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Question 1
Correct
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Which tumour is most frequently found in children who are less than one year old?
Your Answer: Neuroblastoma
Explanation:Common Tumours in Children Under 1 Year Old
Embryonal ‘-blastoma’ tumours are frequently found in children under 1 year old. These tumours include retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, nephroblastoma, medulloblastoma, and hepatoblastoma. Among these, neuroblastoma is the most common and typically affects infants under 1 year old. It originates from neural crest cells in the adrenal medulla and often presents as a large abdominal mass in an otherwise healthy child.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common cancer in children overall, but it is less common in infants under 1 year old. Unfortunately, the prognosis for those who develop ALL before their first birthday is poorer. Astrocytomas, the most common type of CNS tumour, tend to affect slightly older children.
Retinoblastomas are embryonal tumours of the retina, with half being spontaneous and the other half being familial due to an inherited mutation in the pRB tumour suppressor gene. Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is another embryonal tumour that affects the kidneys and may present as an abdominal mass in infants.
In summary, embryonal ‘-blastoma’ tumours are common in children under 1 year old, with neuroblastoma being the most prevalent. Other tumours, such as ALL and astrocytomas, tend to affect slightly older children. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in these young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A newborn is delivered prematurely at 32 weeks of gestation to an immigrant mother who recently arrived. The baby is experiencing feeding difficulties and frequent vomiting. Upon examination, the infant appears hypotonic and has a bluish tint to their skin with a pale grey color. The mother was treated for meningitis with an antibiotic during her pregnancy in a low-resource area. Which antibiotic is the most probable cause of the adverse drug event?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation:Harmful Drugs and Medical Conditions for Developing Fetuses
During pregnancy, certain drugs and medical conditions can harm the developing fetus. These harmful substances and conditions are known as teratogens. Some examples of teratogens include ACE inhibitors, alcohol, aminoglycosides, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, cocaine, diethylstilbesterol, lithium, maternal diabetes mellitus, smoking, tetracyclines, thalidomide, and warfarin.
ACE inhibitors can cause renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to craniofacial abnormalities. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity. Carbamazepine can result in neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome. Cocaine use during pregnancy can lead to intrauterine growth retardation and preterm labor. Diethylstilbesterol can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma. Lithium can result in Ebstein’s anomaly, which is an atrialized right ventricle. Maternal diabetes mellitus can cause macrosomia, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios, preterm labor, and caudal regression syndrome. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to preterm labor and intrauterine growth retardation. Tetracyclines can cause discolored teeth. Thalidomide can result in limb reduction defects. Valproate can cause neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Warfarin can lead to craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these harmful substances and conditions to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to assess the impact of cytokine administration on the progression of multi-drug resistant tuberculosis in HIV patients aged 50 and above. Various cytokines are administered daily to a group of 15 individuals. Treatment progress is evaluated by chest x-ray and sputum culture. Out of these individuals, 5 showed an increase in intracellular killing of Mycobacterium by macrophages.
Based on the cytokines administered during the study, which one is most probable to have been given to these 5 participants?Your Answer: Tumour necrosis factor-α
Correct Answer: Interferon-γ
Explanation:The activation of macrophages is attributed to Interferon-γ. In the case of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the immune response relies on the cytokines produced by T-helper-1 (TH1) cells to enhance the intracellular killing in phagocytic cells. Interferon-γ, which is produced by TH1 cells, acts on macrophages and triggers the enhancement of their microbicidal properties.
IL-12 is a cytokine that stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into TH1 cells and activates NK cells.
IL-2, on the other hand, causes the proliferation of other lymphocytes and does not affect macrophages.
Tumour necrosis factor-α is a pro-inflammatory cytokine produced by macrophages and plays a crucial role in inflammatory processes.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient from East Asia is presenting symptoms of distal peripheral polyneuropathy, including paraesthesia and reduced knee jerks, which are caused by a chronic deficiency of a certain vitamin. This vitamin's specific diphosphate form acts as a co-factor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex during the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA.
