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  • Question 1 - Which receptor is typically targeted by drugs used for managing alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor is typically targeted by drugs used for managing alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: GABA receptors

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using...

    Correct

    • Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using magic mushrooms?

      Your Answer: LSD

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which statement about phencyclidine intoxication is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about phencyclidine intoxication is accurate?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus is a common feature

      Explanation:

      PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic

      Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.

      PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

      PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the truth about opioid detoxification while pregnant? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about opioid detoxification while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Breastfeeding should be discouraged in women who continues to use substitution therapy

      Correct Answer: Detoxification in the first trimester is associated with spontaneous abortion

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What factor is most likely to lead to an incorrect positive outcome when...

    Correct

    • What factor is most likely to lead to an incorrect positive outcome when screening for amphetamine use?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Drug Testing

      There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.

      False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.

      In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?...

    Correct

    • In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?

      Your Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Tolerance in Opiate Abuse

      Tolerance is a common phenomenon that occurs in opiate abuse. It develops regarding the analgesic, euphoric, sedative, respiratory depressant, and nauseating effects of opioids. However, it does not develop to their effects on miosis and bowel motility, which can cause constipation. This means that individuals who abuse opioids may require higher doses to achieve the desired effects, leading to an increased risk of overdose and other adverse effects. Understanding the mechanisms involved in tolerance can help in developing effective interventions to prevent and treat opiate abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement about acamprosate is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about acamprosate is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Class B substances are elevated to the status of Class A when they are administered through injection.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement accurately describes alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: For hallucinations associated with delirium tremens, haloperidol is the preferred antipsychotic

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing delirium tremens, the initial treatment option should be oral lorazepam. If symptoms persist of the individual declines oral medication, alternative options such as parenteral lorazepam of haloperidol should be offered, as recommended by NICE CG100.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      171.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in exploring pharmacological maintenance therapy in conjunction with psychosocial interventions. What would be your recommendation for the most suitable choice?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department after being found collapsed...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department after being found collapsed at home. She is a retired teacher. She has been on oral anticoagulants for some weeks after suffering a pulmonary embolism.

      On assessment, you find her to be febrile, tachycardic and in need of supplemental oxygen. Her pupils are highly constricted.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent CT scan of brain and management in intensive care

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with pinpoint pupils, it may indicate an opioid overdose. However, if hyperthermia and tachycardia are also present, a pontine hemorrhage is a more probable cause. In such cases, intensive care management with input from neurology/neurosurgery is necessary. It is important to note that the use of injectable low molecular weight heparin (commonly used for treating deep vein thrombosis) and a high-stress job could increase the risk of an intracranial bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      64.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the truth about controlled drugs in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the truth about controlled drugs in the UK?

      Your Answer: Controlled drug prescriptions are required for drugs under schedules 2 and 3

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42 year old man presents to the emergency department with his partner...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man presents to the emergency department with his partner due to alcohol withdrawal, he typically drinks around 18 units per day of alcohol. He reports a severe headache and feeling agitated, but there is no evidence of tremors. Using the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, he scores a 12. There is no history of withdrawal seizures.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine should be offered

      Explanation:

      Thiamine should be offered to all alcohol patients, unless there are reasons not to. A CIWA-Ar score of 14 suggests moderate withdrawal, which typically does not require hospitalization unless there are additional factors, such as a history of seizures of other medical conditions.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is accurate about project MATCH, also known as Matching alcoholism treatments to...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about project MATCH, also known as Matching alcoholism treatments to client heterogeneity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It found that the three psychological therapies tested were equal in effectiveness

      Explanation:

      Project MATCH: Investigating the Best Treatment for Alcoholics

      Project MATCH was an extensive research study that spanned over 8 years and aimed to determine which types of alcoholics respond best to which forms of treatment. The study investigated three types of treatment: Cognitive Behavioural Coping Skills Therapy, Motivational Enhancement Therapy, and Twelve-Step Facilitation Therapy.

