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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Increases by approximately 50%
Explanation:Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) rises immediately after conception and increases by about 50 per cent overall, reaching its maximum at the end of the first trimester. GFR then falls by about 20 per cent in the third trimester, returning to pre-pregnancy levels within 12 weeks of delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
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A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer. What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.
Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.
The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.
Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday. On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation. Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?
Your Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg
Explanation:For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.
Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.
Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Prolactin
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the 2nd & 3rd trimesters
Explanation:In order to maintain fetal bone growth, the maternal compartment undergoes adjustments that provide a net transfer of sufficient calcium to the foetus. Maternal compartment changes that permit calcium accumulation include increases in maternal dietary intake, increases in maternal 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 levels, and increases in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. The levels of total calcium and phosphorus decline in maternal serum, but ionized calcium levels remain unchanged. During pregnancy, the placenta forms a calcium pump in which a gradient of calcium and phosphorus is established which favours the foetus. Thus, circulating fetal calcium and phosphorus levels increase steadily throughout gestation. Furthermore, fetal levels of total and ionized calcium, as well as phosphorus, exceed maternal levels at term. By 10-12 weeks’ gestation, the fetal parathyroid glands secrete PTH. Fetal plasma levels of PTH are low during gestation, but increase after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Regarding the round ligament, it leaves the pelvis via which structure?
Your Answer: Greater sciatic notch
Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Explanation:The round ligament is a band of fibromuscular connective tissue attached to the cornua of the uterus, near the attachment of the ovaries. On each side of the body, the ligament exits the pelvis through the deep inguinal ring, travels through the inguinal canal and enters the labia majora where its fibres terminate at the mons pubis. It is also important to know the embryological origins of the round ligament from the gubernaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History reveals she underwent hysterectomy 3 months ago. Which investigation should be carried out in this case?
Your Answer: CT scan
Correct Answer: Plain X-ray abdomen
Explanation:A complication of bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and hysterectomy is the formation of adhesions in the GIT that can cause intestinal obstruction. Abdominal X-ray is sufficient to visualize any obstruction in the GIT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department.Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days.Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min.Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. On systemic examination: Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally. Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. Laboratory results are as follows: a) Complete blood count shows - Hematocrit: 33%, - Platelets: 140,000/mm3, - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3. b) Serum chemistry - Sodium: 124 mmol/L, - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L, - Chloride: 96 mmol/L, - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L, - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L, - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L, - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L. Urinalysis - Protein: none, - Ketones: present. CT scan of the head is normal. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Amphetamine intoxication
Explanation:This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.
In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.
Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?
Your Answer: Station 0
Explanation:Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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Question 11
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Upward shift in the basal temperature
Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin
Explanation:An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due to:
Your Answer: Increased cardiac output resulting in greater red cell destruction
Correct Answer: Increased plasma volume
Explanation:During pregnancy, anaemia increases more than fourfold from the first to third trimester. It is a well established fact that there is a physiological drop in haemoglobin (Hb) in the mid trimester. This physiological drop is attributed to increase of plasma volume and hence decrease of blood viscosity lead to better circulation in placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?
Your Answer: During menstrual bleeding
Correct Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding
Explanation:it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.
For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.
All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted. Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?
Your Answer: Fibronectin test
Correct Answer: Cervical length of 15mm
Explanation:Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.
25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy
Explanation:Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The production of milk is regulated by the hormone Prolactin. Oxytocin on the other hand is responsible for the let down reflex that occurs during breast feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?
Your Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Explanation:For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected. Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?
Your Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation
Explanation:Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Decreased TSH Increased Total T3 and T4
Explanation:Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) has thyrotrophic activity owing to subunit homology with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and maternal TSH production is suppressed during the first trimester of pregnancy, when hCG levels are highest. The TSH response to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is reduced during the first trimester but returns to normal after this. Thyroid binding globulin increases in the first 2 weeks of pregnancy and reaches a plateau by 20 weeks. This leads to increased production of total T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?
Your Answer: Growth and maturation
Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions
Explanation:During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in patients of childbearing age?
Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis is a common condition which results in a foul smelling discharge from the vagina without any inflammation. It is the most common cause of abnormal PV discharge. Most of the women are asymptomatic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Correct
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The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:
Your Answer: Increases up to 40%
Explanation:Changes in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy are profound and begin early in pregnancy, such that by eight weeks’ gestation, the cardiac output has already increased by 20%. The primary event is probably peripheral vasodilatation. This is mediated by endothelium-dependent factors, including nitric oxide synthesis, upregulated by oestradiol and possibly vasodilatory prostaglandins (PGI2). Peripheral vasodilation leads to a 25–30% fall in systemic vascular resistance, and to compensate for this, cardiac output increases by around 40% during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal. What is the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Cone biopsy
Explanation:If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago. A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound. What would be the next step of management?
Your Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy
Explanation:This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
All of the other choices are incorrect. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Your Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.
Ovulation Disorders
WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
Management:
Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
Reduce exercise if high levels
Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulationWHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
Management:
Weight reduction if BMI >30
Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
Metformin (1st line)
Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
Gonadotrophins (2nd line)WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
Management:
Consider IVF with donor eggs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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