal swabs and urine, and appropriate antibiotics are required for GBS urinary tract infections during pregnancy.
There is currently no screening program for GBS in the UK, and vaginal swabs should only be taken when clinically necessary. Women who have had a previous baby infected with GBS are offered intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin in future pregnancies.
(Source – RCOG guidelines, GBS in pregnancy).
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 62
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and expresses interest in learning more about HPV (human papillomavirus). What is a true statement regarding HPV?
Your Answer: HPV 16 and 18 are most commonly associated with cervical cancer
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16, 18, and 33. Among the approximately 15 types of HPV that are considered high-risk for cervical cancer, HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for about 70% of cases. HPV 6 and 11, on the other hand, are associated with the formation of genital warts.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 63
Correct
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What is the single beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)?
Your Answer: Dilatation of systemic veins
Explanation:The Mechanism of Action of GTN in Angina Treatment
GTN is a prodrug that is denitrated to produce the active metabolite nitric oxide (NO). NO stimulates guanylate cyclase, which produces cGMP, leading to the relaxation of smooth muscle cells in blood vessels and dilatation of systemic veins. This reduces myocardial wall tension, increases oxygen transport to the subendocardium, and decreases the pressure of blood returning to the heart (preload). Additionally, NO activates calcium-regulated Na+/K+ ATPase pumps, reducing intracellular calcium levels and further relaxing muscle cells in the myocardium. Finally, widening of the large arteries reduces the pressure against which the heart has to pump (afterload), resulting in the heart needing less energy and oxygen. Overall, GTN’s mechanism of action in angina treatment involves reducing myocardial oxygen demand and increasing oxygen supply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the hospital with palpitations. On ECG, a shortened PR interval and wide QRS complexes are observed, along with a slurred upstroke in lead II. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: AV node ablation
Correct Answer: Accessory pathway ablation
Explanation:The definitive treatment for this patient’s Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome is ablation of the accessory pathway.
Understanding Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome
Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that occurs due to a congenital accessory conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). This condition can cause AF to degenerate rapidly into VF as the accessory pathway does not slow conduction. The ECG features of WPW include a short PR interval and wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke, also known as a delta wave. The left or right axis deviation depends on the location of the accessory pathway.
WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, including HOCM, mitral valve prolapse, Ebstein’s anomaly, thyrotoxicosis, and secundum ASD. The definitive treatment for WPW syndrome is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options include sotalol, amiodarone, and flecainide. However, sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as it may increase the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation.
In summary, WPW syndrome is a condition caused by a congenital accessory conduction pathway that can lead to rapid degeneration of AF into VF. The ECG features include a short PR interval and a delta wave. WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, and the definitive treatment is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options are available, but sotalol should be avoided in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 65
Correct
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An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is confined to the area and the medical team has decided to perform an anterior resection to remove it. The surgeon believes that to achieve the best long-term outcome, it is necessary to temporarily divert the colon to safeguard the colorectal anastomosis. What type of stoma would be most suitable?
Your Answer: Loop ileostomy
Explanation:A loop ileostomy is the appropriate procedure for defunctioning the colon to protect an anastomosis. This involves taking a loop of ileum, making a horizontal incision, and bringing it up to the skin. It is commonly used after rectal cancer surgery and can be reversed at a later time.
An end colostomy is performed when an anastomosis is not possible or desirable, and the colon needs to be diverted or resected. The distal part of the colon is brought up to the skin in this procedure.
An end ileostomy is typically done after the complete removal of the colon or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned. While it can be used to defunction the colon, it is more challenging to reverse.
A gastrostomy is used for gastric decompression or feeding.
A loop jejunostomy is used as a high-output stoma and may be performed after an emergency laparotomy with planned early closure.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 66
Correct
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A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes is found to have new vessel formation on the optic disc on fundoscopy.
Which of the following is the best intervention?Your Answer: Laser treatment
Explanation:Managing Diabetic Retinopathy: Treatment Options and Risk Factors
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness if left untreated. Laser photocoagulation is a non-invasive treatment option that has a high success rate and low complication rate. Focal laser photocoagulation is used to treat specific microaneurysms, while a grid pattern of laser burns is applied for non-specific leakage. Other important factors in managing diabetic retinopathy include controlling blood pressure, optimizing cholesterol levels, and maintaining HbA1c levels in the 6-7% range. Patients with diabetes should also be monitored for other ophthalmic complications, such as glaucoma and neuropathies. Risk factors for diabetic retinopathy include age at diabetes onset, serum triglyceride and total cholesterol levels, serum creatinine levels, and hypertension. Early detection and treatment of diabetic retinopathy can prevent blindness and improve long-term outcomes for patients with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care. She has been attempting to conceive for the past year and has recently received a positive pregnancy test result. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago, which prompted her to take the test. The patient is in good health with no underlying medical conditions, does not smoke, and abstains from alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m².
