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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression. Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine has a half-life of 2.5 hours

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old gentleman is investigated for recurrent renal stones. He has been hospitalised...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old gentleman is investigated for recurrent renal stones. He has been hospitalised on multiple occasions and has required lithotripsy three times. Investigations show the following: Calcium 2.08 mmol/L, Phosphate 0.85 mmol/L, Parathyroid hormone 4.1 pmol/L (normal range = 0.8 - 8.5) 24 hour urinary calcium 521 mg/24 hours (normal range < 300) Which one of the following treatments will most likely reduce the incidence of renal stones?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate supplements

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      Indapamide is a mild thiazide-like diuretic with hypotensive effect, and compared to other thiazides, it is reported to also have less metabolic derangements. However, it may have beneficial hypo-calciuric effects that are often associated with thiazides, thus, in this case, we would recommend prescribing this to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central serous retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
      Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she...

    Correct

    • A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she collapsed whilst shopping. She has a tachycardia of 150 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg. Her ECG showed a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is more suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia (VT) over a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular dissociation

      Explanation:

      To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is northern blotting used for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is northern blotting used for?

      Your Answer: Detect DNA

      Correct Answer: Detect RNA

      Explanation:

      Northern blotting’s purpose is to measure the size and amount of RNA transcribed from a specific gene of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father has passed away recently at the age of 48 and found to have HOCM during post mortem examination. On examination of this patient his BP was 142/84 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. There was a mid systolic murmur and a double apex beat. Echocardiography showed a septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm. What is the factor most closely linked to his 20 year risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer: History of sudden cardiac death in the family

      Correct Answer: Septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55 yr. old man presented with retrosternal chest pain associated with excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 yr. old man presented with retrosternal chest pain associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. On examination his BP was 100/60 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. Bibasal crepitations were auscultated. His ECG showed ST elevation in V1 to V4 and ST depression in leads II, III and aVF. Which of the following would be the finding during angioplasty?

      Your Answer: 70% stenosis of the left anterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Complete occlusion of the left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The ECG findings are suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction and the most likely artery affected is the left anterior descending artery. Occlusion of the right coronary artery will be shown by ST elevation in lead II, III, aVF and occlusion of the circumflex artery will show changes in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. To have ST elevation, there should be complete occlusion of the artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Correct

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE.
      The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.
      Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.

      Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes. Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dyspepsia overlapped with irritable bowel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye pain, pain in the knee and hands, and a rash on her face. On examination, the rash was the shape of a butterfly, and the joints were mildly swollen. The eyes of the patient were found to be red with irregular pupils. Where do you think the problem lies?

      Your Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Iris

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis which is often accompanied by iritis, the cause of this patient’s red eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is diagnosed electrocardiographically

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had type-1 diabetes for 30 years. Recently, he has suffered several falls, which he describes as attacks where he feels ‘faint’ and loses his footing. He has suffered from impotence for several years and takes anti-reflux medication. On examination, he has a postural drop of 35 mmHg in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient ischaemic attacks

      Correct Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy may involve the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, genitourinary systems and the sweat glands.
      Patients with generalized autonomic neuropathies may report ataxia, gait instability, or near syncope/syncope. In addition, autonomic neuropathies have further symptoms that relate to the anatomic site of nerve damage—gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, bladder, or sudomotor.
      – Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Dysphagia, abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, malabsorption, faecal incontinence, diarrhoea, constipation.
      – Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms :
      Persistent sinus tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, sinus arrhythmia, decreased heart variability in response to deep breathing, near syncope upon changing positions from recumbent to standing.
      – Bladder neuropathy (which must be differentiated from prostate or spine disorders) may produce the following symptoms:
      Poor urinary stream
      Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying
      Straining to void
      – Sudomotor neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Heat intolerance
      Heavy sweating of head, neck, and trunk with anhidrosis of lower trunk and extremities
      Gustatory sweating

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His headaches are now occurring about once a week. He describes unilateral, throbbing headaches that may last over 24 hours. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Other than a history of asthma, he is fit and well. What is the most suitable therapy to reduce the frequency of migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Zolmitriptan

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that as a general rule 5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraine whilst 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis. NICE produced guidelines in 2012 on the management of headache, including migraines. Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing 2 or more attacks per month. Modern treatment is effective in about 60% of patients. NICE advises either topiramate or propranolol ‘according to the person’s preference, comorbidities and risk of adverse events’. Propranolol should be used in preference to topiramate in women of child bearing age as it may be teratogenic and it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
      Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
      – Bone pain (the most common symptom)
      – Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
      – Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
      – Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
      – Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
      Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
      Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus. She is under treatment for asthma and depression with albuterol and amitriptyline respectively. On examination, she seems agitated with a BP of 100/44, a pulse rate of 112 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 cycles/min, and a temperature of 37.8'C. An arterial blood gas performed reveals: pH: 7.48 (7.36 – 7.44) pO2: 11.2 kPa (11.3 – 12.6 kPa) pCO2: 1.9 kPa (4.7 – 6.0 kPa) Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/l (20 – 28 mmol/L) What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Salicylate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The blood gas analysis provided above is suggestive of a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis characteristic of salicylate overdose.

