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  • Question 1 - You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of weight loss and a painless, growing penile sore that has been present for more than two months. The patient has a history of genital warts. What tests would be suitable for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood test for Treponema pallidum

      Correct Answer: Immunoassay for Human Immunodeficiency Virus

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is strongly linked to sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV infection. Therefore, it would be advisable to conduct an HIV test in cases where penile cancer is suspected. Liver function tests may not be as relevant as an HIV test since penile cancer is unlikely to spread to the liver. Instead, it can spread locally to lymph nodes, bones, and even the brain. Herpes is not a likely cause of penile cancer as it typically causes painful lesions that disappear within a week. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, can cause painful lesions, while syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can cause a painless ulcer known as a chancre. However, a chancre would not cause weight loss, and the lesion typically resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.

      Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.

      When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, amlodipine 10mg, and indapamide 2.5mg. Despite good adherence to his medications, his blood pressure has been consistently elevated during his previous appointments. Upon conducting ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his average blood pressure is found to be 152/78 mmHg. His recent blood test results are as follows:
      - Na+ 134 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Increase dose of indapamide

      Correct Answer: Add doxazosin

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite being on an ACE inhibitor, CCB, and thiazide diuretic, adding an alpha- or beta-blocker is recommended by NICE if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l. It is important to assess the patient for postural hypotension and discuss adherence with them. Seeking specialist advice is also advised. Fludrocortisone is not appropriate for treating hypertension and may increase blood pressure. Spironolactone would be the next step if potassium levels were below 4.5mmol/l. Indapamide cannot be increased any further if the patient is already on the maximum dose. It is important to treat hypertension promptly, especially if it has been confirmed through ABPM on multiple occasions.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 49 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of urinary incontinence that has...

    Correct

    • A 49 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of urinary incontinence that has been going on for nine months. Upon examination, her abdomen appears normal and urinalysis results are normal. The doctor diagnoses her with detrusor muscle over-activity and prescribes oxybutynin. What is the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?

      Your Answer: Anti-muscarinic

      Explanation:

      The detrusor muscle’s contraction is regulated by muscarinic cholinergic receptors, and oxybutynin acts as a direct antimuscarinic agent. Sympathetic control, which decreases detrusor muscle activity, is influenced by serotonin and noradrenaline. The bladder does not contain GABAergic or estrogen receptors.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      116.6
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 3a with proteinuria has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 3a with proteinuria has hypertension which is not controlled with amlodipine.
      Which of the following other agents should be added?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Medications: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Current guidelines recommend the use of renin-angiotensin system antagonists, such as ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril), ARBs (e.g. candesartan), and direct renin inhibitors (e.g. aliskiren), for patients with CKD and hypertension. β-blockers (e.g. bisoprolol) are not preferred as initial therapy, but may be considered in certain cases. Loop diuretics (e.g. furosemide) should only be used for clinically significant fluid overload, while thiazide-like diuretics (e.g. indapamide) can be offered as second line treatment. Low-dose spironolactone may be considered for further diuretic therapy, but caution should be taken in patients with reduced eGFR due to increased risk of hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      76.1
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  • Question 5 - A patient in their 50s is prescribed finasteride for the management of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s is prescribed finasteride for the management of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What duration of treatment should the patient be informed of for the medication to take effect?

      Your Answer: Up to 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Up to 6 months

      Explanation:

      It may take up to 6 months of Finasteride treatment for results to become noticeable in BPH.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man with end-stage renal failure is scheduled for a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with end-stage renal failure is scheduled for a renal transplant and is concerned about the potential increased risk of cancer. Can you provide information on which type of cancer he may be most susceptible to after the transplant?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

      Explanation:

      After receiving a transplant, a significant number of patients develop cancer within 20 years. This is caused by the medication given to prevent rejection, which suppresses the immune system. Kidney transplant recipients are at a higher risk of developing skin cancer, particularly squamous cell carcinoma, as well as lymphoma and cervical cancer.

      Immunosuppression in Renal Transplant: Medications and Monitoring

      Renal transplant patients require immunosuppressive medications to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. The initial regime usually includes ciclosporin or tacrolimus with a monoclonal antibody. The maintenance regime involves the same medications with mycophenolate mofetil or sirolimus. Steroids may be added if the patient experiences more than one steroid-responsive acute rejection episode.