What is the advised folic acid consumption for this patient?Your Answer: Folic acid 400mcg daily, continue until end of 1st trimester
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily, continue until end of 1st trimester
Explanation:Pregnant women who have a BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher should be given a daily dose of 5mg folic acid until the 13th week of their pregnancy. Folic acid is crucial during the first trimester as it helps prevent neural tube defects (NTD). Typically, a daily dose of 400mcg is sufficient for most pregnant women during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. However, those with a BMI of over 30 kg/m², as well as those with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD, should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that folic acid be taken while trying to conceive to further reduce the risk of NTD. Additionally, NICE advises all pregnant women to take a daily dose of 10mcg (400 units) of vitamin D throughout their entire pregnancy.
Pregnancy and Obesity: Risks and Management
Obesity during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the unborn child. A BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher at the first antenatal visit is considered obese. Maternal risks include miscarriage, venous thromboembolism, gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, dysfunctional and induced labour, postpartum haemorrhage, wound infections, and a higher rate of caesarean section. Fetal risks include congenital anomaly, prematurity, macrosomia, stillbirth, increased risk of developing obesity and metabolic disorders in childhood, and neonatal death.
It is important to inform women with a BMI of 30 or more at the booking appointment about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy. They should not attempt to reduce the risk by dieting while pregnant, and healthcare professionals will manage the risk during their pregnancy.
Management of obesity during pregnancy includes taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg, screening for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks, giving birth in a consultant-led obstetric unit if the BMI is 35 kg/m² or higher, and having an antenatal consultation with an obstetric anaesthetist and a plan made if the BMI is 40 kg/m² or higher. It is important to manage obesity during pregnancy to reduce the risks and ensure the health of both the mother and the unborn child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He reports experiencing some discomfort behind his ear but otherwise feels fine. Upon examination, a left-sided facial nerve palsy is observed, affecting the face from forehead to chin. Both tympanic membranes appear normal.
What is the probable cause of this condition?Your Answer: Ramsey Hunt syndrome
Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Bell’s palsy is a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve that typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy. It is caused by a unilateral, lower motor neuron lesion, affecting the muscles controlling facial expression on one side only. The forehead is involved in Bell’s palsy, unlike in upper motor neuron lesions such as a cerebrovascular accident.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is associated with severe pain and caused by herpes zoster virus, and transient ischaemic attack/stroke, which is the sudden onset of focal neurological signs that completely resolve within 24 hours.
Syphilis and vasculitis are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy. Syphilis has various stages, with primary syphilis presenting with a chancre and secondary syphilis characterized by multi-system involvement. Vasculitis has many different types, including Churg–Strauss syndrome, temporal arteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henloch–Schönlein purpura, and polymyalgia rheumatica.
Management of Bell’s palsy includes reassurance and meticulous eye care to prevent complications such as corneal abrasions. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, are effective if given within 72 hours of onset. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of Bell’s palsy is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent
Explanation:Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 70
Correct
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As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an emergency page requesting immediate assistance on the geriatric ward. Upon arrival, you discover the nursing staff performing chest compressions on an unresponsive patient with no carotid pulse. You instruct them to continue compressions while you apply defibrillator pads to the patient's chest. After a brief pause in compressions, the defibrillator monitor displays a monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Immediately give 1 defibrillator shock followed by CPR
Explanation:When pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is identified, the immediate and correct treatment is a single defibrillator shock followed by 2 minutes of CPR. This is in contrast to using intravenous adenosine or amiodarone, which are not appropriate in this scenario. The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines now recommend a single shock for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless VT. Administering 3 back-to-back shocks followed by 1 minute of CPR is part of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm, but it is not the most appropriate next step in management for a delayed recognition of rhythm like in the above case. In contrast, continued CPR with 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths is appropriate in a basic life support scenario where a defibrillator is not yet available.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 71
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.
