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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman with metastatic cervical cancer presents to the Medical Admissions Unit with uncontrolled pain and vomiting. She has been experiencing worsening back and pelvic pain for the last two weeks, but was reluctant to seek medical attention as she wanted to keep going for her three young children. Despite palliative treatment, her pain has become unbearable and she is now clinically dehydrated and in distress. Her lab results show elevated levels of serum urea, creatinine, and corrected calcium, as well as low albumin. What is the most appropriate analgesic for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral immediate release morphine
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous fentanyl
Explanation:The patient has acute renal failure likely caused by an obstructive nephropathy from a pelvic tumor and dehydration. She is experiencing bony, visceral, and neuropathic pain exacerbated by hypercalcemia. NSAIDs and gabapentin are not recommended, and opioids are the preferred treatment. Morphine is effective but can cause toxicity in renal failure due to accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide. Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid that is unaffected by renal impairment but can only be given parenterally. Transdermal fentanyl is not appropriate for acute pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Lena is a 28-year-old woman who has been brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive at home. She is intubated and ventilated to allow for a CT scan of her brain, which reveals a severe subarachnoid hemorrhage. After consulting with the local neurosurgical unit, it is determined that there are no viable treatment options and she will receive palliative care only. Despite the cessation of all sedative medications, Lena remains unconscious and unable to maintain her own airway. Her family agrees to begin the process of evaluating her for brain stem death.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the assessment of brain stem death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The legal time of death is when the first test indicates brain stem death
Explanation:Diagnosis of Brain Stem Death
Brain stem death occurs when the brain stem is so severely damaged that it can no longer control cardiac and respiratory functions. This can result in the heart stopping soon after. However, with artificial support, an individual may continue to live for a period of time. To avoid futile interventions, it is important to accurately diagnose brain stem death and sensitively manage the patient’s family.
The Royal College of Physicians published a code of practice for the diagnosis of brain stem death in 1998. The diagnosis involves the absence of all brain stem reflexes, which must be assessed by two medical practitioners, one of whom must be a consultant. Members of the transplant team are not allowed to participate in the diagnosis. The time between assessments is determined by clinical judgement, but one week is considered excessive. Death is pronounced after the second set of tests, but the legal time of death is recorded as the time of the first set of tests revealing brain stem death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of persistent vomiting and headache. She reports that her nausea is more severe in the morning and she vomits about six times daily. What is the best initial pharmacological treatment for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg TDS
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antiemetic
In selecting an antiemetic, it is crucial to consider the underlying cause of the nausea. Antiemetics have different modes of action and target specific receptors, making them suitable for certain clinical situations. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic that targets dopamine and serotonin receptors, making it effective for delayed gastric emptying and post-chemotherapy nausea. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is most effective for toxin or metabolic-induced nausea as it targets dopamine receptors. Levomepromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic that antagonizes dopamine, serotonin, histamine, and cholinergic receptors, but it can cause severe postural hypotension and sedation, making it more appropriate for terminal care.
Cyclizine is the most appropriate first-line agent for the patient in this case, given the possibility of brain metastases. Cyclizine targets dopamine and cholinergic receptors and is widely accepted as the best antiemetic for nausea associated with cerebral disease. While dexamethasone may become an appropriate management option if the patient is later diagnosed with brain metastases, the focus of this case is on the acute management of vomiting, making cyclizine a more appropriate initial treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic prostate cancer presents with worsening lower back pain that is aggravated by sitting upright. He reports difficulty sleeping at night but denies any sensory changes or weakness. His current medications include aspirin, paracetamol, and bicalutamide.
During the physical examination, the patient exhibits normal tone, full power, and downgoing plantars in both lower legs. However, he experiences extreme tenderness in the midline at L2 and L3.
Laboratory results show a bilirubin level of 34 µmol/l, ALP level of 450 u/l, ALT level of 56 u/l, albumin level of 32 g/l, and calcium level of 3.1mmol/l. An MRI of the spine reveals sclerotic lesions in T9, L2, and L3.
What is the most effective medical therapy for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman was diagnosed with breast cancer six years ago. She has received various hormonal treatments, but her tumor markers have started to increase again. Her oncologist has recommended a change in her hormonal therapy, but she has refused, opting to let nature take its course. Her son disagrees with her decision and wants her to receive the new treatment. He has questioned her mental capacity and ability to provide informed consent.
As per the Mental Capacity Act 2005, what would indicate that she lacks the capacity to make this decision?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He is unable to communicate his decision to his doctor.