      Cognitive Behavioural Coping Skills Therapy focused on correcting poor self-esteem and distorted, negative, and self-defeating thinking. Motivational Enhancement Therapy helped clients become aware of and build on personal strengths that could improve their readiness to quit. Twelve-Step Facilitation Therapy was designed to familiarize patients with the AA philosophy and encourage participation.

      After the study, it was concluded that patient-treatment matching is not necessary in alcoholism treatment because the three techniques are equally effective. This study provides valuable insights into the treatment of alcoholism and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the best treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the truth about controlled drugs in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about controlled drugs in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A single drug can have more than one scheduling status

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A teenage boy begins smoking cannabis regularly at the age of 16. How...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy begins smoking cannabis regularly at the age of 16. How much does this increase his likelihood of developing schizophrenia by his early twenties compared to an individual who has never used cannabis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 fold

      Explanation:

      Individuals who smoked cannabis regularly at the age of 15 have a 4.5 times higher risk of developing schizophrenia at the age of 26, whereas those who did not report regular use until the age of 18 have a 1.65 times higher risk.

      Schizophrenia and Cannabis Use

      The relationship between cannabis use and the risk of developing schizophrenia is a topic of ongoing debate. However, research suggests that cannabis use may increase the risk of later schizophrenia of schizophreniform disorder by two-fold (Arseneault, 2004). The risk of developing schizophrenia appears to be higher in individuals who start using cannabis at a younger age. For instance, regular cannabis smokers at the age of 15 are 4.5 times more likely to develop schizophrenia at the age of 26, compared to those who did not report regular use until age 18 (Murray, 2004).

      A systematic review published in the Lancet in 2007 found that the lifetime risk of developing psychosis increased by 40% in individuals who had ever used cannabis (Moore, 2007). Another meta-analysis reported that the age at onset of psychosis was 2.70 years younger in cannabis users than in non-users (Large, 2011). These findings suggest that cannabis use may have a significant impact on the development of schizophrenia and related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What drug is classified as a class B substance in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What drug is classified as a class B substance in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mephedrone

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the recommended treatment for alcohol withdrawal in a patient with liver...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended treatment for alcohol withdrawal in a patient with liver impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Patients with impaired liver function, such as those with liver failure of elderly individuals, may be prescribed oxazepam, temazepam, of lorazepam.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions is not a recognized cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not a recognized cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - If you observe a man who has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital...

    Incorrect

    • If you observe a man who has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital yawning excessively, appearing restless, and having dilated pupils one day after admission, what do you anticipate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opiate withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

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  • Question 22 - To aid in preventing relapse in individuals with alcohol dependency, NICE recommends the...

    Incorrect

    • To aid in preventing relapse in individuals with alcohol dependency, NICE recommends the following.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nalmefene

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 23 - What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is utilized to prevent...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is utilized to prevent relapse in individuals who were previously dependent on opioids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naltrexone

      Explanation:

      By acting as an antagonist to opioid receptors, naltrexone inhibits the pleasurable effects of opiates when consumed.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

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  • Question 24 - How should problem gambling associated with impulse control disorders be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should problem gambling associated with impulse control disorders be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naltrexone

      Explanation:

      Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions

      Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.

      Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.

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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman has been referred to you by her primary care physician....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has been referred to you by her primary care physician. She has been struggling with compulsive gambling and has accumulated significant debt. She spends most of her time at the casino and her relationships with family and friends have suffered as a result. The referring doctor suspects that she may have a gambling disorder as she is distressed by her inability to control her gambling behavior. What pharmacological interventions would you suggest in conjunction with cognitive behavioral therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of medications commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mental health conditions. They work by increasing the levels of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that regulates mood, in the brain.

      SSRIs selectively block the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron, which means that more serotonin is available to bind to the postsynaptic neuron and transmit signals. This leads to an increase in serotonin activity in the brain, which can help alleviate symptoms of depression and anxiety.

      Some common SSRIs include fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and escitalopram (Lexapro). They are generally well-tolerated and have fewer side effects than older antidepressants such as tricyclics and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).