What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?Your Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation
Explanation:To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who was diagnosed with HIV-1 three years ago is being seen in clinic. She is currently in good health and has not reported any symptoms. She only takes paracetamol occasionally for headaches. Her recent blood tests show:
CD4 325 * 106/l
What is the recommended course of action for antiretroviral therapy?Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV involves a combination of at least three drugs, typically two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Entry inhibitors, NRTIs, NNRTIs, PIs, and integrase inhibitors are all used to manage HIV. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend starting ART as soon as a patient is diagnosed with HIV. Each drug has its own side effects, and some of the common ones include peripheral neuropathy, renal impairment, osteoporosis, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and P450 enzyme interaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 73
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been radiating to his neck and left arm for the past 3 hours. An ECG reveals ST depression in the inferior leads, and a troponin test is ordered. The patient is given aspirin and sublingual nitrates, and a non-ST elevated myocardial infarction is suspected. The physician conducts a risk assessment to determine the patient's 6-month mortality.
What factors are taken into account by the doctor during this calculation?Your Answer: Age, ECG, troponin, renal function
Explanation:To determine the management of NSTEMI, doctors use a risk assessment score such as GRACE. This score takes into account various factors such as age, ECG, troponin, and renal function, as well as blood pressure, heart rate, and whether the patient experienced a cardiac arrest upon presentation. Renal function is particularly important to consider as it is often affected during an AMI. However, lactate and liver function tests are not included in the GRACE score as they are not typically affected by an MI.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 74
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge that appears white. She denies any associated dyspareunia or itch. The clinician suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which organism is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Gardnerella
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by the excessive growth of mainly bacteria.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 75
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient comes to you with a complaint of painful ulcers on the shaft of his penis. He reports having a new sexual partner, but she has not shown any symptoms. The patient feels generally unwell and has tender enlarged inguinal lymph nodes on both sides. He denies experiencing dysuria or urethral discharge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Explanation:Syphilis, Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and donovanosis (granuloma inguinal) can all lead to the development of genital ulcers that are not accompanied by pain. However, in the case of the patient who has recently changed sexual partners and is not experiencing any other symptoms, herpes simplex is the more probable cause of the painful genital ulcers. Behcets may also cause painful genital ulcers.
STI Ulcers: Causes and Symptoms
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most common causes of genital ulcers is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which is responsible for genital herpes. The primary attack of genital herpes is usually severe and accompanied by fever, while subsequent attacks are less severe and localized to one site. The ulcers caused by genital herpes are multiple and painful.
Syphilis is another STI that can cause genital ulcers. It is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum and is characterized by primary, secondary, and tertiary stages. The primary stage of syphilis is marked by the appearance of a painless ulcer, known as a chancre. The incubation period for syphilis is between 9-90 days.
Chancroid is a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It causes painful genital ulcers that are associated with unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. The ulcers typically have a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border.
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and typically occurs in three stages. The first stage is marked by a small, painless pustule that later forms an ulcer. The second stage is characterized by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, while the third stage is proctocolitis. LGV is treated using doxycycline.
Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale, which is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 76
Correct
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A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 5 days. She has also developed a new rash that is bothering her and has a runny nose. The father denies any weight loss, fever, or other family members being sick.
Upon further questioning, the father reveals that he has recently introduced formula milk as he is planning to return to work soon and wants the baby to get used to it. The pediatrician suspects that the infant may have an intolerance to cow's milk protein.
What would be the most appropriate alternative feed to try for this baby?Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:Formula options for infants with different types of intolerance vary. For infants with cow’s milk protein intolerance, a partially hydrolysed formula is recommended as it contains proteins that are less allergenic. Amino acid-based formula is suitable for infants with severe intolerance, although it may not be as palatable. High protein formula is used for pre-term infants, but recent studies suggest that it may increase the risk of obesity in the long-term. Lactose-free formula is appropriate for infants with lactose intolerance, which is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms rather than rash and runny nose.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 77
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash on her palms and forearms. The rash has white lines visible across its surface and scratching has worsened it. Additionally, she has noticed thinning of her nails with longitudinal ridges visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Potent topical steroids
Explanation:The primary treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Emollients are not effective for this condition, and oral steroids may only be necessary in severe or resistant cases. Calcipotriol, a synthetic vitamin D derivative, is used for psoriasis and not lichen planus. Fusidic acid is an antibiotic used for staphylococcal skin infections, such as impetigo, and is not indicated for lichen planus.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of excessive pain during her menstrual cycle for the past 6 months. She experiences pain 1-2 days before the onset of menstruation, which lasts throughout the cycle. Additionally, she reports pain during sexual intercourse, particularly during deep penetration. Her last menstrual period occurred 2 days ago. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her partner for 8 years, and she has never been pregnant. She does not use any form of contraception except for condoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: A trial of combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for investigation, including this patient who exhibits such symptoms. While tranexamic acid is effective for menorrhagia, it is not useful for dysmenorrhoea. While a transvaginal ultrasound scan may be part of the investigation, a specialist review is more crucial, particularly for this patient who displays symptoms indicative of endometriosis, which may not be visible on an ultrasound scan. Before using the intrauterine system or combined oral contraceptive pill to treat endometriosis, a diagnosis is necessary.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer: 1 month
Correct Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 80
Correct
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A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?