Explanation:Mental Capacity and Communication
The Mental Capacity Act 2005 outlines four conditions that must be met for a person to retain capacity to make decisions. These include relevant information, retaining that information, using it to make a decision, and communicating that decision. However, if a person is unable to communicate their decision, efforts should be made to enable them to do so before concluding that they lack capacity. Being deaf does not necessarily interfere with capacity, as alternative communication methods can be used. Patients are entitled to change their minds and make unwise decisions without lacking capacity. The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is not a reliable indicator of capacity, as there is no reproducible link between MMSE score and capacity. these factors is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights respected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man with a history of metastatic renal cell carcinoma presented with recent onset of back pain. A bone scan revealed increased uptake in the left hip, suggestive of a metastatic deposit. He was scheduled for one fraction of palliative radiotherapy. Upon admission, his U&Es showed a creatinine level of 235, which had increased from 87 one month prior. Despite taking regular paracetamol and codeine phosphate 60 mg every six hours, he experiences severe pain in his hip when moving from the bed. While waiting for radiotherapy, what is the most appropriate PRN analgesic for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fentanyl lozenges
Explanation:Fentanyl as an Effective Treatment for Breakthrough Pain in Renal Failure Patients
Fentanyl is a potent pain medication that selectively activates µ receptors in the body. While it is not very effective when taken orally due to extensive first-pass metabolism, it can be administered through lozenges for buccal absorption, resulting in a rapid onset of action within five minutes. This makes it an ideal choice for patients experiencing breakthrough pain, particularly those with renal failure, as fentanyl is primarily metabolized in the liver and has inactive metabolites.
In contrast, other pain medications such as morphine sulfate, methadone, and oxycodone have a longer onset of action and may not be as effective for sudden pain. Additionally, these drugs can accumulate in patients with renal impairment, leading to unpredictable and potentially severe side effects. Diamorphine, which has a rapid onset of action, may be suitable for breakthrough pain in patients with normal renal function.
Overall, fentanyl’s unique pharmacokinetics and effectiveness in treating breakthrough pain make it a valuable option for patients with renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is scheduled for her third cycle of palliative chemotherapy. However, she has experienced vomiting at home on the morning of her previous two treatments. What is the best medication to manage her vomiting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam 0.5 mg orally as needed
Explanation:Treatment for Anticipatory Vomiting in Chemotherapy Patients
Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can be treated with various drugs. However, modern palliative chemotherapy for breast cancer is less likely to cause severe nausea and vomiting. In the case of a patient experiencing anticipatory vomiting, which is likely caused by anxiety about chemotherapy, treating them with a benzodiazepine as an anxiolytic and antiemetic would be the most effective approach.
Anticipatory vomiting is a common issue among chemotherapy patients, and it can be challenging to manage. It is often caused by anxiety and fear associated with the treatment. In such cases, treating the underlying anxiety can help alleviate the vomiting. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used as anxiolytics and antiemetics. They work by reducing anxiety and calming the patient, which can help prevent anticipatory vomiting.
In conclusion, when dealing with anticipatory vomiting in chemotherapy patients, it is essential to address the underlying anxiety. Treating the patient with a benzodiazepine as an anxiolytic and antiemetic can be an effective approach to managing this issue. It is important to note that this treatment should only be administered under the supervision of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer and widespread bony metastases presents with chest pain. He describes it as a 'shooting' pain which originates in his back but radiates forward in a band around his chest. This pain is associated with altered sensation affecting the skin at the level of his nipples.
He is currently taking paracetamol 1 g QDS, modified release morphine sulphate (MST) 30 mg BD, and oral morphine liquid 10 mg PRN. He is taking four doses of oral morphine liquid each day which he does not feel is helping his pain.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start amitriptyline 10 mg nocte
Explanation:Management of Neuropathic Pain in Tumor Patients
Neuropathic pain is a common symptom in tumor patients, and it can be challenging to manage. In this case, the patient is experiencing pain possibly due to tumor involvement of the T4 vertebra. The pain is not responsive to opioids, so increasing the MST or introducing a weak opioid like tramadol would not be appropriate. NSAIDs are effective for pain caused by bony metastases, but not for neuropathic pain like this. Prescribing more than one opioid simultaneously is generally not recommended, and there is no indication for an increase in opioid dose in this scenario.