      Ciclosporin inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase involved in T cell activation. Tacrolimus has a lower incidence of acute rejection compared to ciclosporin and causes less hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. However, it has a high incidence of impaired glucose tolerance and diabetes. Mycophenolate mofetil blocks purine synthesis by inhibiting IMPDH, which inhibits the proliferation of B and T cells. Sirolimus blocks T cell proliferation by blocking the IL-2 receptor, but it can cause hyperlipidaemia. Monoclonal antibodies, such as daclizumab and basiliximab, are selective inhibitors of the IL-2 receptor.

      Patients on long-term immunosuppression require regular monitoring for complications such as cardiovascular disease, renal failure, and malignancy. Tacrolimus and ciclosporin can cause hypertension, hyperglycaemia, and hyperlipidaemia, which can accelerate cardiovascular disease. Nephrotoxic effects of these medications, graft rejection, or recurrence of the original disease can cause renal failure. Patients should also be educated about minimizing sun exposure to reduce the risk of squamous cell carcinomas and basal cell carcinomas. Regular monitoring can help detect and manage these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      119.4
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and incontinence presents to you with a complaint of increased urinary incontinence when coughing or sneezing after starting a new medication. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Relaxation of the bladder outlet and urethra caused by doxazosin can exacerbate stress incontinence symptoms. This medication, classified as an alpha blocker, is commonly prescribed for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia-related urinary retention. Therefore, doxazosin is the appropriate response.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have 3+ haematuria. This is confirmed on microscopy and on a second urinalysis 9 months later. He recalls experiencing two episodes of red urine in the past year, both of which occurred during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no family history of renal disease. He has no oedema but his blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. His plasma creatinine level is 65 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l). What is the most likely finding on a renal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Common Kidney Diseases and Their Clinical Features

      Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy, Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesions, Cast Nephropathy, Minimal Change Disease, and Thin Basement Membranes are some of the common kidney diseases that affect people. Each of these diseases has unique clinical features that help in their diagnosis.

      IgA Nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by predominant IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium. Clinical features range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

      Kimmelstiel–Wilson Lesions, also known as nodular glomerulosclerosis, is a complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by the formation of nodules of hyaline material in regions of glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus.

      Cast Nephropathy, also known as myeloma cast nephropathy, is the formation of urinary casts in the renal tubules from free immunoglobulin light chains, causing intratubular obstruction and damage, which leads to renal failure in the context of multiple myeloma.

      Minimal Change Disease, also known as lipoid nephrosis or nil disease, arises from a histopathologic lesion in the glomerulus and is characterized by intense proteinuria leading to oedema and intravascular volume depletion.

      Thin Basement Membranes is a group of inherited heterogeneous disorders involving the basement membranes of the kidney and frequently affecting the cochlea and eye as well. It is characterized by splitting and lamellation of the glomerular basement membrane.

      In conclusion, understanding the clinical features of these common kidney diseases is crucial in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of 'cystitis'. She reports experiencing dysuria, suprapubic pains, and frequency for the past two days. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are present. Her temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      This expectant woman displays indications that align with a urinary tract infection. According to the BNF, trimethoprim should not be used during the initial trimester as it can hinder folate. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for use during pregnancy. Since the patient is clearly experiencing a UTI and has a fever, prompt treatment is necessary instead of waiting for the MSU.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected his legs, arm and face, worsening over the last three weeks. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained: Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l), Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l), Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l), Urea 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 7–20 mmol/l), Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l (normal range: 29–33 IU/l), Bilirubin 16 μmol/l (normal range: < 20.5 μmol/l), Albumin 19 g/l (normal range: 35–50 g/l), Total Cholesterol 9.2 mmol/l (normal range: < 5.2 mmol/l), Prothrombin time (PT) 10 s. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Generalized Edema, Low Albumin, Renal Impairment, and Elevated Cholesterol

      The patient presents with generalized edema, low albumin, renal impairment, and elevated cholesterol. The most likely diagnosis is nephrotic syndrome. Anorexia nervosa is unlikely to cause such a low albumin level. Cirrhosis of the liver is less likely due to normal liver function tests and PT. Cystic fibrosis typically presents with bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption, or diabetes. Nephritic syndrome causes hypertension, haematuria, and oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 11 - A 47-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show the following results:
      - Sodium: 145 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 33 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.6 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 80 µmol/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.