Your Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 81
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), presents to the Emergency Department with reducing vision in her right eye. Her last CD4 count, measured in clinic, was < 100 cells/mm3.
Which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:Eye Conditions in Immunocompromised Patients
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, acute glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, molluscum contagiosum of eyelids, and uveitis are all potential eye conditions that can affect immunocompromised patients.
CMV retinitis is a common cause of eye disease in patients with HIV, causing necrotising retinitis with visual loss. Fundoscopy demonstrates a characteristic ‘pizza pie’ picture, with flame-shaped haemorrhages and retinal infarction. Treatment involves local and/or systemic delivery of antiviral agents such as ganciclovir, valganciclovir, or foscarnet.
Acute glaucoma is a medical emergency that presents with sudden onset of severe unilateral eye pain, vomiting, red-eye, and seeing lights distorted by haloes and decreasing vision. It is not associated with HIV/low CD4+ counts.
Age-related macular degeneration is a chronic and progressive condition affecting older people, resulting in a gradual loss of vision, particularly of the central vision. It is not related to HIV and typically presents as a chronic condition.
Molluscum contagiosum of eyelids is a viral skin infection that is more common in immunocompromised hosts. However, it tends to occur on the trunk, extremities, or abdomen, and involvement of the eyelid and buccal mucosa is uncommon.
Uveitis presents with eye pain, photophobia, blurring vision with loss of peripheral vision in some patients, redness in the eye, and possibly floaters in the vision. It is associated with HLA-B27, autoimmune conditions such as Crohn’s disease, and infections such as toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, and Lyme disease. It is not associated with HIV, and pain and photophobia are normally very prominent symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 82
Correct
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A 20-year-old with type 1 diabetes presents to the Emergency Department feeling unwell. She reports experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past 2 days and has not been taking her full insulin doses due to loss of appetite. Her capillary glucose level is 37 mmol/l and urinalysis shows 4+ ketones. An arterial blood gas test is conducted, revealing the following results:
pH 7.12
pO2 13 kPa
pCO2 3.5 kPa
HCO3 13
Na 129 mmol/l
K 6.1 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer: IV 0.9% NaCl bolus
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 83
Correct
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You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital five days ago due to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and spinal stenosis.
Despite receiving optimal treatment on the ward, including IV co-amoxiclav, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. He currently scores 11 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, and his pupils are reactive to light and measure 3 mm bilaterally. He has been unable to take his morning medications, which include morphine sulphate modified release (Zomorph) 30mg twice daily, oramorph 10mg as required, and metoclopramide 10 mg three times a day. In the past 24 hours, he has used 4 doses of PRN oramorph.
During the consultant ward round, it is decided that the patient should receive end-of-life care. He is currently comfortable, with no signs of hallucinations, pruritus, or myoclonus. The nurse requests that you convert his medications to a syringe driver.
What medications will you prescribe?Your Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + morphine 50mg s/c
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 84
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history of fevers and lethargy. During the examination, you observe a few splinter haemorrhages in the fingernails and a loud systolic murmur at the apex. Your consultant advises you to obtain 3 sets of blood cultures and to schedule an echocardiogram. Microbiology contacts you later that day with the preliminary blood culture findings.
What organism is the most probable cause of the growth?Your Answer: Gram positive cocci
Explanation:Gram positive cocci are responsible for the majority of bacterial endocarditis cases. The most common culprits include Streptococcus viridans, Staphylococcus aureus (in individuals who use intravenous drugs or have prosthetic valves), and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in those with prosthetic valves). Other less common causes include Enterococcus, Streptococcus bovis, Candida, HACEK group, and Coxiella burnetii. Acute endocarditis is typically caused by Staphylococcus, while subacute cases are usually caused by Streptococcus species. Knowing the common underlying organisms is crucial for determining appropriate empirical antibiotic therapy. For native valve endocarditis, amoxicillin and gentamicin are recommended. Vancomycin and gentamicin are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis, penicillin allergy, or suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Vancomycin and meropenem are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis and risk factors for gram-negative infection. For prosthetic valve endocarditis, vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampicin are recommended. Once blood culture results are available, antibiotic therapy can be adjusted to provide specific coverage. Treatment typically involves long courses (4-6 weeks) of intravenous antibiotic therapy.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 85
Correct
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A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after sexual intercourse is levonorgestrel approved for use?