The best next step in this patient’s pain management would be to add a neuropathic agent. The NICE guidelines recommend starting with a low dose of amitriptyline or pregabalin, which can be titrated up to minimize side effects. Amitriptyline 10 mg is the first-line recommendation, with pregabalin as an alternative. It is important to note that tramadol is only recommended as an initial opioid and not as an additional opioid in the WHO analgesic ladder. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the appropriate guidelines and tailor the treatment plan to the patient’s specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the Oncology Ward after experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea following her first cycle of paclitaxel chemotherapy. She is treated with intravenous fluids, electrolyte replacement, and antiemetics, and her symptoms quickly improve. However, on day three of admission, she continues to complain of abdominal pain despite the resolution of her treatment-related toxicities. A CT scan reveals multiple lung and liver metastases and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. She is currently taking paracetamol, ondansetron, sodium docusate, lansoprazole, and metoclopramide, but ibuprofen has been ineffective for her pain. Examination shows a tender liver edge palpable at roughly 3 cm from the costal margin. Her blood work shows a low hemoglobin level, normal white cell count, elevated ALT, and low serum albumin. What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in dexamethasone 6 mg PO OD, codeine 30–60 mg PO QDS and PRN Oramorph® 5–10 mg PO up to 4-hourly
Explanation:Optimizing Pain Management for a Patient with Liver Metastases: Medication Adjustments
When managing pain in a patient with liver metastases, it is important to consider the underlying cause of the pain and adjust medication accordingly. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing capsular pain and would benefit from the addition of dexamethasone as an adjuvant analgesic. Up-titration of analgesia is also necessary, with the next step being a weak opiate such as codeine. Alfentanil is not needed in this case, as the patient has normal renal function. Morphine via continuous subcutaneous infusion may be a good option if there are issues with oral medication absorption, but since the patient’s vomiting and diarrhea have resolved, up-titration of oral analgesia is a better choice. Tramadol as a weak opiate PRN is not likely to be effective and is more emetogenic than codeine. While reducing the paracetamol dose is appropriate in patients with impaired liver function, the patient’s liver function tests are only slightly out of range and controlling her pain is a higher priority. Adding naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not as appropriate as introducing opiates and dexamethasone for capsular pain. Overall, optimizing pain management for this patient requires careful consideration of the underlying cause of pain and appropriate medication adjustments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with lung cancer is admitted to the hospital by his spouse due to experiencing peculiar symptoms. He has begun to make odd facial expressions, protrude his tongue, and struggle with speaking. Despite this, his vital signs are stable, and he appears to be cognizant of his surroundings. His wife is curious if a medication he began taking three days ago could be responsible for his condition. Which of the listed medications is the probable culprit for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Acute Dystonic Reaction: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
An acute dystonic reaction is characterized by involuntary muscle contractions that can affect various parts of the body, such as the tongue, face, neck, and eyes. This condition can be triggered by certain medications, particularly neuroleptics, antiemetics, and antidepressants. It usually occurs within a few days of starting a new drug and can be accompanied by symptoms such as facial grimacing, difficulty speaking, and oculogyric crisis. However, the patient’s mental status and vital signs are typically normal.
To manage an acute dystonic reaction, the first step is to discontinue the causative medication. Then, medications such as benztropine or diphenhydramine can be given to block cholinergic receptors in the striatum, which may help to restore the balance between cholinergic and dopaminergic activity and alleviate the dystonia. Benzodiazepines may also be useful in some cases. Overall, prompt recognition and treatment of an acute dystonic reaction can prevent complications and improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is admitted for pain management. He has a medical history of renal cell carcinoma with metastases to the pelvis and spine. Due to recent chemotherapy, he has developed renal impairment and his current creatinine level is 390. His performance status has declined in the past few months. The patient experiences pain only when he moves, and he prefers not to take regular pain medication due to past side effects. He is currently waiting for palliative radiotherapy and has requested an analgesic to use before movement. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral transmucosal fentanyl citrate (lozenges)
Explanation:Pain Management in Renal Failure
The management of pain in patients with renal failure can be challenging due to the accumulation of toxic metabolites from commonly used strong analgesics. Morphine, diamorphine, and oxycodone are among the drugs that should be used with extreme caution in these situations. However, fentanyl is a safer option as it is not renally excreted. Fentanyl lozenges have a rapid onset of action and are useful for breakthrough pain, while transdermal fentanyl has a prolonged duration of action.
Therefore, oral transmucosal fentanyl citrate is the best choice for patients with renal failure who require analgesia for short, isolated periods. It is important to consider the patient’s renal function when selecting an appropriate analgesic to avoid further complications. By choosing the right medication, patients with renal failure can receive effective pain relief without risking further harm to their kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are urgently called to the oncology ward to assess a 70-year-old man with a history of metastatic buccal cancer that has spread and is now causing a fungating lesion. The MDT had previously deemed the cancer inoperable due to involvement of the carotid artery. The patient was admitted with hypercalcaemia but has since deteriorated and is now on the end-of-life pathway.
Upon arrival, you observe a significant amount of blood around the patient, and staff are using towels to apply pressure to the neck. The nursing team reports that there was a sudden pop and a large volume of bleeding began at the site of the fungating cancer. They mention that bleeding has occurred before, but not to this extent.
What would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midazolam
Explanation:During a catastrophic, terminal haemorrhage, it may be necessary to administer a large dose of midazolam (10mg) as part of crisis management to alleviate distress. To help mask the color of the blood and absorb it, red or green towels or blankets should be readily available.