      If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking co-codamol. Considering his impaired renal function, which opioid would be the most suitable option to alleviate his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic kidney disease are recommended to use alfentanil, buprenorphine, and fentanyl as their preferred opioids.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 13 - What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule in the Nephron

      The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is a crucial part of the nephron, responsible for several important functions. One of its primary roles is the reabsorption of sodium, which occurs through active transport facilitated by the numerous mitochondria in the epithelial cells. This creates a concentration gradient that allows for the passive reabsorption of water. Glucose is also reabsorbed in the PCT through secondary active transport, driven by the sodium gradient. The PCT also regulates the pH of the filtrate by exchanging hydrogen ions for bicarbonate ions. Additionally, the PCT is the primary site for ammoniagenesis, which involves the breakdown of glutamine to α-ketoglutarate. Finally, the regulation of urine concentration occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct under the influence of vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during a routine check-up. The results show a decline in her renal function. Upon further examination, she reports experiencing ankle swelling and increased fatigue. The renal team suspects she may have amyloidosis. What diagnostic test could be used to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Renal Amyloidosis

      Renal amyloidosis is a condition that can be challenging to diagnose. It is caused by the accumulation of proteinaceous material in tissues, which can be identified through a biopsy. Congo-red staining extracellular fibrillar material is a characteristic feature of amyloid protein in the kidney. While a urine dip may show proteinuria, a renal biopsy is necessary for a definitive diagnosis as proteinuria can be caused by other conditions. A bone marrow biopsy can confirm amyloidosis if there is suspicion of bone marrow infiltration. CT scans of the abdomen may reveal abnormalities in the kidneys or lymph nodes, but a renal biopsy is still required for a definitive diagnosis. As amyloidosis can affect other organs, a lung biopsy may not be the most targeted approach for diagnosing renal amyloidosis. Overall, a renal biopsy is the most reliable method for diagnosing renal amyloidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with a newly discovered lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with a newly discovered lump in his scrotum. He noticed it a week ago while performing self-examination in the shower. He reports no recent injuries and is in good health otherwise. He has no significant medical or surgical history and is in a committed relationship. His vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is soft and nontender without any signs of an inguinal hernia. On examination, a small, painless mass is palpable just behind and separate from the right testicle. The left testicle appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epididymal cyst

      Explanation:

      Scrotal swelling that is separate from the body of the testicle is likely caused by an epididymal cyst. This condition is common in middle-aged men and is typically benign. An ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment is usually conservative.

      If the swelling is accompanied by pain, redness, and fever, it may be epididymitis. This condition is caused by an infection and can also involve the testes, resulting in unilateral testicular pain and swelling. Treatment typically involves a single IM dose of ceftriaxone 500mg and oral doxycycline 100mg BD for 10-14 days.

      A firm and painless lump on the testicle may indicate a germ-cell tumor, which is the most common malignancy in younger males. Other risk factors include infertility, cryptorchidism, mumps orchitis, and Klinefelter syndrome. Hydrocele, on the other hand, is a collection of fluid within the membrane that surrounds the testes. It is common in neonates and can occur in adults due to recent testicular trauma or orchitis. Treatment for hydrocele is generally conservative.

      Epididymal cysts are a prevalent reason for scrotal swellings that are frequently encountered in primary care. These cysts are typically found at the back of the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They are often associated with other medical conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound may be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. There is a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for migraine. She admits to taking multiple painkillers for her headaches. Blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. Urinalysis reveals haematuria, and the GP commences her on a 2-week course of nitrofurantoin. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of a normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine level of 230 μmol/l (reference range 44–97 μmol/l).
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesic nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Excessive Analgesic Consumption

      Excessive consumption of analgesic medications such as aspirin and paracetamol can lead to kidney injury, a condition known as analgesic nephropathy. This is caused by decreased blood flow to the kidney, rapid consumption of antioxidants, and subsequent oxidative damage to the kidney, resulting in renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. The kidney injury may lead to progressive chronic kidney disease, abnormal urinalysis results, hypertension, and normochromic normocytic anaemia.

      Other possible diagnoses for renal damage include reflux nephropathy, acute nephritis, renal failure secondary to sepsis, and hypertensive renal disease. Reflux nephropathy is characterized by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys, while acute nephritis is caused by infections or drug-associated hypersensitivity. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and hypertensive renal disease is defined by the coexistence of renal arterial vascular disease and hypertension.