Your Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:Levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). Administration of a single dose of levonorgestrel after this time is not licensed but may be considered.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer: High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections
Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:
1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.
2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.
3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.
4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.
5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.
In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 88
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for the past two weeks. She has a history of poor dietary habits and chronic constipation. Upon wiping, she notices fresh blood on the toilet paper. During examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and rectal examination is painful but reveals no masses.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Anal Pain: Understanding the Causes
Anal pain can be a distressing symptom that can have various underlying causes. One of the most common causes is an anal fissure, which is a painful tear in the anal canal. This condition is often caused by trauma from hard or painful bowel movements and is associated with low-fiber diets.
Patients with anal fissures typically experience severe pain during bowel movements, which can lead to constipation and worsening symptoms. However, medical therapy with stool-bulking agents and fiber supplementation can help resolve acute anal fissures in most cases.
Other potential causes of anal pain include distal colonic polyps, anal warts, hemorrhoids, and rectal carcinoma. Distal colonic polyps are slow-growing overgrowths of the colonic mucosa that carry a small risk of becoming malignant. Anal warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and can present as painless bumps or eruptions in the anogenital area.
Hemorrhoids are swollen blood vessels in the lower rectum that can cause rectal bleeding, pain, pruritus, or prolapse. Rectal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that can cause bleeding, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, and malaise.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of anal pain is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. A thorough physical examination and medical history can help identify the underlying cause and guide management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her scalp, which is well-defined. The hair loss is affecting approximately 25% of her scalp, and she is experiencing significant emotional distress. The doctor suspects alopecia areata. What would be an appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Autoimmune screen + topical corticosteroid
Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid + referral to dermatologist
Explanation:In this clinical scenario, the patient presents with well-defined patchy hair loss on the scalp, which is characteristic of alopecia areata. This autoimmune condition can lead to significant psychological distress, making effective management crucial. The most appropriate management strategy involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which are anti-inflammatory agents that can help reduce the immune response in the affected areas, promoting hair regrowth.
Additionally, referring the patient to a dermatologist is advisable for further evaluation and potential advanced treatment options, especially if the condition is extensive or does not respond to initial therapy. Other options presented are less suitable for this case. For instance, topical 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is primarily used for actinic keratosis and superficial basal cell carcinoma, not for alopecia areata. An autoimmune screen may be considered in certain cases, but it is not routinely necessary for alopecia areata unless there are other clinical indications. Topical ketoconazole is an antifungal treatment and is not indicated for alopecia areata.
Key Takeaways: – Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that can cause significant emotional distress. – Topical corticosteroids are effective in managing localized alopecia areata. – Referral to a dermatologist is important for comprehensive care and management options. – Other treatments like 5-FU and ketoconazole are not appropriate for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?
Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples
Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.
Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.
Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.
Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.
Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.
Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 91
Correct
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A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He recalls noticing a bump on the eyelid that was uncomfortable at first, but it gradually grew into a hard lump. He denies any pain at present and has not experienced any vision problems. Upon examination, the eye appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chalazion
Explanation:A painless, firm lump in the eyelid is indicative of a chalazion or Meibomian cyst. This occurs when the Meibomian gland becomes blocked, resulting in the formation of a cyst. It is often a consequence of an internal stye (hordeolum internum). Although cysts may resolve on their own, they may require topical antibiotics if they become infected. The absence of pain and the prolonged history suggest that it is not an internal or external stye. Blepharitis and ectropion are unlikely to cause a lump in the eyelid.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.
Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 92
Correct
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In the diagnosis of asthma, which statement is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Cough is an important diagnostic feature
Explanation:Myths and Facts about Asthma Diagnosis and Treatment
Cough is a crucial diagnostic feature in asthma, especially if it occurs at night. However, it is not the only symptom, and other factors must be considered to reach a diagnosis. While asthma often presents in childhood, it can also appear later in life, and some patients may experience a recurrence of symptoms after a period of remission. The 15% reversibility test is useful but not essential for diagnosis, and there is no single test that can definitively diagnose asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids are not bronchodilators and do not have an immediate effect, but they are essential for managing inflammation and preventing irreversible airway damage. Finally, family history is a crucial factor in asthma diagnosis, as there is a strong genetic component to the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 93
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents to General Practitioner with a 2-day history of fever and pain in her right shin.