Adrenaline is not typically used in cases of terminal haemorrhage, as it is reserved for specific circumstances of major haemorrhage. Morphine can be used to manage pain and breathlessness in palliative care, but it is not typically used in terminal haemorrhages. Terlipressin may be used for major haemorrhage, particularly in cases of gastrointestinal bleeding, but it is not appropriate for terminal haemorrhages.
Given that the patient is on the end-of-life pathway and surgical intervention is not an option, seeking a vascular surgery opinion at this time would not be appropriate.
Managing Agitation and Confusion in Palliative Care
When managing agitation and confusion in palliative care, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medications such as haloperidol, chlorpromazine, or levomepromazine may be used as first-line options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. It is important to note that the use of these medications should be carefully monitored and adjusted as needed to ensure the best possible symptom management for the patient. Proper management of agitation and confusion can greatly improve the quality of life for patients in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with metastatic small cell lung cancer was sent home on regular oral morphine sulphate for pain relief. He had initially experienced good relief from the medication, but after a few weeks required readmission due to poorly controlled pain. He had taken his medication as directed. While in the hospital, he contracted pneumonia and his condition worsened, resulting in respiratory failure and a decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). He continued to experience significant discomfort. What is the appropriate resuscitation status for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When it comes to end of life care, it is important to discuss treatment options with the patient as early as possible. However, if this is not possible, any previous discussions or forms filled out by the patient can be used as a guide. In the case of resuscitation decisions, it is important to ask for permission from the patient’s relatives if death is expected. The healthcare professional should explain the reasons for the decision and consult with the relatives to ensure the patient’s best interests are being considered.If a decision is made not to resuscitate, any treatments that may prolong life should also be discontinued. However, if there are treatments that can improve the patient’s condition and allow them to return home or to a hospice, these should be considered.It is important to note that while relatives have the right to be consulted, the healthcare professional is only obligated to act in the patient’s best interests. Additionally, decisions about resuscitation can be reviewed and reassessed at a later date, especially if there is a change in the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is admitted to hospice with metastatic bowel cancer and a prognosis of days to short weeks. What factors would prompt a palliative care physician to consider offering him a blood transfusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disabling shortness of breath on minimal exertion
Explanation:Blood Transfusion in Palliative Medicine
In palliative medicine, the decision to offer blood transfusion is based on individual patient needs rather than strict guidelines. The main reason for giving blood in the hospice setting is for symptom control, which can range from fatigue and anorexia to shortness of breath and angina. Patients with chronic anemia and low hemoglobin levels may not receive transfusions if they are relatively asymptomatic. The presence of postural hypotension may or may not be an indication for transfusion, depending on the patient’s symptoms. In cases of major bleeding, blood transfusion may not be appropriate, and the focus should be on staying with the patient and providing comfort measures. Despite a short prognosis, blood transfusion can play an important role in symptom control and should not be discounted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 68-year-old man who was admitted to the emergency department with pneumonia. He had been diagnosed with advanced small cell lung cancer that had spread extensively to his liver, thoracic vertebrae, and femur bones. His medical history included ischemic heart disease, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and COPD.
The patient's primary complaint was of increasing pain in his legs and spine, which was particularly bothersome at night. Despite a trial of bisphosphonate therapy and radiotherapy, he did not experience any relief. He was initially prescribed oral morphine sulfate solution, which was later switched to morphine sulfate tablets (MST). He had been taking 60mg BD, but the palliative care community nurse titrated it to 70 mg BD a few days before admission, resulting in excellent pain relief. He also used Oramorph solution 10mg approximately 5-6 times a day for breakthrough pain.
While on the ward, he received intravenous antibiotics and made a full recovery. Before discharge, he expressed a strong desire to start transdermal treatment to reduce the number of oral medications he was taking.
What is the most appropriate initial dose to begin transdermal treatment, with the goal of completely discontinuing all oral opiate medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence Fentanyl 75 72 hr patch, paracetamol 1g QDS and oramorph solution PRN for breakthrough pain
Explanation:To determine the appropriate amount of fentanyl for a patient on a complex opiate analgesia regimen, the total daily dose of morphine salt must be calculated. In this case, the patient’s intake was 140mg of morphine from MST 70 mg BD and 50-60mg of morphine from Oramorph 10mg PRN, resulting in a total daily intake of 190-200 mg of morphine salt. To avoid opiate toxicity, the recommended course of action is to start the patient on a fentanyl 75 patch, which is equivalent to 180mg of daily morphine salt intake, and supplement with PRN Oramorph solution as needed.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with breast cancer and bone metastases presents with back pain, bilateral leg weakness, and a sensory level at L1. What does the NICE guidance recommend for the management of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preoperative radiotherapy should not be performed
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Spinal Cord Compression
Spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment and management. Dexamethasone is a commonly used medication for this condition and can be administered via any available route. However, there is no significant advantage to giving it intravenously over orally. Patients with MSCC should be offered 16 mg of dexamethasone as soon as possible after assessment, except for those with a significant suspicion of lymphoma. The possibility of spinal surgery does not affect the prescribing of corticosteroids in this situation.
