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  • Question 1 - What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) after air travel for individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings have a role in reducing the risk of VTE in moderate or high risk patients

      Explanation:

      For patients at moderate or high risk, compression stockings are the most suitable preventative measure, with low molecular weight heparin potentially necessary for those at very high risk. Aspirin is not recommended by any current UK guidelines. Although it is sensible to maintain good hydration, there is no evidence to suggest that it effectively prevents VTE, as noted by SIGN in their guideline.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.

      What medication should she avoid in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small,...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small, painful ulcers on the glans penis and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Primary Genital Herpes Simplex Virus Infection from Other Genital Lesions

      Primary genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection caused by HSV type 2 is characterized by typical lesions. Unlike syphilis, which presents with a small, painless papule that quickly forms an ulcer, HSV lesions are usually painful and may be accompanied by flu-like symptoms. Enlarged lymph nodes are also common but are usually painful in HSV infection. In herpes zoster, vesiculation and ulceration occur in a dermatomal distribution, while scabies presents with a generalised itch and itchy nodules on the genitalia. Impetigo lesions are painless, superficial, and crusted or eroded, unlike the painful and often multiple lesions seen in primary genital HSV infection. Therefore, a careful examination and history-taking are essential to differentiate primary genital HSV infection from other genital lesions.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her...

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    • A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
      Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals

      Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 5 - A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

    Negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

      Negative for Anti-HBs
      Positive for Anti-HBc
      Positive for HBs antigen
      Negative for IgM anti-HBc

      What is the hepatitis B status of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      If a person has a positive result for anti-HBc IgG, negative result for anti-HBc IgM, and negative result for anti-HBc while HBsAg is present, it indicates that the person has a chronic HBV infection. The absence of IgM anti-HBc suggests that the infection is not acute but rather long-term.

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.

      Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.

      Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.

      HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.

      In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.

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  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
      Select the single correct statement regarding notification of this disease to the relevant public health authorities.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notification can be made on clinical suspicion

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Speed and Accuracy in Notifying Infectious Diseases

      Infectious disease control relies on the prompt identification and containment of outbreaks. To achieve this, doctors are required to provide identifying information to the Proper Office of the Local Authority for patients with notifiable infectious diseases. However, laboratory staff are not currently obligated to do so. The notifications system prioritizes speed in detecting outbreaks, with accuracy of diagnosis being secondary. Salivary surveillance schemes exist for measles, mumps, and rubella, but recent data shows low incidence compared to the number of notifications submitted. Prompt and accurate notification is crucial in preventing the spread of infectious diseases.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.

      What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is housebound due to her disability.
      Which vaccination should she receive annually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual influenza Vaccination

      influenza vaccines are designed to protect against the two subtypes of human influenza A (H3N2 and H1N1) and influenza B viruses. However, due to changes in the surface antigens of the virus, the composition of the vaccine must be modified annually. To ensure global recommendations on vaccine composition and surveillance for potential pandemic viruses, the World Health Organisation maintains a network of collaborating laboratories.

      Annual re-immunisation is particularly recommended for those at the highest risk of morbidity, including patients in chronic care facilities (especially the elderly), those with chronic cardiopulmonary, lung or renal diseases, diabetes mellitus, haemoglobinopathies, and those who are immunocompromised. It is also offered annually to patients aged 65 and over.

      While protection may be less effective in the elderly than in children, immunisation has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchopneumonia, mortality, and hospital admission. In children aged 1-5, it has been shown to reduce influenza-associated respiratory illness in the 1- to 15-year age group by up to 90%, and may reduce influenza-associated otitis media by up to 30%.

      In conclusion, annual influenza vaccination is crucial for protecting vulnerable populations and reducing the spread of the virus.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 ÎŒ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests

      Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.

      Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.

      It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with...

