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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate?

      Your Answer: Short-acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension

      Explanation:

      The BNF cautions that the use of short-acting versions of nifedipine can result in significant fluctuations in blood pressure and trigger reflex tachycardia.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old lady is on warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old lady is on warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. She comes in with a significantly elevated INR. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Warfarin

      Ciprofloxacin, a cytochrome p450 inhibitor, can prolong the half-life of warfarin and increase the international normalized ratio (INR). However, the reaction is not always predictable, and susceptibility may be influenced by factors such as fever, infection, or malnutrition. While aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet activity, it doesn’t have a clear relationship with INR.

      Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can increase the rate of metabolism of another drug, resulting in lower plasma concentrations and a reduced effect. St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions with warfarin to ensure its effectiveness and prevent adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

    You discuss starting treatment and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.

      You discuss starting treatment and initiate ramipril at a dose of 1.25 mg daily. His recent blood test results show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, thyroid function and fasting glucose.

      His other medications are: metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD and simvastatin 40 mg ON.

      What blood test monitoring should next be performed?

      Your Answer: Repeat renal function in 7-14 days

      Explanation:

      Renal Function Monitoring for ACE Inhibitor Treatment

      Renal function monitoring is crucial before initiating treatment with an ACE inhibitor and one to two weeks after initiation or any subsequent dose increase, according to NICE recommendations. Although ACE inhibitors have a role in managing chronic kidney disease, they can also cause impairment of renal function that may be progressive. The concomitant use of NSAIDs and potassium-sparing diuretics increases the risks of renal side effects and hyperkalaemia, respectively.

      In patients with bilateral renal stenosis who are given ACE inhibitors, marked renal failure can occur. Therefore, if there is a significant deterioration in renal function as a result of ACE inhibition, a specialist should be involved. It is important to monitor renal function regularly to ensure the safe and effective use of ACE inhibitors in the management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: Decisions on cardiovascular risk factor modification should be made regardless of whether patients meet the criteria for metabolic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The determination of primary prevention measures for cardiovascular disease should rely on established methods and should not be influenced by the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.

      Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      85
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  • Question 5 - You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident....

    Correct

    • You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident. The staff are worried about his increasing unsteadiness on his feet in the past few months, which has led to several near-falls. They are also concerned that his DOAC medication puts him at risk of a bleed if he falls and hits his head.

      His current medications include amlodipine, ramipril, edoxaban, and alendronic acid.

      What steps should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Calculate her ORBIT score

      Explanation:

      It is not enough to withhold anticoagulation solely based on the risk of falls or old age. To determine the risk of stroke or bleeding in atrial fibrillation, objective measures such as the CHA2DS2-VASc and ORBIT scores should be used. The ORBIT score, rather than HAS-BLED, is now recommended by NICE for assessing bleeding risk. A history of falls doesn’t factor into the ORBIT score, but age does. Limiting the patient’s mobility by suggesting she only mobilizes with staff is impractical. There is no rationale for switching the edoxaban to an antiplatelet agent, as antiplatelets are not typically used in atrial fibrillation management unless there is a specific indication. Stopping edoxaban without calculating the appropriate scores could leave the patient at a high risk of stroke.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man undergoes an abdominal ultrasound as part of investigations for persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man undergoes an abdominal ultrasound as part of investigations for persistent mildly abnormal liver function tests. The liver appears normal but he is found to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      Your Answer: Back pain is a common presenting symptom

      Correct Answer: Elective repair of an aneurysm has a significant mortality risk

      Explanation:

      Unruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often goes unnoticed due to the lack of symptoms. It is usually discovered incidentally during abdominal examinations or scans. However, bimanual palpation of the supra-umbilical region can detect a significant number of aneurysms. While most patients do not experience any pain, severe lumbar pain may indicate an impending rupture. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, with an annual rupture rate of 0.5-1.5% for aneurysms between 4.0 and 5.5 cm, and 5-15% for those between 5.5 and 6.0 cm.

      The natural history of a small AAA is gradual expansion, with an annual rate of approximately 10% of the initial arterial diameter. The mortality rate from a ruptured AAA is high, at 80%. However, elective repair can significantly reduce the risk of rupture. The overall mortality rate for elective repair in the UK is 2.4%, with a lower mortality rate for endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) than open surgery.

      It is important for drivers to notify the DVLA of any AAA, as it may affect their ability to drive. Group 1 drivers should notify the DVLA of an aneurysm >6 cm, while >6.5 cm would disqualify them from driving. Group 2 drivers should notify the DVLA of an aneurysm of any size, and an aortic diameter >5.5 cm would disqualify them from driving.

      In conclusion, while most patients with unruptured AAA do not experience any symptoms, it is important to be aware of the risks and treatment options. Early detection and elective repair can significantly reduce the risk of rupture and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      129.4
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man visits your GP practice, who is typically healthy. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits your GP practice, who is typically healthy. He had come to see you a few weeks ago with a viral infection, during which you recorded his clinic blood pressure as 168/105 mmHg. You have since arranged for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM), blood tests, urine dip, an ECG, and are now reviewing the results with him.

      The ABPM average shows his blood pressure to be 157/100 mmHg. You have also conducted blood tests to check his plasma glucose, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, serum total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol. His renal function and glucose levels are normal, and a urine dip for protein and ECG are also normal. Upon checking the back of his eyes, you find that the fundi are normal. His QRisk is calculated to be 28%.

      You discuss potential treatment options with the patient. What should be included in your management plan?

      Your Answer: Offer amlodipine and lifestyle advice and aim for clinic BP <140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      As a primary prevention measure for cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to discuss and suggest statin therapy to the patient. The target for clinic blood pressure should be less than 140/90 mmHg and less than 135/85 mmHg for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. To achieve this, amlodipine and lifestyle advice should be offered along with atorvastatin.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      982.8
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Nausea + tinnitus

      Correct Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.5
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Effective treatment for heart failure lowers a patients BNP level

      Correct Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      11.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (6/10) 60%
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