Spinal stabilisation surgery should be urgently considered for patients with spinal metastases and imaging evidence of structural spinal failure with spinal instability, as well as those with mechanical pain resistant to conventional analgesia, even if they have been completely paralysed for more than 24 hours. Preoperative radiotherapy is not recommended, but postoperative fractionated radiotherapy can be offered to patients with a satisfactory outcome once the wound has healed.
Patients with MSCC should be assessed at least once a day for changes in bowel and bladder function. Bladder dysfunction should be managed with a urinary catheter on free drainage, although this should not be performed automatically on all MSCC patients. Overall, prompt treatment and management are crucial for patients with spinal cord compression to improve their outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man with pharyngeal cancer is admitted with complete dysphagia and back pain. He had been taking 25 mg oxycodone bd at home before his swallowing deteriorated, but he has been unable to take any oral medication for the past 24 hours. The medical team has decided to set up a syringe driver to administer his pain relief subcutaneously. What subcutaneous dose of oxycodone is equivalent to his current daily oral dose of oxycodone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 mg / 24 hours
Explanation:Converting Oral Oxycodone Dose to Subcutaneous Syringe Driver
Oxycodone is a potent opioid that is stronger than morphine when taken orally. However, due to its higher cost, it should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate morphine. To convert an oral dose of oxycodone to a 24-hour subcutaneous syringe driver, you must first calculate the total daily oral dose. For example, if a patient takes 30 mg of oxycodone twice a day, the total daily oral dose would be 60 mg.
To convert this to a 24-hour subcutaneous route, you need to divide the total daily oral dose by two. In this case, dividing 60 mg by two would give you a subcutaneous dose of 30 mg. This conversion is important for patients who are unable to take medication orally and require a different route of administration. By how to convert oral doses to subcutaneous doses, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the appropriate amount of medication for their pain management needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A frail 87-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is admitted from a nursing home with abdominal discomfort and constipation. He typically experiences fecal incontinence every day but has not had a bowel movement in over a week. An abdominal x-ray reveals severe constipation but no signs of bowel obstruction.
Currently, he is taking paracetamol 1 g qds, diclofenac 50 mg tds, and MST (modified release morphine sulphate) 20 mg bd for back pain caused by bony metastases. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's constipation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyethylene glycol (Movicol) 1 sachet b.d.
Explanation:Management of Constipation in Palliative Care Patients
Constipation is a common problem in patients with advanced cancer, especially those taking opioid medication, with reduced oral intake and mobility. Lactulose, an osmotic laxative, is usually avoided in palliative care due to its side effects such as abdominal cramps and excessive flatulence. Fentanyl, a less constipating opioid, is not the best option in this situation as it would be too high a dose for the patient. Co-danthramer, a combination of danthron and poloxamer 188, is a popular choice for constipation in palliative care but should not be given to incontinent patients. Bulk-forming agents like ispaghula husk are generally unpalatable and can worsen constipation when taken with inadequate fluids. Polyethylene glycol (Movicol) is the best choice in this scenario as it is an osmotic laxative that helps retain water in the gut and is generally well-tolerated. It has been shown to be more effective than lactulose in managing chronic constipation. In summary, the management of constipation in palliative care patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s condition and medication regimen to choose the most appropriate laxative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A medical consultation was requested for a 57-year-old man admitted with pneumonia who was experiencing persistent hiccups. He had been diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma six months prior and was not eligible for curative treatment due to the extent of the disease. Despite initially being asymptomatic, he had developed hiccups over the past four weeks. His GP had attempted to treat the hiccups with domperidone and haloperidol in collaboration with the palliative care nurse, but there was no improvement in his symptoms. He reported feeling fatigued but denied experiencing any other symptoms such as abdominal pain, heartburn, or early satiety.
The patient's medical history included alcohol dependence syndrome, chronic liver disease, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. He was prescribed thiamine 100mg TDS, lactulose 10 mls BD, spironolactone 100mg OD, propranolol 40mg OD, simvastatin 20 mg OD, and intravenous co-amoxiclav 625mg TDS for the treatment of his pneumonia. Upon examination, he appeared cachectic, and a palpable mass was detected in the right upper quadrant inferior to the right sternal edge. Ascites was also present, but there was no tenderness. Neurological, cardiovascular, and respiratory examinations were unremarkable. Recent investigations revealed elevated levels of bilirubin, ALP, and ALT, as well as low levels of protein and albumin. A chest x-ray showed normal heart borders and lung fields, and a surveillance upper GI endoscopy four months ago revealed a normal stomach mucosal surface with no evidence of portal hypertension.