    Incorrect

    • You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week, after recovering from a mild respiratory illness. The coughing fits have been so intense that they have caused vomiting and symptoms of a possible rib fracture. The teacher is concerned that he may have contracted pertussis from his students, but he remembers being vaccinated against it as a child. Can you explain the level of protection provided by childhood immunizations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunity following immunisation usually wanes within 3 years

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Immunity and Vaccination

      Pertussis immunity tends to decrease over time, and even if a person was vaccinated as a child, they can still contract the disease as an adult. The duration of immunity following acellular pertussis vaccination is not entirely clear, but it is suggested to last for five to six years. However, a booster given in the second year of life can prolong immunity to six to nine years. For this reason, a booster dose was introduced into the childhood immunisation schedule in 2001. Children born before November 1996 would not have received the booster dose, and their immunity is likely to have waned.

      When pertussis vaccination was first introduced in the 1950s, a whole-cell pertussis vaccine was used. In 2001, the booster introduced was an acellular vaccine, and in 2004, the primary course whole-cell vaccine was replaced by the five component diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis/inactivated polio/Haemophilus influenza type b (DTaP/IPV/Hib) vaccine. Adults who received the unboosted whole-cell pertussis primary course and nothing since are highly likely to have waning immunity.

      Despite the waning of immunity, it is still important to immunise children. This is because immunisation can help protect them during the time of greatest vulnerability to the effects of pertussis infection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.

      Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and unpleasant griping abdominal pain. The symptoms appeared 6-7 hours after he ate a rice-based dish from a local Chinese takeaway. His flatmate had similar symptoms after visiting the same takeaway a few days earlier, which resolved within a day. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacillus cereus Infection

      Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning. Its incubation period is between 6 to 24 hours, and symptoms usually appear within 1 to 2 days. The bacteria produce a toxin that can cause either severe diarrhea or profuse vomiting, depending on the type of toxin produced.

      In Europe, Bacillus cereus infection is commonly associated with diarrhea. The bacteria are often found in reheated fried rice, which is a common cause of the infection. However, the infection is self-limiting, and appropriate oral rehydration advice is usually enough to manage the symptoms.

      Overall, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes of Bacillus cereus infection to prevent its spread and manage its effects.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old male presents four days after returning from Thailand with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents four days after returning from Thailand with complaints of severe muscle ache, fever, and headache. During the examination, a widespread maculopapular rash is observed. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 160 g/l, Plt 98 *109/l, WBC 2.5 *109/l, ALT 142 iu/l, and malaria film is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      A returning traveller presenting with retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely to have dengue fever. The characteristic low platelet count and elevated transaminase level support this diagnosis. The 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes Fever in the returning traveller and its possible causes, such as malaria, dengue, typhoid/paratyphoid, chikungunya, and viral haemorrhagic fevers, in its Knowledge and skills guide.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

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  • Question 15 - A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive for Chlamydia. He has had a number of partners over the past 12 months. Who should be contacted as part of routine contact tracing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      For symptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks before the onset of symptoms. For women and asymptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent sexual partner.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old otherwise healthy man comes to his General Practitioner with a 4-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old otherwise healthy man comes to his General Practitioner with a 4-day history of a sore throat. It is painful to swallow but he is able to maintain his fluid intake. He is afebrile and has a mild cough. On examination, his tonsils are severely inflamed bilaterally but there is no exudate. There is tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An antibiotic is not indicated

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Decision Making in a Case of Tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating tonsillitis, the decision to prescribe antibiotics should be based on the severity of the infection and the presence of certain criteria. The Centor criteria, which include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough, can help determine if streptococcal infection is present. A FeverPAIN score can also be used to assess the severity of tonsillitis.

      In the case of an otherwise healthy, afebrile patient with a Centor score of one for lymphadenopathy and a FeverPAIN score of one for severe tonsil inflammation, antibiotics are not indicated. However, if the condition doesn’t improve or worsens, a reassessment should be offered.

      Admission to the hospital for fluids is not necessary if the patient is able to maintain fluid intake despite painful swallowing and shows no other signs of systemic illness.

      If antibiotics are deemed necessary, a delayed prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin may be given if the FeverPAIN score is two or three. Clarithromycin may be prescribed as a second-line option if there is a true penicillin allergy and group A streptococcus is suspected as the cause, based on a FeverPAIN score of four or five or Centor score of three or four. Phenoxymethylpenicillin would be the first-line option in such cases.