      In the given clinical scenario, the most likely diagnosis is analgesic nephropathy due to the patient’s history of excessive analgesic consumption. However, other diagnoses cannot be ruled out without further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 17 - What is true about calcium homeostasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about calcium homeostasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 98% of filtered Ca2+ is reabsorbed in the kidneys

      Explanation:

      Regulation of Calcium in the Body

      Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes in the body. Here are some key points about the regulation of calcium in the body:

      Reabsorption in the Kidneys: The kidneys filter 250 mmol of calcium ions a day in the glomerular filtrate and reabsorb 245 mmol, leading to a net average loss in the urine of about 5 mmol/day. The quantity of calcium ions excreted in the urine per day is partially under the influence of the plasma parathyroid hormone (PTH) level.

      Free Calcium Ions in Serum: In serum, most calcium is bound to albumin, and less than 50% of calcium is in the ionized form. The biological effect of calcium is determined by the amount of ionized calcium, rather than the total calcium.

      Bone Regulation: Body calcium content is mainly regulated by bone. Intestinal absorption of calcium is the main regulator of calcium content. The active absorption of calcium from the intestine is regulated by calcitriol concentration in the blood.

      Calcitonin and Renal Calcium Excretion: When the concentration of calcium rises, the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland increase their secretion of calcitonin into the blood. At the same time, the parathyroid glands reduce their rate of PTH secretion into the blood. The resulting high levels of calcitonin in the blood stimulate the skeleton to remove calcium from the blood plasma and deposit it as bone. The reduced levels of PTH inhibit removal of calcium from the skeleton and increase the loss of calcium in the urine.

      Hypercalcaemia in Sarcoidosis: Absorptive hypercalcaemia occurs from conditions that produce increased serum calcitriol levels, as occurs in sarcoidosis. Increased calcitriol production from activated pulmonary macrophages leads to increased intestinal absorption of calcium, leading to raised calcium levels.

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  • Question 18 - A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalised facial swelling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalised facial swelling. He recently recovered from viral pharyngitis. He is otherwise healthy and meeting developmental milestones.

      Upon examination, he is alert and not experiencing any respiratory distress. There is pitting edema in his face and legs.

      Urinalysis reveals 4+ protein and no hematuria. Blood tests show a hemoglobin level of 180 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180, females: 115-160), platelets at 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC at 8.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), bilirubin at 12 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP at 60 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT at 35 u/L (normal range: 3-40), γGT at 32 u/L (normal range: 8-60), and albumin at 10 g/L (normal range: 35-50).

      What is the recommended first-line treatment option for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment for minimal change glomerulonephritis, which is likely the cause of this patient’s facial edema, hypoalbuminemia, and proteinuria, is prednisolone. This medication is a corticosteroid and is considered the mainstay of therapy for this condition. Adrenaline, albumin infusion, and furosemide are not appropriate treatments for this patient’s condition. While albumin infusion may be used as adjunctive therapy, its effects will only be temporary. Adrenaline is used to treat anaphylaxis and would not be effective in treating minimal change disease. Furosemide may be used as adjunctive therapy, but its effects will also be temporary.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross haematuria. She reports that her sister recently underwent a kidney transplant and that her mother passed away due to renal failure. During physical examination, a significant mass is palpated in the left lumbar region, and a smaller mass is felt in the right flank. Elevated levels of blood urea and serum creatinine are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Common Kidney Disorders and their Clinical Presentations

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a progressive disorder characterized by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Patients may experience pain in the abdomen, flank or back, and hypertension is a common early manifestation. Palpable, bilateral flank masses are present in advanced ADPKD.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)
      RCC is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults. It may remain clinically occult for most of its course, with only 10% of patients presenting with the classic triad of flank pain, haematuria, and unilateral palpable flank mass. RCC presents with hypercalcaemia manifestations in 5% of cases and with varicocele in 2% of men.

      Renal Calculi
      Renal calculi, or nephrolithiasis, classically present with sudden onset of severe pain originating in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. On examination, there is dramatic costovertebral angle tenderness.

      Prostatic Carcinoma
      Most cases of prostate cancer are identified by screening in asymptomatic men. Symptoms include urinary complaints or retention, back pain, and haematuria. Findings in patients with advanced disease include bony tenderness, lower-extremity oedema or deep venous thrombosis, and an overdistended bladder due to outlet obstruction.

      Renal Amyloidosis
      Patients with renal amyloidosis typically present with proteinuria and/or hypertension, followed by progressive renal failure. Haematuria is not a feature.

      Clinical Presentations of Common Kidney Disorders

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found to have a blood pressure of 170/90 mmHg. She is a non-smoker and has a history of diabetes. Renal artery stenosis is suspected as the underlying cause of her condition.
      Which of the following tests is the gold-standard investigation for diagnosis of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intra-arterial renal arteriography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to reduced blood flow to the kidneys. There are several diagnostic tests that can be used to assess for this condition.