What is the name of the vitamin that this patient is lacking?Your Answer: B6
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:The correct answer is Vitamin B1, which is a cofactor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. The patient is experiencing dry beriberi, which is a chronic deficiency of Vitamin B1 that can cause distal peripheral polyneuropathy. The deficiency can be caused by alcohol dependence, malabsorption, or inadequate intake. Vitamin B1’s phosphate derivative, thiamine pyrophosphate, acts as a coenzyme for multiple carbohydrates and amino-acid complexes, including the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
Vitamin A is an incorrect answer as its deficiency does not cause the symptoms experienced by the patient. Vitamin A is essential for the function of the retina and its deficiency can lead to skin and ocular impairment, such as xerophthalmia and night blindness. Inadequate intake, fat malabsorption, or pancreatic, liver, and intestinal disease are common causes of Vitamin A deficiency.
Vitamin B6 is also an incorrect answer as the symptoms listed are not relevant to its deficiency.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are designing a research project looking at the complement system, in-particular the alternative complement pathway. As your dependent variable you choose the time taken to reduce levels of different strains of Salmonella bacteria to undetectable levels in vitro.
What will you choose as your independent variable?Your Answer: Dendritic cells
Correct Answer: Polysaccharides
Explanation:The activation of the alternative complement pathway is triggered by polysaccharides found on pathogens, such as gram negative bacteria. The research study is focused on evaluating the effectiveness of this pathway, making polysaccharides the suitable dependent variable to measure. On the other hand, the classical complement pathway is activated by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM/IgG. Th1 lymphocytes play a role in the cell-mediated response, while Th2 lymphocytes are involved in the humoral or antibody response.
Overview of Complement Pathways
Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.
The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.
Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about baroreceptor impulses?
Your Answer: Result in increased heart rate
Correct Answer: Inhibit the sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:Baroreceptors and their role in regulating blood pressure
Baroreceptors are specialized stretch receptors located in the walls of the internal carotid arteries. These receptors are activated when there is an increase in arterial pressure, which sends signals to the brain to inhibit the sympathetic nervous system. This, in turn, leads to a reduction in blood pressure and heart contractility.
When blood pressure increases, the baroreceptors within the luminal wall stretch, triggering a negative feedback loop that helps to regulate blood pressure. However, it is important to note that baroreceptors do not work via the parasympathetic system or inhibit the vagal nerve, nor do they increase heart rate.
Overall, baroreceptors play a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure homeostasis by detecting changes in pressure and sending signals to the brain to regulate the sympathetic nervous system. the function of these receptors can help in the development of treatments for hypertension and other cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She reports no history of trauma prior to the headache. The pain began at the back of her head while she was watching TV and quickly reached its peak intensity within 2 seconds, rated at 10/10. She has never experienced a headache before.
The patient also reported photophobia and neck stiffness after the headache. Neurological examination did not reveal any focal deficits, and her Glasgow Coma Scale score was 15/15.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:If you experience a sudden headache in the occipital region, it could be a sign of subarachnoid haemorrhage. This is especially true if you also develop sensitivity to light and stiffness in the neck. To investigate this possibility, a CT scan of the head may be ordered. If the results are inconclusive, a lumbar puncture with xanthochromia screen may be performed.
In contrast, intracerebral haemorrhage typically causes focal neurological deficits or a decrease in consciousness. It is often associated with risk factors such as hypertension and diabetes.
Extradural haemorrhage, on the other hand, usually occurs after head trauma, particularly to the temporal regions. It is caused by injury to the middle meningeal artery and can cause a lucid patient to lose consciousness gradually over several hours. As intracranial pressure increases, patients may also experience focal neurological deficits and cranial nerve palsies.
There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 49-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents with abdominal distension and is diagnosed with decompensated alcoholic liver disease with ascites. The consultant initiates treatment with spironolactone to aid in the management of his ascites.