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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 19 - What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea, often accompanied by E. coli. It can also lead to intestinal malabsorption. The preferred treatment for this condition is metronidazole.

      Stool microscopy is a traditional method of detecting cysts and oocysts, but it is laborious and less sensitive than the current antigen detection test. A single stool examination can identify only 50% of cases, while three stool samples can detect up to 90%.

      Unlike E. coli 0157 infection, giardiasis doesn’t cause blood loss. HUS, a severe complication, is not associated with giardiasis.

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  • Question 20 - A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife who has been admitted to the hospital with the disease. He seeks advice on the most suitable prophylactic medication.
      What is the most appropriate drug for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

      Public Health England recommends ciprofloxacin as the preferred antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of meningococcal disease in all age groups, including pregnant women. Ciprofloxacin has advantages over rifampicin, such as being a single-dose medication, not interfering with oral contraceptives, and being more easily accessible in community pharmacies. However, it should not be used in patients with ciprofloxacin hypersensitivity. Although historically not recommended for children due to the risk of arthropathy, studies have shown that the risk is low and transient.

      Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, as well as toxoplasmosis and nocardiasis. Vancomycin can be used orally to treat Clostridium difficile infection, with metronidazole as an alternative. Ceftriaxone can be used for prophylaxis of meningococcal and Haemophilus influenza type b disease, but its use is unlicensed and requires intramuscular administration. Benzylpenicillin is given intravenously or intramuscularly in the prehospital treatment of patients with suspected meningococcal disease.

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting...

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    • A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting vaccinated before his upcoming trip overseas. He has a medical history of asthma and has been on a 20 mg daily dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months, which was recently upped to 40 mg during a flare-up. Identify the one vaccine that would not be recommended for this individual.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Yellow Fever Vaccination and Other Vaccines

      Yellow fever vaccination is a type of live vaccine that is made from the 17-d strain of the virus grown in hen’s eggs. However, it is not recommended for individuals with a history of impaired immune responsiveness or anaphylactic reaction to egg. Moreover, those who are currently undergoing corticosteroid therapy should not receive live vaccination. On the other hand, the other vaccines are not live vaccines. Hepatitis B and meningococcal vaccinations are surface antigen based, while the other two are toxoids and do not contain any active components. Understanding the differences between these vaccines is important in ensuring proper vaccination and protection against diseases.

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  • Question 22 - A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college with suspected meningitis. She complained of a severe headache, fever, and vomiting that had been getting worse for the past two days. After a lumbar puncture, it was confirmed that she has a positive culture for Neisseria meningitidis.

      What antibiotic should be prescribed for her college roommates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis typically involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. Amoxicillin is primarily used in the treatment of meningitis in young children who are at a higher risk for listeria meningitis. In emergency situations, benzylpenicillin is the preferred treatment for meningitis, but it is not used for prophylaxis. Cephalosporins, such as cefalexin, are typically used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis rather than for prophylaxis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of upper left gumline pain, accompanied by a loss of appetite and a temperature of 38.2ÂșC. On examination, there is tenderness over the gum, and a dental abscess is suspected. Urgent referral to a dentist is recommended, along with antibiotic therapy. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be necessary in cases of fever or delayed presentation to a dentist. The BNF recommends amoxicillin as the first-line treatment for dental abscesses, followed by metronidazole for more invasive dental conditions.

      Since GPs have limited knowledge of dental issues, it is best for the patient to be treated by their dentist. The most effective treatment for an abscess is prompt drainage. Antibiotics are generally not recommended for healthy individuals unless there are signs of spreading infection or if the person is systemically unwell. According to NICE CKS guidelines, antibiotics should only be prescribed for severe infections (e.g. fever, lymphadenopathy, cellulitis, diffuse swelling) or for high-risk individuals (e.g. those who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or have valvular heart disease) to reduce the risk of complications.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

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  • Question 25 - Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough,...

    Incorrect

    • Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak

      Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.

      Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.