      However, like all medications, SSRIs can have side effects, including nausea, insomnia, sexual dysfunction, and weight gain. They can also interact with other medications, so it is important to talk to a healthcare provider before starting of stopping any medication.

      Overall, SSRIs are an effective treatment option for many people with depression and anxiety disorders. They can help improve mood and quality of life, but it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to find the right medication and dosage for each individual.

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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old male patient is brought to the local Accident and Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient is brought to the local Accident and Emergency Department by a family member. He has a history of alcohol dependence. Over the past few hours, the patient has been experiencing confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations. He also has a fever, is experiencing a rapid heartbeat, and has high blood pressure. The family member informs you that the patient recently made the decision to quit drinking.
      When was the patient's last alcoholic drink most likely consumed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 48-72 hours

      Explanation:

      The vignette depicts delirium tremens (DTs), which is characterized by confusion, hallucinations, and autonomic hyperactivity. Typically, these symptoms appear 2 to 3 days after cessation of alcohol consumption and can worsen over the next few days. Mild withdrawal symptoms such as anxiety, tremors, headache, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, and sweating may occur within 6 hours of stopping drinking. Hallucinations may occur 12-24 hours after cessation, and seizures may occur within 24 to 48 hours.

      Benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide, are commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal, with a reducing regime. Lorazepam, due to its short half-life, is preferred as the first-line treatment for DTs. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess alcohol withdrawal.

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  • Question 27 - What methods have been proven to be successful in addressing problem gambling? ...

    Incorrect

    • What methods have been proven to be successful in addressing problem gambling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naltrexone

      Explanation:

      Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions

      Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.

      Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year old woman reported hearing voices instructing her to harm herself. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old woman reported hearing voices instructing her to harm herself. She is currently not employed, having left her job two years ago. What substance is most likely responsible for her dependence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamines

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of Schneider’s first rank symptom, which is characterized by actions perceived as influenced of made by external agents. It is important to note that amphetamines can cause drug-induced psychosis, which can mimic schizophrenia. While benzodiazepines are not known to induce schizophrenia, there have been reports of auditory hallucinations during benzodiazepine withdrawal. On the other hand, GHB is not associated with drug-induced schizophrenia, and while opiates may cause hallucinations, they do not typically result in Schneider’s first rank symptoms. It is important to consider the possibility of a dual-diagnosis scenario, where the patient may have both a drug dependency and schizophrenia, which may have been triggered by drug use of stress, but is not solely drug-induced.

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  • Question 29 - Which of the following signs of symptoms is most indicative of someone being...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs of symptoms is most indicative of someone being under the influence of PCP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysarthria

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have ingested PCP often exhibit difficulty with coordination and speech. The hallucinations experienced are typically intricate rather than straightforward. It is more likely for them to have excessive saliva production rather than a dry mouth.

      PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic

      Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.

      PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

      PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.

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  • Question 30 - A woman in considerable distress visits the emergency department due to alcohol withdrawal....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in considerable distress visits the emergency department due to alcohol withdrawal. She inquires about the duration of her symptoms. When is the typical peak period for alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24-48 hours

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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  • Question 31 - What is the most distinctive feature of pellagra? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most distinctive feature of pellagra?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease

      Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.

      Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.

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  • Question 32 - What is true about the process of alcohol detoxification? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the process of alcohol detoxification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Home detoxification is usually complete within 5-9 days

      Explanation:

      Alcohol detoxification can be done at home of in an inpatient setting. Studies have shown that there is no significant difference between the two methods, but inpatient detox is much more expensive. However, inpatient detox is recommended for patients who have a high risk of seizures during alcohol withdrawal, which occurs in 5-10% of patients. Age, prolactin, blood alcohol concentration on admission, and elevated homocysteine levels are all risk factors for seizures, with the latter being the strongest predictor. Chronic alcohol intake can lead to elevated homocysteine levels due to impaired metabolism from B12 and folate deficiency.