What is the best course of action for managing the patient's hiccups?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence treatment with dexamethasone
Explanation:This man is suffering from advanced hepatocellular carcinoma and is experiencing distressing hiccups. As there are no indications of gastro-oesophageal reflux, a proton pump inhibitor trial is unlikely to be effective. In cases of hepatic or cerebral cancer, a trial of dexamethasone may provide some relief and is therefore recommended as the next course of action, given that previous attempts with a prokinetic and typical antipsychotic have not been successful. Baclofen and levomepromazine have limited evidence of effectiveness, and subcutaneous midazolam should only be used as a last resort. It is worth noting that the British National Formulary has a helpful section on prescribing in palliative care situations, which suggests the use of antacids or nifedipine in addition to the aforementioned options.
Palliative Care Prescribing for Hiccups
Hiccups can be a distressing symptom for patients receiving palliative care. In cases where hiccups are intractable, medication may be necessary to manage the symptom. Chlorpromazine is a licensed medication for the treatment of intractable hiccups and is commonly used in palliative care settings. Haloperidol and gabapentin are also medications that can be used to manage hiccups. Additionally, dexamethasone may be prescribed, particularly if there are hepatic lesions present. It is important for healthcare providers to assess the individual needs of each patient and determine the most appropriate medication for managing their hiccups. By effectively managing this symptom, patients can experience improved comfort and quality of life during their palliative care journey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient with advanced metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung is currently under your care. He is a former smoker and has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease. Although he experiences little pain, he has a poor appetite and is frequently overcome by a frightening sensation of breathlessness. You have been summoned to visit him on the ward early in the morning.
Upon examination, there are no indications of chest infection, heart failure, or pleural effusion. His oxygen saturation levels are at 96% on air, but his respiratory rate is 26 and he appears to be in distress.
What would be the most appropriate immediate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mg of liquid oral morphine
Explanation:Palliative Care and Breathlessness Management
Breathlessness is a common issue in palliative care, not limited to patients with lung cancer. The management of breathlessness involves the use of opioids, other medications, physiotherapy, and psychological support. Opioids are highly effective in reducing the sensation of breathlessness by decreasing inappropriate respiratory drive. When used correctly, opioids rarely cause respiratory depression.
Psychological support and physiotherapy are useful adjuncts to medications, but they require time and may not be immediately helpful in cases of distress unless breathing techniques have been taught. Benzodiazepines are also effective agents, but they are typically used as a second-line treatment after opioids.
Liquid oral morphine is the preferred medication for managing breathlessness in palliative care. Oxygen has a limited role in breathlessness management unless the patient is hypoxic. It may be necessary when patients become psychologically dependent on supplementary oxygen. Steroids have little to no role in the management of breathlessness.
In summary, the management of breathlessness in palliative care involves a combination of medications, psychological support, and physiotherapy. Opioids, particularly liquid oral morphine, are highly effective in reducing the sensation of breathlessness. Oxygen and benzodiazepines may also be used, but their roles are limited. Steroids are not typically used in the management of breathlessness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man presents with metastatic bowel cancer. He is brought in by ambulance after experiencing symptoms at home. Upon arrival, he displays confusion, widespread muscle rigidity, and tremors. The patient has recently started taking medication for constipation and nausea. His current medication list includes Paracetamol 1 g qds, Ibuprofen 400 mg tds, Oramorph 2.5 mg PRN, Levomepromazine 6.25 mg nocte, and Sodium docusate 100 mg bd. During examination, his heart rate is 119, blood pressure is 180/105 mmHg, and temperature is 38.5°C. Blood results show Hb 92 g/L (130-180), WCC 15.0 ×109/L (4-11), and CK 2123. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided in the scenario. The classic tetrad of altered mental state, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability, along with other neurological abnormalities such as tremor, dysphagia, chorea, and dysarthria, point towards NMS. The patient’s raised white cell count and creatinine kinase also support this diagnosis. It is possible that the recent use of antiemetic medication such as levomepromazine or haloperidol triggered the syndrome.
It is important to differentiate NMS from serotonin syndrome, which presents with shivering, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, and ataxia, along with diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. Hyperthermia and muscle rigidity tend to be less severe in serotonin syndrome, and elevations in white cell count and creatinine kinase are less marked. Malignant hyperthermia, which occurs following exposure to certain anesthetic agents, is not likely in this case.
