-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling loose stools, abdominal cramps and frequent flatulence. She has had the symptoms for five days when she presents to her General Practitioner for advice. A diagnosis of giardiasis is suspected.
What would be the most useful investigation to request for this patient?Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Send stool culture for microscopy and culture (MC+S)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Giardiasis: Which Ones Are Necessary?
Giardiasis is a common parasitic infection that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bloating. If a patient presents with these symptoms and has a history of recent foreign travel, giardiasis should be considered as a possible cause. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis:
Stool Culture for Microscopy and Culture (MC+S)
This test is specific for detecting giardia and other potential parasitic causes of gastrointestinal symptoms. It involves sending three stool specimens 2-3 days apart to a laboratory for analysis.Colonoscopy
A colonoscopy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as the patient’s symptoms and travel history are usually sufficient to suggest the diagnosis. A stool culture is a more appropriate test.Duodenal Biopsy
A duodenal biopsy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as it is an invasive test that is typically reserved for investigating malabsorption, iron-deficiency anaemia, or neoplasia.Full Blood Count
A full blood count is not useful for diagnosing giardiasis, as it typically does not cause peripheral leukocytosis or eosinophilia.In summary, a stool culture for MC+S is the most appropriate test for diagnosing giardiasis in a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and a history of recent foreign travel. Other tests, such as colonoscopy, duodenal biopsy, and full blood count, are not necessary for making the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 4-year-old child is presented to your allergy clinic by anxious parents. The child has a previous medical record of a mild non-IgE mediated egg allergy. What course of action would you suggest?
Your Answer: Gradual reintroduction of egg based products using the egg ladder
Explanation:The egg ladder can be used to reintroduce egg in children with non-IgE mediated allergy, starting with baked egg in biscuits. Chlorpheniramine and adrenaline pen are not appropriate choices.
Identifying and Managing Food Allergies in Children and Young People
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized into IgE-mediated and non-IgE-mediated allergies. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea, and respiratory symptoms such as nasal itching, sneezing, rhinorrhea, congestion, cough, chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, blood and/or mucus in stools, abdominal pain, infantile colic, food refusal or aversion, constipation, perianal redness, pallor and tiredness, and faltering growth.
If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods and likely co-allergens should be offered. On the other hand, if the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced. It is recommended to consult a dietitian with appropriate competencies about nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up. By identifying and managing food allergies in children and young people, we can prevent severe allergic reactions and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and reduced grip strength for the past 3 weeks. She denies any history of trauma. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the radial styloid and painful resisted abduction of the thumb.
Which of the following examination findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis in this patient?Your Answer: Positive Tinel’s sign
Correct Answer: Positive Finkelstein’s test
Explanation:Common Orthopedic Tests and Their Relevance to De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that affects the first extensor compartment of the wrist, causing inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Several orthopedic tests can help diagnose this condition, including Finkelstein’s test, Tinel’s sign, Froment’s sign, and Phalen’s test. However, the squeeze test is not relevant to the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
Finkelstein’s test involves flexing the thumb across the palm of the hand and moving the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. This action stresses the affected tendons and reproduces pain in a positive test. Tinel’s sign is used to diagnose compressive neuropathy, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, by tapping the site of the nerve and causing paraesthesia in the distribution of the nerve in a positive test. Froment’s sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy by assessing the action of the adductor pollicis, while Phalen’s test diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome by flexing both wrists fully and pushing the dorsal surfaces of both hands together for 60 seconds.
Understanding the relevance of these orthopedic tests can aid in the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis and other related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been producing green sputum and shortness of breath for the past three days. During the examination, the GP detects the presence of rhonchi. The patient's vital signs are stable. Given his medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is being managed with metformin, and heart failure, for which he is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and furosemide, the GP suspects acute bronchitis. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Oral doxycycline
Explanation:Antibiotics may be prescribed for acute bronchitis if the patient has co-existing co-morbidities or is at high risk of complications. NICE guidelines advise against the use of antibiotics for those who are not systemically very unwell and not at high risk of complications. However, if the patient is very unwell or at risk of complications, antibiotics should be offered. In this case, the patient’s age, diabetes, and heart failure put him at high risk, so antibiotics should be offered in accordance with NICE guidelines. While local guidelines should be consulted, NICE recommends oral doxycycline as the first-line treatment. Inhaled bronchodilators should not be offered unless the patient has an underlying airway disease such as asthma. Oral flucloxacillin is not commonly used for respiratory tract infections, and IV co-amoxiclav is not necessary in this stable patient who can be managed without admission.