On examination, she was found to have a tender erythematous skin swelling in the anterior aspect of her right shin. This measured around 10 cm × 4 cm. Her temperature was 38.2°C and the rest of her parameters included a heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 21 bpm and oxygen saturation of 99%.
What is the most appropriate next investigation?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and C-reactive protein (CRP)/erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Cellulitis: Which Ones are Necessary?
Cellulitis is a clinical diagnosis, but certain tests may be necessary in patients with a systemic response. A full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP/ESR are recommended to assess the severity of the infection. A wound swab and blood cultures may also be considered. An ABPI measurement is indicated in patients with suspected lower-limb arterial disease. A chest X-ray is not necessary unless co-existing lung pathology is suspected. In stable patients with no systemic upset, no further investigations are needed. A punch biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis but may be considered in other skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 94
Correct
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A 70 year-old male patient complains of leg weakness and exhibits purple plaques on the dorsum of the hands. You suspect dermatomyositis. What underlying condition should be considered, as it is associated with dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Internal malignancy
Explanation:Dermatomyositis primarily results from an autoimmune disorder and is prevalent among women aged 50-70. Nevertheless, it can also be a paraneoplastic ailment, with ovarian, breast, and lung cancers being the most frequent underlying malignancies. It is crucial to contemplate the likelihood of an underlying tumor, particularly in elderly patients.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 95
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.
To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 96
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with Down's syndrome presents to you with a recent diagnosis of essential hypertension. He is accompanied by his caregiver and expresses his fear of needles, requesting medication that does not require regular blood tests. Which of the following medications would be appropriate for him?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Regular monitoring of renal function and electrolytes is necessary for both Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and Candesartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 97
Correct
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A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, polymyalgia rheumatica, osteoarthritis and a hiatus hernia. Her current medications include bisoprolol, digoxin, amlodipine, omeprazole, prednisolone and as required paracetamol. She lives independently and is usually mentally alert. She has been increasingly unwell for the past week, complaining of increased pain in her shoulders, so her GP has increased the dose of prednisolone from 5mg to 30mg daily and added codeine 30mg four times a day. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Polypharmacy
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Delirium in the Elderly: A Case Study
This patient is most likely experiencing delirium, which is a common condition among the elderly. One of the leading causes of delirium in this population is polypharmacy, which refers to taking multiple medications. In this case, the patient’s unremarkable physical examination and blood tests suggest that polypharmacy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms. Steroids and opioids, which she recently started taking, are known to cause delirium, especially in older adults. Patients with dementia or mild cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable to the effects of polypharmacy.
Accidental poisoning is also a possibility, but the patient’s usual independence and mental alertness make this less likely. Additionally, her symptoms have been present for a week, which suggests a longer process than accidental poisoning. A chest infection could also cause delirium, but the patient’s examination and blood tests do not support this diagnosis.
Alcohol withdrawal is another potential cause of disorientation and restlessness, but there is no indication in the patient’s history that she is misusing alcohol. Finally, Alzheimer’s disease is unlikely given the short duration of the patient’s symptoms and her usual mental alertness. Overall, polypharmacy is the most probable cause of this patient’s delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes complains of left-sided ear pain and discharge. During examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.9ºC and there is red discharge in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is partially visible and appears normal. Despite visiting the out of hours clinic twice and using different ear drops for two weeks, her symptoms persist. What course of treatment should be recommended?
Your Answer: Topical antibiotic drops
Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care
Explanation:It is probable that the patient is suffering from malignant otitis externa, a condition that affects individuals with weakened immune systems like those with diabetes. This condition is characterized by osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. Despite receiving several rounds of antibiotic drops, the patient’s symptoms have not improved. It is recommended that the patient be referred to an ENT specialist for a CT scan of the temporal bones and treated with an extended course of intravenous antibiotics.
Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a common condition that often prompts patients to seek medical attention. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and is caused by various factors such as infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger of otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal appears red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management of otitis externa involves the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. In cases where there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, while an ear wick may be inserted if the canal is extensively swollen. Second-line options include oral antibiotics, taking a swab inside the ear canal, and empirical use of an antifungal agent.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, referral to an ENT specialist may be necessary. Malignant otitis externa is a more serious condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of otitis externa is crucial in providing appropriate care and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 99
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits
Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.
Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.
Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.
Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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