Although MDMA toxicity is a possibility, it is less likely given the patient’s demographic. Rigidity is uncommon in MDMA toxicity, although hyperthermia and rhabdomyolysis can occur. Meningitis is also a differential diagnosis to consider, but the recent change in medication, widespread muscle rigidity, and accompanying raised creatine kinase make NMS the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with progressive bulbar palsy MND (motor neurone disease) is scheduled for a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) insertion to receive nutritional support. Due to the weakness of his bulbar muscles, he has been unable to eat properly for the past week, putting him at risk of developing refeeding syndrome once he starts receiving artificial nutrition. Which of the following blood test results would indicate the presence of refeeding syndrome?
Normal ranges:
Sodium 137-144 mmol/L
Potassium 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
Magnesium 0.75-1.05 mmol/L
Calcium 2.2-2.6 mmol/L
Serum phosphate 0.8-1.4 mmol/LYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium 136, potassium 2.5, magnesium 0.35, calcium 2.21, phosphate 0.25
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome in Palliative Care Patients
Artificial feeding is becoming more common in palliative medicine, especially in patients with neurodegenerative conditions. However, it is important to be aware of refeeding syndrome, which can occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial nutrition. Refeeding syndrome is caused by shifts in fluid and electrolytes and can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, seizures, and even death. Patients are typically monitored with regular blood tests to check for low levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, which are characteristic of refeeding syndrome.
To identify patients at high risk of developing refeeding syndrome, NICE guidelines on Nutrition support in adults (CG32) recommend looking for a BMI < 16 kg/m2, little or no nutritional intake for > 10 days, and unintentional weight loss greater than 15% within the last three to six months. It is important to be aware of refeeding syndrome in palliative care patients, as many of them may have experienced a period of reduced nutritional intake prior to receiving artificial feeding. By monitoring for and managing refeeding syndrome, healthcare professionals can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with metastatic bowel cancer is currently receiving hospice care for severe abdominal pain. While being treated for a chest infection with co-amoxiclav, she suddenly experiences acute shortness of breath and significant swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline (1:1000) 500 micrograms IM
Explanation:Emergency Treatment for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate emergency treatment. Even if the patient is an inpatient at a hospice with metastatic bowel cancer, it is still crucial to treat anaphylaxis as an emergency. The symptoms of anaphylaxis can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the face and throat, and a sudden drop in blood pressure.
The guidelines for emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions recommend using the Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure (ABCDE) method to assess the patient’s condition. After completing the initial assessment, it is essential to call for help and lie the patient flat. The first-line treatment for anaphylaxis is adrenaline (1:1000) 500 micrograms IM. This medication should be given as soon as possible to help reverse the symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Once the initial steps have been taken, high flow oxygen, IV fluids, hydrocortisone, and chlorphenamine can be given to help manage the patient’s symptoms. It is crucial to note that the dose and concentration of adrenaline used for anaphylaxis treatment should not be confused with that given during adult life support (adrenaline (1:10000) 1mg IV). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide prompt and effective treatment for patients experiencing anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with metastatic ovarian cancer. He has a history of heart failure and diabetes. He is currently taking aspirin, bisoprolol, and ramipril. His GP prescribed tramadol (100 mg six hourly) for his abdominal pain, but it has significantly worsened. The GP referred him to you for assessment.
Upon assessment and investigation, no acute cause for the pain exacerbation was found. The pain team initiated oral morphine (immediate release) 5 mg four hourly, which has helped with the pain but caused nausea in the patient. What is the most appropriate antiemetic to start?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Haloperidol as the First Choice Antiemetic for Opiate Induced Nausea in Palliative Care
Haloperidol is the preferred antiemetic for opiate induced nausea in the palliative care setting due to its central dopamine antagonist properties. The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) is rich in dopaminergic receptors, and opioid related nausea is believed to be primarily caused by dopamine pathways in the CTZ. While domperidone and metoclopramide also have central antidopaminergic activity, they are less effective than haloperidol, as much of their antiemetic action is due to their peripheral effects on the gut. Levomepromazine and cyclizine can also be used for opiate induced nausea, but they are not as effective as haloperidol. Levomepromazine has several mechanisms of action, while cyclizine’s effectiveness is limited. Therefore, haloperidol is the correct choice for opiate induced nausea in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with confusion, constipation, and nausea. He has a history of malignancy and his serum calcium levels are elevated. Treatment with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonate improves his symptoms. What is the probable location of his primary cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia is a serious metabolic disorder associated with malignancy, with 10% of cancer patients developing it. The most common cancers associated with hypercalcaemia are breast cancer, lung cancer, renal cell carcinoma, and myeloma. The disorder is caused by osteolytic metastases, tumour secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, and tumour production of calcitriol. Treatment involves intravenous fluid rehydration and bisphosphonate administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old patient has been diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer. They are currently taking 30 mg of oral morphine sustained release twice a day and have taken 60 mg of PRN breakthrough Oramorph on each of the last three days. However, during the ward round, they complain of vomiting and difficulty keeping their medication down. The medical team decides to switch their analgesia to a diamorphine subcutaneous infusion pump. What is the appropriate dose of diamorphine to be placed in the infusion pump over 24 hours?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40 mg
Explanation:When converting from oral morphine to s/c diamorphine, it is important to use the correct conversion factor to avoid under-dosing or over-dosing the patient. The recommended conversion factor is approximately one third of the mg dose of oral morphine.