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that typically resolves on its own within three weeks. It occurs when the trachea and major bronchi become inflamed, leading to swollen airways and the production of sputum. The primary cause of acute bronchitis is viral infection, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter. Symptoms include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which presents with different symptoms and chest examination findings.
Diagnosis of acute bronchitis is typically based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to determine if antibiotic therapy is necessary. Management involves pain relief and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Antibiotics may be considered for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing health conditions, or have a CRP level between 20-100mg/L. Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old man who wears contact lenses comes to the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain. He reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in his left eye. Upon examination, his left eye is red and his pupil appears normal. What is the most suitable investigation to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tonometry
Correct Answer: Fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam
Explanation:Diagnostic Techniques for Corneal Ulcers
Corneal ulcers can cause severe eye pain, photophobia, and watery eyes. Early diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One diagnostic technique is the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam, where an orange dye is applied to the ocular surface and observed under a blue light. If the dye is taken up by the corneal epithelium, it fluoresces green/yellow, indicating corneal ulceration.
Tonometry is another diagnostic technique used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not appropriate for corneal ulcers. Computed tomography (CT) head scans are also not useful as they do not show soft-tissue abnormalities in the corneas.
Orbital magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to look for vascular lesions in the orbit, optic-nerve-sheath meningioma, optic-nerve neuritis, optic-nerve glioma, and orbital abscess. Retinoscopy, on the other hand, is used to measure refractive error and is not appropriate for diagnosing corneal ulcers.
In summary, the fluorescein dye-and-slit-lamp exam is a valuable diagnostic technique for corneal ulcers, while other techniques such as tonometry, CT head scans, and retinoscopy are not appropriate. Orbital MRI may be useful in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents to you with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. He is typically healthy, but he recently saw another doctor for a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The pain began two days ago, and he is hesitant to put weight on his left leg.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer: Perthes disease
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis of the hip
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for a child experiencing hip pain, limp, and a recent infection could be transient synovitis.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
What is the most suitable antibiotic for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a 22-year-old female who is not expecting?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline is the recommended treatment for chlamydia.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man visits the doctor's office accompanied by his wife, who is worried about his well-being. The man has been experiencing episodes of confusion and drowsiness that appear to occur unpredictably for the past five years. Additionally, he has developed a tremor in his right hand on one side of his body. The man's wife reveals that she has slept in a different bed from her husband for the past three decades due to his frequent nightmares. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe dementia
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:The correct answer is Dementia with Lewy bodies, which is a type of dementia that is characterized by fluctuating cognition. This can be confusing as there are different types of dementia, especially non-Alzheimer’s disease dementia. In this case, the man’s symptoms and the classification of dementias point towards DLB. Parkinson’s disease dementia is also a type of dementia that falls under the category of Lewy body dementia, but it is characterized by tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity that develop before dementia. DLB, on the other hand, presents with dementia before these motor symptoms. Other clues that suggest DLB include the man’s periods of confusion and sleepiness that come and go randomly, as well as his wife’s report of him suffering from bad nightmares, which is a distinctive feature of DLB. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease dementia typically presents with slowly worsening memory loss and forgetfulness, while frontal lobe dementia primarily presents with behavioural changes and reckless behaviour.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had a cervical smear done 18 months ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. The follow-up cervical smear has returned negative for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years
Explanation:If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is now negative for hrHPV, the patient should return to routine recall, which is repeating the cervical smear in 5 years. Cytological examination of the smear is not necessary as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. Referral for colposcopy is also not indicated unless there is evidence of dyskaryosis or inadequate smears. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate for a 50-year-old patient, and repeating the smear after 12 months is only necessary if the most recent smear is positive for hrHPV with no cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man presents to you with progressive numbness in his right hand and entire right side, indicating a possible stroke. You promptly arrange for an ambulance and he returns 6 weeks later to express his gratitude and discuss medication. If there are no contraindications, what antiplatelet regimen is recommended after an acute ischemic stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily long-term