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  • Question 33 - What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      In an inpatient of residential setting, the recommended duration for opioid detoxification is typically no more than 4 weeks, while in a community setting, it can last up to 12 weeks.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

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  • Question 34 - Which of the following is not a symptom commonly linked to alcohol intoxication?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a symptom commonly linked to alcohol intoxication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperreflexia

      Explanation:

      Alcohol intoxication typically results in a decrease in reflexes and an increase in reaction times.

      Alcohol Intoxication

      Symptoms of moderate alcohol intoxication can include a range of effects on the body and mind. These may include poor concentration, impaired reaction times, conjunctival injection, pinpoint pupils, poor coordination, memory difficulties, impaired judgement, and impaired sense of time and space. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to avoid driving of operating heavy machinery while under the influence of alcohol.

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  • Question 35 - What is the percentage of individuals who experience delirium tremens during alcohol withdrawal?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of individuals who experience delirium tremens during alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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  • Question 36 - Under what circumstances should Opioid detoxification not be offered as a standard practice,...

    Incorrect

    • Under what circumstances should Opioid detoxification not be offered as a standard practice, as per the NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When a patient is serving a short prison sentence

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to offer opioid detoxification to individuals with urgent medical conditions. However, for those in police custody of serving a short prison sentence, of those presenting in an acute of emergency setting, consideration should be given to treating opioid withdrawal symptoms with medication and referring them to further drug services as needed. If an individual seeking opioid detoxification also misuses alcohol, healthcare professionals should address their alcohol misuse, as it may worsen during opioid withdrawal of be substituted for previous opioid misuse. For those who are alcohol dependent, alcohol detoxification should be offered before starting opioid detoxification in a community of prison setting, but can be done concurrently with opioid detoxification in an inpatient setting of with stabilisation in a community setting.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about 'hearing voices'. These voices...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about 'hearing voices'. These voices are external and sound like her mother speaking directly to her. The content of the voices is not threatening. The woman is oriented and appears alert. She reports no prior psychiatric history in herself of her family. She speaks calmly and is not agitated. She has been drinking heavily for the past two years but denies any illicit drug use. She recently ended a long-term relationship and has been struggling to find stable employment.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic hallucinosis

      Explanation:

      Probable alcoholic hallucinosis is indicated when non-persecutory second person auditory hallucinations are present in an individual who chronically abuses alcohol. Antipsychotics are effective in treating these hallucinations, but only if the individual abstains from alcohol.

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  • Question 38 - Which statement accurately describes the clinical symptoms of Wernicke's? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the clinical symptoms of Wernicke's?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ophthalmoplegia is an expected feature

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

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  • Question 39 - What does NICE recommend as the most effective method for reducing harm related...

    Incorrect

    • What does NICE recommend as the most effective method for reducing harm related to alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Making alcohol less affordable

      Explanation:

      Reducing Alcohol-Related Harm

      According to NICE (2010), the most effective and targeted approach to reducing heavy drinking and alcohol-related harm is through implementing a minimum alcohol price. Additionally, limiting the availability of alcohol by reducing the number of outlets selling it in a specific area and restricting the days and hours when it can be sold is another effective strategy.

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  • Question 40 - A teenager who has recently dropped out of school has started to abuse...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager who has recently dropped out of school has started to abuse drugs. His friend brings him to A&E as he started behaving strangely and appeared to be experiencing hallucinations. As he walks into the cubicle you note a very unsteady gait and further questions reveal a sense of muscle rigidity. Which of the following do you expect he has been using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

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  • Question 41 - What is true about acamprosate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acamprosate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It acts as a glutamatergic NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 42 - What is typically avoided during alcohol withdrawal because of the increased likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • What is typically avoided during alcohol withdrawal because of the increased likelihood of respiratory depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomethiazole

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 43 - What is the truth about the use of chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the use of chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a good first line treatment

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 44 - A senior citizen who has been on diazepam for a number of years...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen who has been on diazepam for a number of years has recently been encouraged to stop them. You see them in clinic soon after they have started a reduction regime and they complain of a number of problems. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be related to them reducing their diazepam?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Addiction

      Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 45 - Which option is not suggested by NICE for aiding relapse prevention in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not suggested by NICE for aiding relapse prevention in individuals with alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 46 - A young woman in her twenties presents to the A&E department with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman in her twenties presents to the A&E department with complaints of abdominal cramps. Upon examination, you observe goose bumps all over her skin and dilated pupils. Which drug withdrawal is she most likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 47 - A teenager comes to your office and discloses that they have been using...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager comes to your office and discloses that they have been using a substance called Khat. Which of the following commonly known illegal drugs is it most comparable to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine

      Explanation:

      Khat: A Stimulant Drug Similar to Amphetamine

      Khat is a drug that shares similarities with amphetamine, a stimulant that can cause euphoria and loss of appetite. It comes from a plant that is typically chewed to release its active ingredient, cathinone. This drug is known for its stimulating effects and is commonly used in some parts of the world, particularly in East Africa and the Arabian Peninsula. However, it is also considered a controlled substance in many countries due to its potential for abuse and addiction.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 48 - Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine is as effective as benzodiazepines in the acute treatment of the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      A study has found that starting with a dose of 800 mg of Carbamazepine per day is just as effective as using Oxazepam for treating acute alcohol withdrawal. However, Phenytoin has been shown to be ineffective in treating seizures related to alcohol withdrawal. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are caused by a decrease in neurotransmission through type A gamma-aminobutyric pathways and an increase in neurotransmission through N-methyl-D-aspartate pathways. For more information, refer to the article Management of Drug and Alcohol Withdrawal by Kosten TR and O’Connor PG in the New England Journal of Medicine.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 49 - What is a true statement about alcohol use disorder as defined by the...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about alcohol use disorder as defined by the DSM-5?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) levels return toward normal within days to weeks of stopping drinking

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of alcohol use disorder only requires the presence of two or more of the 11 elements, including withdrawal and recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations. Ongoing craving for alcohol does not prevent someone from being considered in sustained remission, which is defined as not meeting any criteria for alcohol use disorder for 12 months of longer, except for craving. Monitoring abstinence can be done using state markers such as GGT and CDT levels, which return to normal within days to weeks of stopping drinking, but MCV is a poor method due to the long half-life of red blood cells. Increases in GGT and CDT levels over time may indicate a return to heavy drinking.

      Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: ICD-11 and DSM 5 Criteria

      The criteria for diagnosing alcohol dependence syndrome in the ICD-11 and DSM 5 are quite similar, as both are based on the original concept developed by Edwards and Gross in 1976. The original concept had seven elements, including narrowing of the drinking repertoire, salience of drink seeking behavior, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, relief of withdrawal by further drinking, compulsion to drink, and rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.

      The DSM-5 Alcohol Use Disorder criteria include a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least two of the following occurring within a 12-month period. These include taking alcohol in larger amounts of over a longer period than intended, persistent desire of unsuccessful efforts to cut down of control alcohol use, spending a great deal of time in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, craving of a strong desire of urge to use alcohol, recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations, continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social of interpersonal problems, giving up of reducing important social, occupational, of recreational activities due to alcohol use, recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations, and continued alcohol use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem caused or exacerbated by alcohol. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are also included in the criteria.

      The ICD-11 Alcohol Dependence criteria include a pattern of recurrent episodic of continuous use of alcohol with evidence of impaired regulation of alcohol use, manifested by impaired control over alcohol use, increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life, and physiological features indicative of neuroadaptation to the substance, including tolerance to the effects of alcohol of a need to use increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, withdrawal symptoms following cessation of reduction in use of alcohol, of repeated use of alcohol of pharmacologically similar substances to prevent of alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The features of dependence are usually evident over a period of at least 12 months, but the diagnosis may be made if use is continuous for at least 3 months.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 50 - If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but...