      Pathophysiology:
      The direct stimulation of the cerebral medulla causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
      As it is metabolized, it causes an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.
      Lactate levels then increase due to the increase in anaerobic metabolism. This, along with a slight contribution from the salicylate metabolites result in metabolic acidosis.

      Tinnitus is characteristic and salicylate ototoxicity may produce deafness. Other neurological sequelae include encephalopathy and agitation, seizures and CNS depression and coma. Cardiovascular complications include tachycardia, hypotension, and dysrhythmias (VT, VF, and asystole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF),...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF), is due for extensive abdominal surgery. What is the most appropriate step in regards to her anticoagulation therapy?

      Your Answer: Stop warfarin, if INR >3.0, give vitamin K one day pre-operatively

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients with a VTE within the previous three months, patients with AF and previous stroke or TIA or multiple other risk factors, and patients with a mitral valve replacement should be considered for bridging therapy.

      The most appropriate bridging therapy in this case would be low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), with the last dose given not less than 24 hours prior to the procedure. Warfarin should be discontinued 5 days prior to the procedure. If the INR is still above 3 on the day prior to the procedure, vitamin K should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer: Right bundle branch block

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate.
      The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
      Other treatment modalities include:
      • Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.
      • 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)
      • PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.
      • Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination: BP: 101/74 mmHg RR: 22 breaths/min PR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer: Overactive elastase enzyme leading to an excessive breakdown of collagen

      Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer: Histamine

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 29 year old graduate student is reviewed after feeling anxious all the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old graduate student is reviewed after feeling anxious all the time. She states that she is unable to relax and she is not sleeping well. However, her mood is okay and her appetite is good. She has been reviewed for several weeks with the same symptoms and has made no improvement with self-help sessions. Which pharmacological option is likely indicated in her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregabalin

      Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Explanation:

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by persistent and excessive worry about a number of different things. People with GAD may anticipate disaster and may be overly concerned about money, health, family, work, or other issues. Individuals with GAD find it difficult to control their worry. They may worry more than seems warranted about actual events or may expect the worst even when there is no apparent reason for concern.

      GAD is diagnosed when a person finds it difficult to control worry on more days than not for at least six months and has three or more symptoms.

      Treatment usually consists of a combination of pharmacotherapy and/or psychotherapy. Antidepressant agents are the drugs of choice in the treatment of anxiety disorders, particularly the newer agents, which have a safer adverse effect profile and higher ease of use than the older tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests show the following: Hb 13.4 g/dL, Platelets 467 * 109/L, WBC 8.2 * 109/L, CRP 89 mg/l A diagnosis of ulcerative colitis is suspected. Which part of the bowel is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Correct Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      The most COMMON site of inflammation from ulcerative colitis is the rectum, making this the correct answer. This is simply a fact you need to memorize. In general, ulcerative colitis only occurs in colorectal regions– nothing in the small bowel (unless there is backwash into the terminal ileum) and nothing further up the GI tract. In Crohn’s it can affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor for a review. His symptoms are currently well controlled; he is taking Ramipril 10mg, Spironolactone 25mg, Bisoprolol 10mg, and Furosemide 40mg. His main complaint is of painful gynaecomastia that he says has developed over the past 6 months. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 125/80 mmHg and no residual signs of cardiac failure. Renal function is unchanged from 6 months earlier, with stable creatinine at 125 µmol/l. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Stop the bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Change the spironolactone to eplerenone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that is well-known to cause gynaecomastia because it increases testosterone clearance and oestradiol production. The patient’s primary complaint of gynaecomastia should immediately prompt discontinuation of spironolactone and replacement with Eplerenone, which lacks the antiandrogenic effects, and thus there is less risk of gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.   What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer: Rib fractures

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.

      Symptoms of IAD may include:
      -Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
      -Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
      -High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
      -Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
      -Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
      -Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at...

    Incorrect

    • A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulsus alternans

      Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      DIAGNOSIS:
      A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
      A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
      A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
      Bounding pulses
      Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
      Hepatomegaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury. On examination...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury. On examination there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, and weakness of extension of the big toe. He has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of his foot surrounding the base of his big toe. Other examination is within normal limits. Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula

      Explanation:

      Peroneal nerve injury is also known as foot drop. The common peroneal nerve supplies the ankle and toe extensor muscle groups as well as sensation over the dorsum of the foot; thus, there is also loss of sensation in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Hepatitis C is what kind of virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hepatitis C is what kind of virus?

      Your Answer: A retrovirus

      Correct Answer: A variable RNA virus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a single-stranded positive sense RNA virus. It is variable because of the high rate of error of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and the pressure from the host immune system has caused HCV to evolve and develop seven genetic lineages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Heliotrope rash around external auditory meatus

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
      The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Nephrology (0/3) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (1/5) 20%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/3) 0%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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