Explanation:When a patient shows symptoms of acute stroke, it is crucial to immediately send them to the nearest stroke center. Treatment should not be administered until a diagnosis of ischemic stroke is confirmed. Once confirmed, the patient should be prescribed aspirin 300 mg daily for two weeks, followed by long-term use of clopidogrel 75 mg daily. Additionally, if the patient is not already taking a statin, it should be offered as a treatment option.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 45-year-old patient was referred with a 2-year history of persistent cough productive of yellowish sputum throughout the year. He has been treated by his GP for frequent chest infections.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent and irreversible dilatations of the bronchial walls. It can be caused by various factors, including cystic fibrosis, immune system deficiencies, lung infections, foreign body aspiration, and smoking. Common symptoms of bronchiectasis include high sputum production, recurrent chest infections, and frequent but usually not severe haemoptysis. Patients may also experience postnasal drip, chronic sinusitis, and undue tiredness. A high-resolution computed tomography (HR-CT) scan is usually used to diagnose bronchiectasis. Treatment involves a multidisciplinary approach, including chest physiotherapy, patient education on airway-clearing techniques, antibiotic treatment during infective exacerbations, and bronchodilators in case of airflow obstruction. While treatment of the underlying cause may be necessary, it does not provide reversal of the existing bronchiectasis. Other conditions, such as sarcoidosis, fibrosing alveolitis, lung cancer, and asthma, are unlikely to produce the same clinical picture as bronchiectasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with a painless neck lump. He has a history of hyperparathyroidism in the past. During the examination, the lump is found to be irregular and fixed at his thyroid. The patient is worried about cancer, as his father died in his 50s due to a phaeochromocytoma. What type of thyroid cancer is most probable in this case?
Your Answer: Follicular
Correct Answer: Medullary
Explanation:Thyroid Cancer Types and their Association with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2)
Thyroid cancer can be classified into different types based on their histology and clinical features. Among these types, medullary thyroid cancer is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2), a genetic disorder that predisposes individuals to develop tumors in various endocrine glands. MEN2 has three subtypes, and medullary thyroid cancer is a hallmark feature of MEN2a and MEN2b. Other associated neoplasms include phaeochromocytoma and parathyroid tumors in MEN2a, and marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromas in MEN2b.
Anaplastic thyroid cancer, on the other hand, is not associated with MEN2 and has a poor prognosis. It is more common in older women and is characterized by rapid growth and aggressiveness. Follicular thyroid cancer is also not associated with MEN2 and is more prevalent in women over 50 years old. Lymphoma and papillary thyroid cancer are also not associated with MEN2, with the latter having an excellent prognosis and primarily affecting young women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.
If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.
While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.
Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.
Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.
Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?Your Answer: Prescribe labetalol
Explanation:Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about a lump in her breast that she discovered three weeks ago. The lump is causing discomfort when she wears a bra. During the examination, the doctor detects a 4 cm, non-tethered, and firm lump in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The surface and contour are smooth, the skin is intact, and it does not transilluminate. The doctor refers her for a triple assessment, which confirms that she has a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Refer for surgical excision
Explanation:The appropriate action for a patient presenting with a breast fibroadenoma larger than 3 cm is to refer them for surgical excision. Fibroadenomas are benign masses that develop from the whole lobule and are typically small, firm, and smooth, often referred to as breast mice. While they are usually treated conservatively, surgical excision is necessary if they cause discomfort, as in this case. Checking the mass again in three months, discharge and safety netting, prescribing oral antibiotics, and referring for aspiration are all incorrect management options for a fibroadenoma.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been radiating to his neck and left arm for the past 3 hours. An ECG reveals ST depression in the inferior leads, and a troponin test is ordered. The patient is given aspirin and sublingual nitrates, and a non-ST elevated myocardial infarction is suspected. The physician conducts a risk assessment to determine the patient's 6-month mortality.
What factors are taken into account by the doctor during this calculation?Your Answer: Blood pressure, ECG, troponin, lactate
Correct Answer: Age, ECG, troponin, renal function
Explanation:To determine the management of NSTEMI, doctors use a risk assessment score such as GRACE. This score takes into account various factors such as age, ECG, troponin, and renal function, as well as blood pressure, heart rate, and whether the patient experienced a cardiac arrest upon presentation. Renal function is particularly important to consider as it is often affected during an AMI. However, lactate and liver function tests are not included in the GRACE score as they are not typically affected by an MI.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following pathological changes favours ulcerative colitis (UC) over Crohn disease in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Granulomas
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:Differences between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are both types of inflammatory bowel disease, but they differ in several aspects. One of the main differences is the presence of granulomas. While a lack of granulomas does not rule out Crohn’s disease, it is a far more likely option if they are present. Granulomas are not present in ulcerative colitis.