For a patient requiring 120 mg of oral morphine per day, the correct dose of s/c diamorphine would be 40 mg. Choosing a dose of 20 mg risks under-dosing and inadequate pain relief, while doses of 70 mg and 90 mg risk over-dosing and respiratory depression. A dose of 110 mg is nearly three times the required dose and could lead to respiratory arrest due to opiate overdose.
Therefore, it is crucial to carefully calculate and choose the correct dose of s/c diamorphine when converting from oral morphine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is scheduled for radiotherapy in an hour. The nursing staff reports that he experienced pain during the transfer yesterday. Despite this, his pain has been effectively managed with a total of 60mg morphine daily. What is the optimal approach to managing his pain during today's transfer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An additional dose of 10mg morphine 30 minutes prior to his transfer
Explanation:According to the BNF, the patient should receive a breakthrough dose of morphine 30 minutes before transfer, instead of 1 hour before, as it should last for the transfer back. The appropriate dose for a breakthrough is 1/6th of the patient’s total daily dose, which is 10mg. Therefore, 15mg is too high for this patient. Even though the pain is temporary, it should still be managed to ensure the patient’s comfort and quality of life.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Sarah is an 80-year-old woman with locally advanced bowel carcinoma who presents in complete bowel obstruction. Her main symptoms are nausea, vomiting, constipation and colicky abdominal pain.
The medical team is considering setting up a syringe driver to control her symptoms but is unsure of the best drug to use.
What would be the most appropriate drug to use in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide
Explanation:Choosing the Right Analgesic for Colicky Pain
When it comes to treating colicky pain, an antispasmodic agent is the most appropriate choice. Mebeverine is a commonly used antispasmodic, but it is only available in oral preparations and cannot be administered through a subcutaneous syringe driver. Instead, hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) is an excellent choice of analgesic for bowel obstruction as it can be given subcutaneously. While opioid analgesics like diamorphine and alfentanil may be beneficial in colicky pain, an antispasmodic should be the first line of treatment. Dexamethasone is sometimes used to reverse intestinal obstruction due to a tumor, but it should not be given over 24 hours in a syringe driver due to its potentially excitatory side effects. Instead, it can be given as one or two subcutaneous injections per day, preferably in the morning. Choosing the right analgesic for colicky pain is crucial in providing effective pain relief for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with advanced small cell lung cancer that has spread to other parts of his body arrives at the Emergency Department showing signs of restlessness. He seems disoriented and is making unintelligible noises. He is uncooperative with the nursing staff's attempts to measure his vital signs and becomes agitated when touched. He is breathing rapidly and using additional respiratory muscles.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous haloperidol
Explanation:Treatment of Agitation in Terminally Ill Patients
Agitation is a common symptom in terminally ill patients and requires prompt management. Antipsychotics, such as haloperidol or levomepromazine, are preferred for delirium and can be administered orally or subcutaneously. Benzodiazepines are preferred in patients with alcohol withdrawal, Parkinson’s disease, and dementia with lewy bodies. Depot haloperidol should not be used as it is slow-acting. Aggressive measures such as intubation and mechanical ventilation should only be taken after discussion of treatment goals with the family. Sublingual lorazepam is not the drug of choice for agitation in terminally ill patients. Prompt and appropriate management of agitation can improve the quality of life for terminally ill patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with colon cancer and liver metastases is experiencing pain. Her most severe pain is a constant ache in the right upper quadrant that does not seem to be relieved by immediate release morphine (such as Oramorph). She is currently on modified release morphine 30 mg twice a day, paracetamol 1 g four times a day, and Oramorph 10 mg as needed. What is the best course of action for managing her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Liver Capsule Pain in Metastatic Disease
The patient’s history suggests that the pain they are experiencing is due to liver capsule pain caused by metastatic disease. The liver is surrounded by a collagenous capsule, and any swelling caused by metastases can stretch this capsule, leading to pain. However, liver capsule pain is not typically responsive to opioids, so increasing morphine dosage would not be the best option. Similarly, anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen are effective for muscular or bony pain but may not be the best choice for liver capsule pain. Additionally, the pain does not appear to be neuropathic in nature, so starting a neuropathic agent like gabapentin would not be the correct next step in managing the patient’s pain. the nature of liver capsule pain in metastatic disease is crucial for effective pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Medicine And End Of Life Care
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