      It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.

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  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day history of fever, myalgia, malaise, and headache. She reports that her face has been swelling for the past two days and the pain has increased while chewing food. Upon examination, you notice that her parotid glands are tender and bilaterally swollen. Her temperature is 38.5ÂșC, heart rate 120 beats/minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive treatment- advise rest, fluids and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from mumps, which may be more prevalent in travelling communities due to lower vaccination rates. Supportive care is the recommended treatment for mumps, as antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and steroids are not advised. While immediate vaccination is not necessary for this patient, it may be beneficial to assess their immunisation status for other diseases such as rubella and measles and administer appropriate vaccinations. Additionally, those who have been in contact with the patient should be offered the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Hospitalisation is not required. This information is sourced from NICE CKS Mumps.

      Understanding Mumps: Causes, Symptoms, Prevention, and Management

      Mumps is a viral infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus that typically occurs during the winter and spring seasons. The virus spreads through droplets and affects respiratory tract epithelial cells, parotid glands, and other tissues. The infection is contagious, and a person can be infectious seven days before and nine days after the onset of parotid swelling. The incubation period for mumps is usually 14-21 days.

      The clinical features of mumps include fever, malaise, and muscular pain. The most common symptom is parotitis, which causes earache and pain while eating. Initially, the swelling is unilateral, but it becomes bilateral in around 70% of cases.

      Prevention of mumps is possible through the MMR vaccine, which has an efficacy rate of around 80%. Management of mumps involves rest and the use of paracetamol to alleviate high fever and discomfort. Mumps is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals must report cases to the relevant authorities.

      Complications of mumps include orchitis, which is uncommon in pre-pubertal males but occurs in around 25-35% of post-pubertal males. It typically occurs four or five days after the onset of parotitis. Other complications include hearing loss, meningoencephalitis, and pancreatitis.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, prevention, and management of mumps is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection and minimizing its complications. Vaccination and early diagnosis are essential in controlling the disease.

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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

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  • Question 28 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with a cough, conjunctivitis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with a cough, conjunctivitis and coryza. She developed a confluent maculopapular rash starting in the head and neck area and spreading elsewhere on the body within a few days. Subsequent testing has confirmed measles. Her mother has reached out to you because she seems to be more unwell and you schedule an appointment for her evaluation.

      What is the most frequent complication that occurs after a measles infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute demyelinating encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Measles

      It is crucial to understand that measles can lead to various complications. While it is essential to be aware of the rare and severe complications, it is also important to keep in mind the common ones. Pneumonia occurs in 1-6% of cases, while otitis media affects 7-9% of cases. Diarrhoea is another common complication, occurring in approximately 8% of cases, and convulsions may occur in 1 in every 200 cases. Although rare, encephalitis (1 per 1000 cases) and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis are also possible complications. It is worth noting that pancreatitis is more commonly associated with mumps infection.

      After advising parents to treat their children symptomatically with fluids, rest, and paracetamol, it is crucial to remain vigilant for any symptoms and signs of complications. While death in the UK occurs in around 1 in every 5000 cases, it is still important to take necessary precautions and seek medical attention if any complications arise.

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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across Peru. He complains of sudden onset fever, headache, joint pains, and rash all over his body. He has no pre-existing medical conditions and is not taking any medication.

      During examination, he has a petechial rash on his limbs. There are no signs of meningism or focal neurology.

      Hemoglobin: 100 g/l
      Platelets: 80 * 109/l
      White blood cells: 4.0 * 109/l
      Eosinophils: 0.4 * 109/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      A returning traveler experiencing retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely suffering from dengue fever. This disease is commonly found in South America and Southeast Asia and is characterized by sudden onset fever and joint pain, as well as low platelet counts and bleeding in severe cases. Chagas disease, which is also found in this region, typically presents with mild symptoms and elevated eosinophil levels. Viral hepatitis and malaria are less probable causes of a petechial rash.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 10 days. He had recently returned from a two-month trip to northern India. On examination, he has no fever and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is suggested by the prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea and the incubation period.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

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