Another difference is the layers of the bowel affected. Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the bowel, known as transmural disease, whereas ulcerative colitis is confined to the mucosa with occasional submucosa inflammation. Only Crohn’s disease has muscularis and serosa involvement. Additionally, Crohn’s disease can affect anything from the mouth to the anus, whereas ulcerative colitis is limited to colonic lesions.
Skip lesions, or areas of discontinuity of the inflammatory process, are characteristic of Crohn’s disease. When skip lesions are present, this is suggestive of Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis is a continuous disease, whereas Crohn’s disease can be present in multiple areas of the bowel with sharply demarcated areas.
In terms of histology, both diseases show intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with neutrophils and lymphoid aggregates. However, in fulminant cases of ulcerative colitis, the muscularis propria may be affected. On the other hand, the histologic characteristic pattern of inflammation in Crohn’s disease is transmural involvement of the bowel wall by lymphoid infiltrates that contain non-caseating granulomas.
Therefore, it is important to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis to provide appropriate treatment. Endoscopy must be performed if ulcerative colitis is suspected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. The pain is radiating to his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia.
Upon examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and sweaty. His vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 90 bpm
- Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
- Peripheral oxygen saturation: 95% on room air
- Blood pressure: 136/78 mmHg
- Temperature: 37.0ºC
An ECG performed by the paramedics shows ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as T-wave inversion.
What is the immediate treatment that should be given?Your Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine, oxygen
Correct Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine
Explanation:The appropriate combination in this scenario is aspirin, nitrate, and morphine. The addition of oxygen is not necessary and may even be inappropriate. Ramipril and bisoprolol are not recommended for acute treatment but may be used for long-term management of ACS. Therefore, aspirin, nitrate, and oxygen is an incorrect combination, and morphine should also be included due to the patient’s significant pain. Oxygen should not be administered as the patient’s oxygen saturation levels are already adequate.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the labour suite at 40+6 weeks gestation. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal delivery throughout her pregnancy. On cervical examination, the cervix is found to be in an intermediate position with a firm consistency. Cervical effacement is estimated to be around 30%, and the cervical dilatation is less than 1cm. The fetal head is palpable at the level of the ischial spines, and her bishop score is 3/10. The midwife has already performed a membrane sweep. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Vaginal PGE2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, with other options such as emergency caesarean section, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon being considered only in certain situations. Women undergoing vaginal PGE2 should be aware of the risk of uterine hyperstimulation and may require additional analgesia. The cervix should be reassessed before considering oxytocin infusion. Amniotomy may be used in combination with oxytocin infusion in patients with a ripe cervix. Cervical ripening balloon should not be used as the primary method for induction of labour due to its potential pain, bleeding, and infection risks.
Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications
Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of itchy palms and soles for a few weeks. Examination reveals pitting to the nails and dry, scaly, fissured skin with areas of pustules on the palms and soles. She is a social drinker but has no other medical conditions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Bullous Pemphigoid, Contact Dermatitis, Eczema, and Secondary Syphilis
Palmoplantar Pustulosis: A chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the palms and soles, often associated with chronic plaque psoriasis and smoking. It presents with painful cracking, fissuring, and crops of sterile pustules that are severely itchy. Topical treatments and phototherapy can be used.
Bullous Pemphigoid: An autoimmune skin disease that forms large fluid-filled blisters, typically affecting people over 80 years old with underlying neurological or malignant conditions. The age and presenting features in this man are not typical for bullous pemphigoid.
Contact Dermatitis: A type of eczema triggered by contact with a particular substance, causing a red, dry, and scaly rash only in the areas that have been in contact with the irritant. Pustules are not a feature of this condition, and it would be unusual for an irritant to have been in contact with the palms and soles.
Eczema: A chronic, itchy, inflammatory skin condition that commonly begins in childhood and affects flexural areas such as behind the knees or in the antecubital fossae. The palms of hands and soles of feet are usually spared.
Secondary Syphilis: A rash that may appear as rough, red or reddish-brown papules or patches, typically occurring on the trunk but frequently affecting the palms and soles. The rash doesn’t itch and can appear more obvious with physical activity or heat. It resolves spontaneously within several weeks but can recur over the next two years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a stiff and painful left shoulder that limits all movements. He is left-handed and can no longer participate in his favorite hobbies due to the discomfort. Adhesive capsulitis is suspected. What factors are linked to this condition?
Your Answer: History of diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is a condition that may occur in diabetic patients, as well as those with a history of myocardial infarction, lung disease, or neck disease. It is more common in females aged 40-60 years, and typically affects the non-dominant hand. Prolonged immobilization or disuse of the arm due to pain from another cause may also lead to adhesive capsulitis. There is no known correlation with activity.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Which of the following is the least acknowledged complication of measles infection?
Your Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 9-month-old girl is presented to the clinic. About 5 days ago, she became feverish after being fussy the day before. The fever subsided after approximately 3 days, but she developed a rash afterwards, which prompted her mother to bring her to the clinic. She is consuming about 80% of her usual feeds, has wet nappies, and has had three instances of loose stools. On examination, she is alert, has a temperature of 37.2ºC, and has clear lungs and unremarkable ears/throat. There are several blanching, rose pink macules on her trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Roseola infantum is a condition characterized by the occurrence of a fever, which is later followed by the appearance of a rash.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with an acutely red and swollen left great toe, with no history of trauma. A diagnosis of gout is suspected.
Which of the following risk factors make it most likely that the patient will develop this condition?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Gout
Gout is a painful condition caused by hyperuricaemia, which can be influenced by various risk factors. While the cause of hyperuricaemia is multifactorial, certain factors have been identified as predisposing individuals to gout. These include high BMI, male gender, cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, and the use of certain drugs such as diuretics. Additionally, alcohol excess, particularly from spirits and beer, has been shown to increase the risk of gout. However, eczema and smoking are not recognized as risk factors for gout. Interestingly, gout is more common in men and rare in premenopausal women, and being overweight, rather than underweight, has been proposed as a risk factor for gout. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage gout.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman comes in with recurring headaches. During the cranial nerve examination, it is observed that her right pupil is 3 mm while the left pupil is 5 mm. The right pupil reacts to light, but the left pupil is slow to respond. The peripheral neurological examination is normal except for challenging to elicit knee and ankle reflexes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil
Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.
Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. He has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. He does not smoke but drinks up to 30 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends.
Observations are as follows: Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm and regular.
On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Urea 9.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 178 µmol/l
(bloods carried out one year
previously showed a creatinine
of 76) 50–120 µmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 131 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?Your Answer: Oliguria
Explanation:Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
Renal failure can be difficult to diagnose, especially when there are no previous urea and electrolyte levels available for comparison. However, there are certain signs and symptoms that can indicate whether the condition is acute or chronic.
Acute renal failure may present with acute lethargy/fatigue, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema/edema of the face, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may manifest as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and a history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension.
Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a hallmark of renal failure and can be an early sign of acute renal injury. Nocturia, or increased urination at night, is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease. Peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, secondary to low calcium levels associated with the condition. Small kidneys are also seen in chronic renal failure, as long-standing conditions affecting the kidney can cause atrophy and reduce function, leading to progressive renal failure. The kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.
In summary, understanding the signs and symptoms of acute and chronic renal failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman comes in with post-menopausal bleeding. Which is NOT associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Past history of combined oral contraceptive pill use
Explanation:The use of combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a reduced risk of endometrial cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a painful left leg that has been getting worse for several hours. She has no other symptoms and has a medical history of asthma, hypertension, and a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 8 weeks ago.
During the examination, the left calf diameter is approximately 4 cm larger than the right calf, but there is no oedema.
What would be the most suitable initial investigation?Your Answer: Proximal leg vein ultrasound
Explanation:If the Wells score for a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is 2 or higher, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be arranged within 4 hours. In this case, the patient’s Wells score is 2 due to recent major surgery within 12 weeks and a calf swelling at least 3 cm larger than the asymptomatic side. It is important to note that a CT angiogram of the leg is not appropriate for diagnosing DVT, and ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality. A CT pulmonary angiogram would only be necessary if the patient had symptoms suggestive of pulmonary embolism. A chest X-ray is not relevant in this scenario. If ultrasound is not possible within 4 hours, a D-dimer test could be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation given, but the initial choice is to perform an ultrasound scan as soon as possible.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin
Explanation:There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)