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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old woman complains of a painful lump in her left breast. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman complains of a painful lump in her left breast. She has been breastfeeding her baby for two weeks without any issues until four days ago when she noticed the swelling. Upon examination, there is a warm, tender, erythematosus, and fluctuant mass in her left breast. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abscess

      Explanation:

      Lactational Breast Abscesses: Causes and Treatment

      Lactational breast abscesses are a common occurrence during the first month of breastfeeding. These abscesses are typically caused by staphylococcal bacteria and can be treated with antibiotics and aspiration under ultrasound control. In some cases, multiple aspirations may be necessary to fully resolve the abscess. However, if the abscess does not respond to treatment or recurs, formal incision and drainage may be required. It is important for new mothers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of lactational breast abscesses, such as breast pain, redness, and swelling, and to seek medical attention promptly if they suspect an abscess. With proper treatment, lactational breast abscesses can be effectively managed, allowing mothers to continue breastfeeding their infants without interruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his partner following a...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his partner following a fall. A collateral history is obtained, revealing that he tripped over a loose rug and fell, hitting his head on the ground and losing consciousness for 2 minutes. Upon examination, there is bruising on his upper limbs, but no neurological deficits are observed, and his Glasgow coma score (GCS) is 15. The patient himself can recall events leading up to and after the fall, and has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the incident. Additionally, there are no indications of a skull fracture. The patient has a medical history of hypertension that is managed with amlodipine. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Discharge with safety-netting and advice

      Correct Answer: Perform CT head within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      For patients over 65 years old who have experienced some form of loss of consciousness or amnesia after a head injury, a CT scan should be performed within 8 hours. This is important to assess the risk of complications from the injury. While this patient does not have any immediate indications for a CT scan, as they did not have a GCS score below 13 on initial assessment, suspected skull fractures, seizures, focal neurological deficits, or vomiting, they did lose consciousness during the fall. NICE guidelines recommend that any patient over 65 years old who experiences a loss of consciousness or amnesia following a fall should be offered a CT head 8 hours post-injury to identify potential complications such as intracranial bleeds. A CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary in this case.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman is currently admitted to orthopaedics after breaking her femur in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is currently admitted to orthopaedics after breaking her femur in a road traffic accident. Two days later, she develops a fever of 38.3ºC and becomes breathless. She is also confused and has retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. After conducting an A-E assessment and ruling out any rashes, a chest X-ray is performed and comes back normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the knee downwards, causing him great difficulty in walking. Of note, pulses are not palpable in the right limb below the knee. While standing, the right limb appears more erythematosus than the left, but this colour quickly fades on laying the patient flat.
      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Ankle–brachial pressure index measurement would be a useful tool in the above patient

      Correct Answer: Chronic arterial insufficiency is likely to be an underlying factor in the above presentation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Arterial Insufficiency and Acute Limb Ischaemia

      Chronic arterial insufficiency can be a contributing factor to acute limb ischaemia, a condition where blood flow to a limb is suddenly blocked. In patients with pre-existing stenotic vessels, an embolus or thrombus can easily occlude the vessel, leading to acute limb ischaemia. While patients with chronic arterial insufficiency may develop collaterals, these may not prevent the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia. Paraesthesiae, or altered sensation, is a common symptom of acute limb ischaemia. While ankle-brachial pressure index measurement can be useful, it is of limited use in diagnosing acute limb ischaemia. A Fogarty catheter can be used for surgical embolectomy, and lumbar sympathectomy may be performed in chronic arterial insufficiency to increase distal blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man presents with sudden onset perineal and testicular pain, accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with sudden onset perineal and testicular pain, accompanied by redness and a rash. The pain is most severe over the rash site and he reports reduced sensation to the surrounding skin. His vital signs are heart rate 97 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 with 98% oxygen saturation in room air, temperature 36.9ºC, and blood pressure 122/93 mmHg. On examination, there is an erythematous rash over the perineum and testicles which has spread since he last checked 30 minutes ago. The cremasteric reflex is present and both testicles are of equal height. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and takes dapagliflozin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tinea cruris

      Correct Answer: Necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that necrotising fasciitis is the most likely diagnosis, as they have a rapidly spreading rash and severe pain in the testicular and perineal area, reduced sensation, and comorbid diabetes mellitus and use of an SGLT-2 inhibitor. This is a surgical emergency that requires immediate debridement and IV antibiotics to prevent tissue loss, including the loss of testicles in this case.

      While Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause a skin rash in disseminated infection, the absence of traditional symptoms such as dysuria or discharge makes it unlikely. Testicular torsion is also unlikely as the preservation of the cremaster reflex and equal height of both testicles suggest otherwise. Tinea corporis is an incorrect answer as it is rare for the fungus to affect the genitals and it would not cause sudden onset rash and severe pain.

      Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.

      The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.

      Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, is planning to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, is planning to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What pre-operative imaging is necessary?

      Your Answer: Anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine, plus hand, radiographs

      Correct Answer: Anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs

      Explanation:

      Although rare, atlantoaxial subluxation is a significant complication of rheumatoid arthritis due to its potential to cause cervical cord compression. To prevent this, preoperative screening using anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs is essential. This screening ensures that the patient is fitted with a C-spine collar and that their neck is not hyperextended during intubation. While hand radiographs aid in diagnosis, they are not required before surgery. Although not necessary for screening, CT scans of the cervical spine may be beneficial if any abnormalities are detected.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that can lead to various complications beyond joint pain and inflammation. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and immune system. Some of the respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, and bronchiolitis obliterans. Eye-related complications may include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, scleritis, and corneal ulceration. RA can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, infections, and depression. Less common complications may include Felty’s syndrome and amyloidosis.