      Intra-arterial renal arteriography is an invasive test that involves passing radio-opaque dye through the renal arteries to assess for normal flow or stenosis. This is considered the gold-standard test for diagnosing renal artery stenosis. It can also be used as a therapeutic modality if stents can be used to increase the lumen of the artery.

      Renal ultrasound scan can be used to assess for a shrunken appearance of the affected kidney and reduced vascular flow in the renal artery. Duplex ultrasound can augment this scan.

      Peripheral plasma renin activity is no longer considered suitable for initial testing for renovascular disease. Investigations demonstrating the presence of stenosis or occlusion of the renal artery are preferred.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) arteriography can be performed to assess for patent renal arteries or stenosis. However, a plain MRI without contrast would not be as effective as an intra-arterial examination.

      A 24-hour urinary protein test may be arranged to assess for other causes of reduced renal function, but it would not be useful in assessing for patent renal arteries.

      Overall, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose renal artery stenosis and determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are concerned that he has been experiencing excessive thirst and needing to go to the bathroom to urinate frequently. There is suspicion that this may be a case of diabetes insipidus. Upon investigation, it is found that his symptoms are unresponsive to a desmopressin (ADH analogue).
      What is the most suitable medication for managing this child's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorothiazide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, resulting in excessive urination and thirst. Thiazide diuretics are paradoxically used to treat this condition by blocking the NaCl transporter in the distal tubule, leading to increased uptake of sodium and water in the proximal collecting duct. This results in less water loss through urination and improved symptoms. Desmopressin is not effective in treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it works by increasing ADH levels. Loop diuretics like bumetanide are not used to treat this condition. Insulin has no use in diabetes insipidus. Terlipressin is only effective in cranial diabetes insipidus.

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  • Question 22 - A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been going on for three months. Upon examination, there is swelling on one side of the scrotum that illuminates when light is shone on it. The swelling is soft and painless, and the testis cannot be fully felt due to the presence of fluid. What is the best next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Although the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient at a later time would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound has ruled out cancer. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. While a unilateral hydrocele may be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the initial investigation in this case. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.

      A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.

      The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.

      Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman presents with flank pain and a 48-hour history of dysuria....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with flank pain and a 48-hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovary syndrome. She is not sexually active at present. There is haematuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain.
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: Overview of Common Conditions

      Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice. It can be caused by a wide range of conditions, including gastrointestinal, genitourinary, gynecological, and systemic disorders. Here, we provide an overview of some of the most common conditions that can cause abdominal pain and their characteristic features.

      Pyelonephritis: This is a potentially life-threatening infection that affects the renal parenchyma. It typically presents with fever, unilateral costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting. Antibiotic therapy is essential, and empirical therapy should be tailored to the infecting pathogen.

      Ovarian cyst pain: Ovarian cysts are usually asymptomatic, but severe pain can occur if there is torsion or rupture. The pain is sudden, sharp, and unilateral, and can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus.

      Nephrolithiasis: This refers to the presence of calculi in the kidneys and/or ureters. The classic presentation is sudden onset of severe flank pain that radiates anteriorly and inferiorly, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Fever is not a typical feature.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease: PID is an infectious and inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract. It typically presents with lower abdominal pain and abnormal vaginal discharge.

      Acute glomerulonephritis: This is a specific set of renal diseases that can result in damage to the glomerular tissue. Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious form, but it typically presents with haematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts in the urine, often accompanied by hypertension and oedema.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain is broad and includes a range of conditions that can affect different organ systems. A careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate investigations, can help to narrow down the possible causes and guide management.

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  • Question 24 - An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication for a painful and swollen knee joint two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and their Association with Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the renal tubules and interstitium, often caused by medications. Here are some common medications and their association with acute tubulointerstitial nephritis:

      1. Prednisolone: This medication is safe to continue as it is already used as a management option for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      2. Allopurinol: This medication should be discontinued as it is known to cause acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      3. Amoxicillin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is one of the most common drug-related causes of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and may need to be withdrawn.

      4. Diclofenac: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as diclofenac, are another common cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be stopped in any form of acute kidney injury.

      5. Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are known to be a triggering medication for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be withdrawn promptly to allow for renal function recovery.

      It is important to be aware of these associations and to monitor patients for symptoms of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis when prescribing these medications.