    Incorrect

    • If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but abstains on Monday due to a crucial work meeting, and then experiences a seizure during the meeting, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 51 - What is the condition that involves the gradual loss of myelin in the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition that involves the gradual loss of myelin in the corpus callosum and is commonly linked to alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marchiafava-Bignami disease

      Explanation:

      Marchiafava-Bignami Disease: A Rare Disorder Associated with Alcoholism and Malnutrition

      Marchiafava-Bignami disease is a rare condition that is commonly observed in individuals with alcoholism and malnutrition. The disease is characterized by the progressive demyelination and subsequent necrosis of the corpus callosum, which can lead to a range of nonspecific clinical symptoms such as motor of cognitive disturbances. The course of the disease can be either acute of chronic, and patients may experience dementia, spasticity, dysarthria, and an inability to walk. The outcome of the disease is unpredictable, with some patients lapsing into a coma and dying, while others may survive for many years in a demented state, of even recover.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 52 - What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 53 - What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as stated by the UK Department of Health?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No amount of alcohol is considered safe at any point in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy and Alcohol

      The advice on safe drinking levels during pregnancy varies, but the most recent recommendation is to abstain from alcohol completely. According to NICE, pregnant women of those planning a pregnancy should avoid alcohol altogether to minimize risks to the fetus. This aligns with the UK Chief Medical Officers’ Alcohol Guidelines Review from 2016. It is recommended to follow this guideline to ensure the safety of the developing baby.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 54 - Which vitamin is referred to as thiamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin is referred to as thiamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 55 - A woman with alcohol dependency and depression attends clinic and informs you that...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with alcohol dependency and depression attends clinic and informs you that she intends to stop drinking alcohol. She is adamant that she does not want any medication to assist in the detox but is keen to know how long the withdrawal symptoms may last. What would be the accurate estimate of the potential length of the withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 56 - In Korsakoff's syndrome, which area of the brain is primarily affected by pathology?...

    Incorrect

    • In Korsakoff's syndrome, which area of the brain is primarily affected by pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mammillary bodies

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 57 - Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Persistent hallucinations

      Explanation:

      It is uncommon for individuals experiencing alcohol withdrawal to have transient hallucinations, as they are not a typical symptom.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 58 - What is the active ingredient in subutex? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the active ingredient in subutex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 59 - A young adult woman is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult woman is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure at a nightclub. Upon your arrival, she has regained consciousness but is exhibiting signs of paranoia and teeth grinding. A nurse discovered a packet of white powder in her coat pocket, which you notice has a distinct fishy odor similar to stale urine. What substance do you suspect she may have ingested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mephedrone

      Explanation:

      New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 60 - What are the safe drinking limits per week recommended by the Royal College...

    Incorrect

    • What are the safe drinking limits per week recommended by the Royal College of Psychiatrists?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Men 14/ Women 14

      Explanation:

      The current recommendation is for both men and women to limit their weekly alcohol consumption to no more than 14 Units.

      Alcohol Units and Safe Drinking Limits in the UK

      The issue of safe drinking limits is a controversial one, with different bodies having different recommendations. In the UK, recommendations are sometimes given in grams of pure alcohol, with one unit equaling 8g. The UK government first recommended in 1992 that for a single week, 21 units for men and 14 units for women was the safe drinking limit. However, in 1995 they produced a report called ‘sensible drinking’, which effectively raised the weekly limits to 28 units for men and 21 units for women. The British Medical Association (BMA) responded to this change, along with the Royal College of Psychiatrists, saying that the original limits should not be relaxed.

      In August 2016, the UK Chief Medical Officers Low Risk Drinking Guidelines revised the limits down so that the upper safe limit is now 14 units for both men and women. The Royal College of Psychiatrists welcomed this new guidance, stating that both men and women drinking less than 14 units of alcohol per week (around 7 pints of ordinary strength beer) will be at a low risk for illnesses like heart disease, liver disease, of cancer. However, for people who do drink, they should have three of more alcohol-free days to allow their bodies the opportunity to recover from the harmful effects of alcohol. The BMA also supports this new guidance.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Substance Misuse/Addictions (11/13) 85%
Passmed