What is the mode of action of spironolactone?Your Answer: Inhibition of the mineralocorticoid receptor in the cortical collecting ducts
Explanation:Aldosterone antagonists function as diuretics by targeting the cortical collecting ducts.
By inhibiting the mineralocorticoid receptor in the cortical collecting ducts, spironolactone acts as an aldosterone antagonist.
Loop diuretics like furosemide work by blocking the sodium/potassium/chloride transporter in the loop of Henle.
Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, block the sodium/chloride transporter in the distal convoluted tubules.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, like dorzolamide, act on the proximal tubules.
Amiloride inhibits the epithelial sodium transporter in the distal convoluted tubules.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 78-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. He had a history of ST-elevation myocardial infarction 10 days ago, which was treated with thrombolysis. During the examination, a high-pitch holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex. The ECG shows widespread ST elevation. Unfortunately, the patient experiences cardiac arrest and passes away. What is the probable histological finding in his heart?
Your Answer: Macrophages and granulation tissue at margins
Explanation:The histology findings of a myocardial infarction (MI) vary depending on the time elapsed since the event. Within the first 24 hours, there is evidence of early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibers, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. This stage is associated with a high risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock.
Between 1-3 days post-MI, there is extensive coagulative necrosis and an influx of neutrophils, which can lead to fibrinous pericarditis. From 3-14 days post-MI, macrophages and granulation tissue are present at the margins, and there is a high risk of complications such as free wall rupture (which can cause mitral regurgitation), papillary muscle rupture, and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm.
After 2 weeks to several months, the scar tissue has contracted and is complete. This stage is associated with Dressler syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, and mural thrombus. It is important to note that the risk of complications decreases as time passes, but long-term management and monitoring are still necessary for patients who have experienced an MI.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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After the passing of a dear friend, a 22-year-old male comes in with symptoms of confusion and auditory hallucinations. He appears to be in great distress and has developed a belief that he is a malevolent sorcerer. It is suspected that he may be experiencing brief psychotic disorder.
What are some characteristics of this disorder?Your Answer: The patient is always aware of their unusual behaviour
Correct Answer: It often results in a return to baseline functioning
Explanation:Brief psychotic disorder is a condition characterized by a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, that typically occurs in response to a stressful event. Individuals with a pre-existing personality disorder may be more susceptible to this condition. However, the good news is that brief psychotic disorder often resolves within a month, and patients typically return to their normal level of functioning. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their 20s, 30s, and 40s, and patients may not always be aware of the changes in their behavior.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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From which of the following structures does the posterior cruciate ligament originate?
Your Answer: Posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Correct Answer: Anterior intercondylar area of tibia
Explanation:The attachment point of the anterior cruciate ligament is the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia. From there, it extends in a posterolateral direction and inserts into the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.
The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A consultant physician is presenting his innovative research on antibiotics to a group of colleagues. He mentions that the antibiotics he is studying target the 50s ribosomal unit to inhibit protein synthesis.
Which specific antibiotic is the consultant referring to?Your Answer: Quinolones
Correct Answer: Tetracyclines
Explanation:Tetracyclines, including doxycycline and lymecycline, hinder protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, which prevents the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA.
Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which is necessary for the synthesis of DNA.
Cephalosporins hinder the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by competing with penicillin-binding proteins, which are responsible for cross-linking the peptidoglycan layer. The peptidoglycan layer is crucial for maintaining the structural integrity of the cell wall.
Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, prevent DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase.
Understanding Tetracyclines: Antibiotics Used in Clinical Practice
Tetracyclines are a group of antibiotics that are commonly used in clinical practice. They work by inhibiting protein synthesis, specifically by binding to the 30S subunit and blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. However, bacteria can develop resistance to tetracyclines through increased efflux by plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection.