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  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin pain that had been intermittent throughout the day. She tells the doctor that she has a previous history of gout.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      A non-contrast abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing nephrolithiasis in patients with a history of gout. This test has a high sensitivity and specificity and can also detect other pathologies.
      Intravenous urography is less sensitive and requires IV contrast material, which can cause allergic reactions or renal failure.
      Renal ultrasonography is useful in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB radiograph but is less accurate for diagnosing ureteral stones.
      Retrograde ureterography is rarely performed for diagnostic purposes but is essential when surgery is necessary.
      Uric acid stones are associated with low urine pH, high purine intake, or malignancy, and can be treated with allopurinol or alkali therapy depending on the patient’s uric acid levels.

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      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. What is the most frequent complication that may arise when considering long-term peritoneal dialysis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Chronic dialysis patients may experience median nerve compression, which can be caused by oedema or vascular insufficiency related to a dialysis shunt or fistula. Amyloid disease, which can infiltrate the synovium within the carpal tunnel, may also contribute to nerve compression in patients with renal failure. Anaemia is a common complication of chronic kidney disease, resulting from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. This type of anaemia is normochromic normocytic and can lead to the development of new-onset heart failure. However, the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents has reduced the incidence of congestive heart failure due to anaemia. Squamous cell skin cancer is a type of skin cancer that is strongly associated with high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Individuals who have received solid organ transplants and are taking chronic immunosuppressive medication are at a significantly increased risk of developing this type of cancer, particularly squamous cell carcinoma. There is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term haemodialysis. Immunosuppression, such as in the case of kidney transplant recipients, is associated with an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

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      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is found. Blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of loin pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of loin pain and blood in her urine. She has been experiencing fatigue lately and has lost around 4 kg of weight unintentionally in the past two weeks. She has a history of diabetes and her BMI is 30 kg/m2. You suspect that she may have renal cancer. What type of kidney tumour is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clear cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Kidney Tumours and Their Characteristics

      Kidney tumours can present with symptoms such as haematuria, loin pain, fatigue, and weight loss. These symptoms should be considered as red flags for urgent referral for potential renal cancer. Renal cell carcinomas are the most common type of kidney tumours in adults, accounting for 80% of renal cancers. They are divided into clear cell (most common), papillary, chromophobe, and collecting duct carcinomas. Sarcomatoid renal cancers are rare and have a poorer prognosis compared to other types of renal cancer. Angiomyolipomas are benign kidney tumours commonly seen in patients with tuberous sclerosis. Transitional cell carcinomas account for 5-10% of adult kidney tumours and start in the renal pelvis. They are the most common type of cancer in the ureters, bladder, and urethra. Wilms’ tumour is the most common kidney cancer in children and is not likely to be found in adults.

      Understanding the Different Types of Kidney Tumours

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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man undergoes a new-patient screen by his general practitioner (GP) and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man undergoes a new-patient screen by his general practitioner (GP) and is found to have microscopic haematuria. The GP also observes a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and a calcium concentration of 3.1 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l). During the examination, the patient is noted to have a varicocele. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal-cell adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a renal mass in a 68-year-old man

      Renal-cell adenocarcinoma, retroperitoneal sarcoma, transitional-cell carcinoma, Wilms’ tumour and urinary tract infection (UTI) are among the possible causes of a renal mass in a 68-year-old man. Renal-cell adenocarcinoma is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults, but it may remain clinically silent for most of its course. Retroperitoneal sarcomas are rare tumours that usually present as an asymptomatic abdominal mass. Transitional-cell carcinoma is a malignant tumour arising from the transitional epithelial cells lining the urinary tract, and it often causes gross haematuria. Wilms’ tumour is a childhood malignancy that is not consistent with the age of the patient. UTIs in men are generally complicated and may cause dysuria, urinary frequency and urgency, but these symptoms are not elicited in this clinical scenario. Diagnosis and management of a renal mass require a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, laboratory tests, imaging studies and biopsy, if indicated. Treatment options depend on the type, stage and location of the tumour, as well as the patient’s overall health and preferences.

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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain and swelling in his right testicle that has been gradually developing over the past two days. He rates the pain as 5/10 on the pain scale. Although he recently returned from a trip to Spain four weeks ago, he denies experiencing any dysuria or urethral discharge. Upon examination, the right testicle is tender and swollen. The patient's heart rate is 84/min and his temperature is 36.8ºC. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and pain caused by testicular torsion are usually more severe and acute, while a patient with mumps would experience prodromal symptoms and parotitis.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

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      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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