      It is important to note that these complications may not affect all individuals with RA and the severity of the complications can vary. However, it is essential for individuals with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or address any complications that may arise. Regular check-ups and monitoring of symptoms can help detect and manage any complications early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In what scenarios is there a demand for novel approaches to establish death...

    Incorrect

    • In what scenarios is there a demand for novel approaches to establish death despite the persistence of cardiorespiratory activity?

      Your Answer: Locked-in syndrome

      Correct Answer: Organ transplantation

      Explanation:

      Brainstem Death and Organ Donation

      The traditional criteria for clinical death were based on the absence of cardiorespiratory function. However, the emergence of organ transplantation revealed that some patients with conditions incompatible with life still had some form of cardiorespiratory function with artificial support. This led to the development of a code of practice for diagnosing brainstem death.

      Brainstem death occurs when the brainstem is damaged to such an extent that its functions are irreversibly destroyed. Although respiration and circulation can be artificially maintained, the heart will inevitably stop beating shortly after brainstem death. Therefore, when brainstem death occurs, the patient is considered dead.

      To diagnose brainstem death, set criteria are used, and the findings must be agreed upon by at least two senior doctors. This situation often arises in the ICU when determining death is not possible through regular measures due to life support machines such as ventilators. At this point, life support should be withdrawn, but consideration should be given to whether the person would be a suitable organ donor.

      The diagnosis of brainstem death is crucial for organ donation, as organs must be harvested from a person who is legally dead. Therefore, the development of a code of practice for diagnosing brainstem death has been essential in facilitating organ donation and saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old boy presents to the clinic for a routine check-up due to...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to the clinic for a routine check-up due to his recent development of poor near vision, without any history of eye trauma. He is tall, measuring at the 99th percentile for his age, and is performing well in school. During the medical history, he reports experiencing fatigue easily during physical activity. Upon examination, you observe that he has a high arched palate, pectus excavatum, and long arms. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and an early diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge during the cardiovascular exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disease with cardiovascular complications such as aortic root dilation and aneurysm. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, family history, and genetic testing. The Ghent criteria are commonly used, with emphasis on cardiac manifestations. Echocardiographic surveillance is required, and prophylactic medications are used to reduce the chance of aortic root dilation. Aortic regurgitation may require surgery. Marfan syndrome is associated with non-cardiac features, and the clinical criteria can be found on the American National Marfan Foundation website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old female is admitted to the general medical unit with acute thoracic...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female is admitted to the general medical unit with acute thoracic back pain from a T6 crush fracture following a fall. She has a past history of systolic heart failure, depression and osteoporosis.

      Her regular medications included aspirin, furosemide, spironolactone, bisoprolol, sertraline and calcium, vitamin D and weekly alendronate. These are continued throughout her admission.

      Three days into her admission, the nurses note that she is agitated and a bit confused.

      On examination, she looks flushed and is tachycardic with a heart rate of 120 beats/min and is hypertensive with a blood pressure of 185/70 mmHg, but is afebrile. Both her pupils are mildly dilated, she is mildly tremulous and is noted to have deep tendon hyperreflexia with easily inducible clonus.

      Which of the following analgesic medications could be responsible for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hydromorphone

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome is a condition characterized by an excess of serotonin, often caused by the use of two or more serotonergic drugs. Symptoms of the syndrome include changes in mental state, neuromuscular changes, and autonomic overactivity. This can manifest as hypertension, tachycardia, flushing and sweating, hyperreflexia, clonus, and muscle rigidity. Other possible signs include fever and changes in mental state, such as agitation.

      Serotonergic drugs that can lead to serotonin syndrome include tramadol, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), triptans, and St. John’s wort. Treatment for serotonin syndrome involves discontinuing all serotonergic drugs and providing supportive care. If necessary, benzodiazepines can be given to control agitation. In moderate to severe cases, 5-HT antagonists (such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine) may be administered.

      References:
      Hall M, Buckley N. Serotonin Syndrome. Aust Prescr. 2003;26:62-3
      Boyer EW, Shannon M. The serotonin syndrome. N Engl J Med. 2005 Mar 17;352(11):1112-20.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain is sharp in nature, is exacerbated by coughing and came on gradually over the past 12 hours. On examination, she is unable to stand on one leg comfortably and experiences pain on hip extension. The is no rebound tenderness or guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative, and her temperature is 37.4ºC. The following tests are done:

      Hb 135 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 300 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Neuts 11 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Lymphs 2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)

      Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)

      Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      CRP 24 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute appendicitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for individuals experiencing pain in the peri-umbilical region is acute appendicitis. Early appendicitis is characterized by this type of pain, and a positive psoas sign is also present. A neutrophil predominant leucocytosis is observed on the full blood count, indicating an infection. Ovarian torsion can cause sharp pain, but it is typically sudden and severe, not gradually worsening over 12 hours. Inguinal hernia pain is more likely to be felt in the groin area, not peri-umbilical, and there is no mention of a mass during the abdominal examination. Suprapubic pain and lower urinary tract symptoms such as dysuria are more likely to be associated with a lower urinary tract infection. In the absence of high fever and/or flank pain, an upper urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Understanding Acute Appendicitis

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, leading to oedema, ischaemia, and possible perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is usually peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers, compatible history, and examination findings. Imaging may be used in some cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. The treatment of choice for acute appendicitis is appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.

      In conclusion, acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the pathogenesis, symptoms, and management of acute appendicitis is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      64.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Medicine (1/2) 50%
Miscellaneous (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed