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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?
Your Answer: 25 in 10,000
Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%. Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?
Your Answer: Repeat HbA1c in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant
Explanation:Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?
Your Answer: Treponema Pallidum
Explanation:Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
– Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
– Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
– Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer: Primrose oil
Explanation:PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.
Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility. She has a three year old child who was fathered by the same partner. This first child was conceived spontaneously and delivered normally following a short labour. Her medical history includes irregular menstrual cycles, with periods occurring every three to four months. A pelvic ultrasound reveals 15-20 small cysts (4- 6 mm in diameter) in each ovary. Semen analysis, of her partner, shows a sperm count of ten million per mL, with 50% motility and 30% abnormal forms. Which one of the following is the best next step to treat her infertility?
Your Answer: Donor insemination.
Correct Answer: Treatment with metformin.
Explanation:The clinical diagnosis of polycystic ovaries (PCO) is confirmed by the ultrasound. Therefore, the best next step to treat this woman’s infertility is to start treatment with metformin (correct answer). Patients with polycystic ovaries, frequently develop insulin resistance and metformin has been shown to be beneficial in this situation. Metformin treatment corrects any metabolic abnormalities and decreases insulin resistance resulting in a return of normal ovulatory menstrual cycles and a rapid improvement in fertility.
Additional treatment with clomiphene citrate may be required in some patients but gonadotrophin therapy is no longer commonly used.
Clomiphene citrate could also have been recommended as a possible next treatment option since the available data indicate that both clomiphene and metformin are equally effective.
Laparoscopic ovarian drilling has been used previously to treat polycystic ovaries; however, it is only used nowadays when all other treatment methods have been ineffective.
Similarly, gonadotrophin therapy or in vitro fertilisation would not be the best next step to treat the infertility and they are used when other treatment options have not provided the required results.
Even though changes in the semen analysis have been noted since the first pregnancy was achieved, these are not likely to be the cause of the secondary infertility, particularly because the current semen analysis is not significantly abnormal. Therefore, it is unlikely that donor insemination would be needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the male infertility rate in CF patients?
Your Answer: 98%
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is the most common fetal genetic disease in Caucasians and has an autosomal recessive inheritance. It is caused by an abnormal chloride channel due to a defect in the CFTR gene. Complications range from haemoptysis, respiratory failure, biliary cirrhosis, diabetes and male infertility. Men with CF are infertile in 98% of the cases due to failure of development of the vas deference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body but not the anal sphincter, this type of laceration is classified as?
Your Answer: Second degree
Explanation:Perineal tears are common at the time of child birth. First degree perineal laceration means that the wound is so small that it doesn’t require any stitches and usually heals on its own. 2nd degree means that skin and smooth muscles are both torn. 3rd degree tear means that the tear is beyond the perineal muscles and the muscles surrounding the anal canal, while in 4th degree, the perineal tear goes through the anal sphincter up to the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In the absence of any gross pelvic abnormality, cephalopelvic disproportion can be correctly diagnosed by?
Your Answer: A maternal stature of less than 158 cm
Correct Answer: Trial of labour
Explanation:Cephalo-pelvic disproportion exists when the capacity of the pelvis is inadequate to allow the foetus to negotiate the birth canal. This may be due to a small pelvis, a nongynecoid pelvic formation, a large foetus, an unfavourable orientation of the foetus, or a combination of these factors. Diagnosis of CPD may be made when there is failure to progress, but not all cases of prolonged labour are the result of CPD. Use of ultrasound to measure the size of the foetus in the womb is controversial, as these methods are often inaccurate and may lead to unnecessary caesarean section; a trial of labour is often recommended even if size of the foetus is estimated to be large.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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Where is fetal DHEA produced?
Your Answer: Adrenals
Explanation:DHEA is formed in the mother’s adrenal gland as well as the fetal adrenal glands. These weak androgens are transported by the blood to the placenta and are converted into oestradiol, estrone and estriol in the trophoblast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological?
Your Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Diastolic murmurs occur in conditions such as mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis and even in carditis. They are always pathological during pregnancy. Systolic murmurs and left axis deviation may be normal during pregnancy due to an increase in the blood volume and load on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes to you for advice as she is planning to conceive in next three months. Her blood sugar levels are under control with a HBA1C value of 6%. Among the following which is an essential supplement for her?
Your Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:Patient mentioned above is a known case of type 2 diabetes which makes her at high risk of having neural tube defects. She should be advised to start taking a high dose of (5mg) folic acid supplement daily for at least 1-month prior to conception and it should be continued upto 12 weeks of her pregnancy.
Folate, which is a water-soluble B vitamin, is usually obtained from diet or through supplementation. For those patients with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are planning for pregnancy, high doses are recommended to prevent any possible neural tube defects.
Vitamin A is not safe and should be avoided in pregnancy due to chances for toxicity.
Vitamin C and iron are not considered as essential vitamins to be taken during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?
Your Answer: Last sexual partner should be informed and tested
Correct Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months
Explanation:In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Correct
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A 22 year old woman is being followed up 6 weeks after a surgical procedure to evacuate the uterus following a miscarriage. The histology has shown changes consistent with a hydatidiform mole. What is the single most appropriate investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Serum B-HCG
Explanation:The most appropriate test for a hydatiform mole is serum beta hCG levels, which are consistently raised in these patients. The levels return to normal when the pregnancy is terminated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician with flu-like symptoms for the past 3 days along with runny nose, mild headache and she feels achy. She also has mild fever and diffuse rash all over her body. She is concerned about the health of her baby and wants to know if there are any safe medications which will make her feel better in a short time. She has received tetanus vaccination as part of antenatal care program since she immigrated at the end of her first trimester from Romania. Patient is otherwise healthy. Considering the symptoms and travel history of this patient, she is at higher risk of giving birth to a newborn with which of the following options?
Your Answer: Double split S2
Correct Answer: Wide pulse pressure
Explanation:This pregnant woman likely has an infection with the rubella virus, which increases the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in her newborn. congenital heart diseases, particularly patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a part of this syndrome. Persistence of a patent vessel between the left pulmonary artery and aorta which is supposed to closes in the first 18 hours functionally and in the first 2–3 days of life anatomically is called as PDA.
Normally there is right to left shunting in utero, but in case of PDA blood is shunted from the left (aorta) to the right (pulmonary artery) due to the decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance after birth. This causes right ventricular hypertrophy, if left untreated it can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure. There will be a continuous machine-like murmur, heard over the left upper sternal border, as the blood is shunted throughout cardiac cycle. Diastolic BP becomes lower than normal, leading to a higher pulse pressure which is felt as a bounding pulse due to the lost volume from aorta. Though PDA is a non-cyanotic condition, it may lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome in which R to L shunting persists, resulting in cyanosis, clubbing and polycythemia. Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like indomethacin can close patent PDA. Other symptoms in infants born with rubella syndrome are microcephaly and cataract.
The characteristic feature of an atrial septal defect or ASD, which is a congenital heart disease presenting as an opening in the septa between right and left atria, is a single fixed S2. There will be a delay in closure of the pulmonic valve, due to the excess amount of blood diverted to the right side.
Brachial-femoral delay is a finding in coarctation of aorta, which presents as hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities.
A double split S2 is a physiological finding caused by the closure of pulmonary and aortic valves on inspiration.
PDA and pulmonary artery stenosis are the most common cardiac defects reported along with congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), whereas tricuspid valve regurgitation is never reported along with it.
Learning objective: is associated with a continuous machine-like murmur heard over the left upper sternal border, bounding pulse and an increased pulse pressure are the usual symptoms associated with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is mostly seen along with congenital rubella syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?
Your Answer: PGE2
Explanation:Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 17
Correct
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A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?
Your Answer: 2.5 - 3.5
Explanation:With the use of warfarin, strict control of the INR is compulsory. After mitral valve replacement the INR should ideally be kept between 2.5-3.5. If the Ball and Cage or the Tilting Disc is used as a prosthetic valve then the target INR is 3.5, for bi-leaflets the target INR is 3.0 and for biological valves the target INR is 2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?
Your Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old
Explanation:Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 22 year old woman miscarries at 6 weeks gestation. At checkup, she shows no obvious signs of complication. What would you advise regarding further pregnancy testing?
Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test in 3 weeks
Explanation:In the management of a miscarriage, after the completion of 7-14 days of expectant management, the woman is advised to take a pregnancy test after 3 weeks. In case of a positive result she is to return for further care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: Progesterone dominance
Correct Answer: Endometrial gland proliferation
Explanation:During follicular phase, there is an increase in gonadotrophin hormones and a proliferation of the endometrium occurs. The duration of the cycle depends upon the overall length of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone levels are increased in the luteal phase and not in follicular phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Uterine atony.
Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.
Explanation:The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.
Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.
An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?
Your Answer: History of liver disease
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.
Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.
Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.
Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 26 year old primigravida woman attends A&E due to worsening vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. For the past 4 weeks she has had morning sickness but for the last 4 days she has been unable to tolerate any oral fluids without vomiting and thinks she has lost weight. On questioning she has no significant past medical history prior to this pregnancy. She is currently taking the following medication:
Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:This patient has severe nausea and vomiting with ketosis and evidence of dehydration (low BP and tachycardia) in the early part of pregnancy. There is no history of diabetes and the blood glucose doesn’t indicate hyperglycaemia. This is consistent with hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and positive anticardiolipin antibodies. She has a history of three miscarriages, each one during the first trimester. What would be the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer: Aspirin & heparin
Explanation:The syndrome with which the woman was diagnosed is an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state which most possibly was the reason of her previous miscarriages. This is the reason why she should be on aspirin and heparin in order to prevent any future miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Wound healing is initiated when inflammation begins. Macrophages predominate after neutrophils and peak 3-4 days after inflammation begins. They destroy and phagocytose the organism and debris using enzymes. The next step is the resolution of inflammation and healing of the wound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: US
Explanation:The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic?
Your Answer: 90%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. It infects the mucous membrane of the genital tract epithelium in the endocervical and the urethral mucosa. Around 50% of the women are asymptomatic. However it presents as increase vaginal discharge, dysuria, proctitis and pelvic tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Correct
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Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy
Explanation:Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 7.5 MHz
Correct Answer: 3.0 MHz
Explanation:The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 30
Correct
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A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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