Tetracyclines are used to treat a variety of conditions such as acne vulgaris, Lyme disease, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. However, they should not be given to children under 12 years of age or to pregnant or breastfeeding women due to the risk of discolouration of the infant’s teeth.
While tetracyclines are generally well-tolerated, they can cause adverse effects such as photosensitivity, angioedema, and black hairy tongue. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to use tetracyclines only as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the primary mechanism by which this hormone reduces plasma calcium levels, and how does it differ from the role of the thyroid hormone in calcium homeostasis?
The main organ responsible for maintaining calcium homeostasis is the parathyroid gland, which releases parathyroid hormone (PTH) to regulate calcium levels. However, the thyroid also plays a role by releasing calcitonin from parafollicular C cells in response to high levels of calcium in the blood. Despite their similar functions, these hormones work through different mechanisms to regulate calcium levels in the body.Your Answer: Decreases renal reabsorption of phosphate
Correct Answer: Inhibits osteoclast activity
Explanation:Calcitonin reduces plasma levels of calcium and phosphate by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts.
The function of osteoclasts is to reabsorb bone, which releases calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, calcitonin decreases the levels of both plasma calcium and phosphate. Conversely, all other options listed would increase plasma calcium levels.
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is released in response to low plasma calcium levels and inhibits renal reabsorption of phosphate. PTH increases plasma calcium levels by promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and gut, as well as indirectly increasing osteoclast activity to release more calcium from bones.
The active form of vitamin D, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases gut reabsorption of calcium. PTH stimulates the synthesis of this active form of vitamin D.
While PTH and calcitonin do not directly affect osteoblast activity, PTH does interact with osteoblasts to signal to osteoclasts to increase their activity in response to hypocalcemia.
Understanding Calcitonin and Its Role in Regulating Calcium Levels
Calcitonin is a hormone that is produced by the parafollicular cells or C cells of the thyroid gland. It is released in response to high levels of calcium in the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as bone resorption, vitamin D toxicity, or certain cancers. The main function of calcitonin is to decrease the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream.
Calcitonin works by binding to specific receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, which reduces their ability to resorb bone. This leads to a decrease in the release of calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream, which helps to restore normal levels of these minerals. In addition to its effects on bone metabolism, calcitonin also has other physiological functions such as regulating kidney function and modulating the immune system.
Overall, calcitonin plays an important role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body and preventing the development of conditions such as hypercalcemia, which can have serious health consequences. By inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation, calcitonin helps to maintain the structural integrity of bones and prevent fractures. Understanding the mechanisms of calcitonin action can provide insights into the pathophysiology of bone diseases and inform the development of new treatments for these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Correct
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A G2P1 woman visits her obstetrician for a routine antenatal check-up. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy so far. She denies any symptoms of fatigue, easy bleeding, or bruising.
During the check-up, her physician orders routine blood tests, and her complete blood count results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets: 110 * 109/L (150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 13 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Physiological changes of pregnancy
Explanation:During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.
The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.
Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.
The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.
Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.
The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 15
Correct
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When setting up a screening program, which of the following is not a crucial criterion according to Wilson and Junger?
Your Answer: The condition should be potentially curable
Explanation:Screening for a particular condition should meet certain criteria, known as the Wilson and Junger criteria. Firstly, the condition being screened for should be a significant public health concern. Secondly, there should be an effective treatment available for those who are diagnosed with the disease. Thirdly, facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be accessible. Fourthly, there should be a recognizable early stage of the disease. Fifthly, the natural progression of the disease should be well understood. Sixthly, there should be a suitable test or examination available. Seventhly, the test or examination should be acceptable to the population being screened. Eighthly, there should be a clear policy on who should be treated. Ninthly, the cost of screening and subsequent treatment should be economically balanced. Finally, screening should be an ongoing process rather than a one-time event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department with concerns of pain in his right foot. Upon examination, you observe a slow capillary refill and a cold right foot. The patient is unable to move his toes, and the foot is tender. You can detect a pulse behind his medial malleolus and in his popliteal fossa, but there are no pulses in his foot. Which artery is likely affected in this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Popliteal
Correct Answer: Anterior tibial
Explanation:The dorsalis pedis artery in the foot is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery. However, in a patient presenting with acute limb ischemia and an absent dorsalis pedis artery pulse, it is likely that the anterior tibial artery is occluded. This can cause severe ischemia, as evidenced by a cold and tender foot with decreased motor function. The presence of a palpable popliteal pulse suggests that the femoral artery is not occluded. Occlusion of the fibular artery would not typically result in an absent dorsalis pedis pulse, while occlusion of the posterior tibial artery would result in no pulse present posterior to the medial malleolus, where this artery runs.
The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the most frequent brain tumour in children?
Your Answer: Astrocytoma
Explanation:While astrocytoma is the most prevalent brain tumor in children, glioblastoma multiforme is a rare occurrence. Additionally, medulloblastoma is no longer the primary CNS tumor in children, according to Cancer Research UK.
Understanding CNS Tumours: Types, Diagnosis, and Treatment
CNS tumours can be classified into different types, with glioma and metastatic disease accounting for 60% of cases, followed by meningioma at 20%, and pituitary lesions at 10%. In paediatric practice, medulloblastomas used to be the most common lesions, but astrocytomas now make up the majority. The location of the tumour can affect the onset of symptoms, with those in the speech and visual areas producing early symptoms, while those in the right temporal and frontal lobe may reach considerable size before becoming symptomatic.
Diagnosis of CNS tumours is best done through MRI scanning, which provides the best resolution. Treatment usually involves surgery, even if the tumour cannot be completely resected. Tumour debulking can address conditions such as rising ICP and prolong survival and quality of life. Curative surgery is possible for lesions such as meningiomas, but gliomas have a marked propensity to invade normal brain tissue, making complete resection nearly impossible.
Overall, understanding the types, diagnosis, and treatment of CNS tumours is crucial in managing these conditions and improving patient outcomes. With the right approach, patients can receive timely and effective treatment that addresses their symptoms and improves their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are developing a research project investigating the pathophysiology of abetalipoproteinemia. You determine that a viable focus would be the rate-limiting enzyme involved in lipogenesis.
Which enzyme will be the target of your investigation?Your Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase
Correct Answer: Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Explanation:The enzyme that limits the rate of lipogenesis is acetyl CoA carboxylase.
During lipogenesis, fatty acids are produced from acetyl-CoA. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is the enzyme that controls the rate of this process.
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of the urea cycle.
Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a poor prognosis?
Your Answer: Hb 8.7g/dl
Correct Answer: Glucose 15.8mmol/l
Explanation:The Glasgow Prognostic Score is a useful tool for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis. If three or more of the following criteria are present within the first 48 hours, it is likely that the patient is experiencing severe pancreatitis and should be referred to the High Dependency Unit or Intensive Care Unit. Conversely, if the score is less than three, severe pancreatitis is unlikely. The criteria include: age over 55 years, white blood cell count over 15 x 109/L, urea over 16 mmol/L, glucose over 10 mmol/L, pO2 less than 8 kPa (60 mm Hg), albumin less than 32 g/L, calcium less than 2 mmol/L, LDH over 600 units/L, and AST/ALT over 200 units. Based on these criteria, the only option that meets the threshold for severe pancreatitis is a glucose level of 15.8 mmol/L.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and shortness of breath for the past 4 days. The child has poor appetite and has not received any vaccinations. Upon examination, the child is febrile, tachypnoeic, and tachycardic with nasal flaring and subcostal retractions. Bilateral crepitations are heard on auscultation, and there is decreased air entry bilaterally. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 94%. Sputum culture reveals Gram-negative bacilli that did not grow on blood agar but grew on chocolate agar. What is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Moraxella catarrhalis
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
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- General Principles
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