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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits

      Explanation:

      Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit. She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain). She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country. On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min. Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation. What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination.

      Explanation:

      In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.

      The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.

      If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.

      Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.

      If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.

      If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Herpes Simplex is which type of virus ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes Simplex is which type of virus

      Your Answer: single stranded DNA

      Correct Answer: double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Where is Glucagon produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is Glucagon produced?

      Your Answer: Islet alpha cells

      Explanation:

      The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production and secretion of glucagon. The B cells secrete insulin, the D cells secrete somatostatin, and the F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide. The B cells, which are the most common and account for 60–75% of the cells in the islets, are generally located in the centre of each islet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound? ...

    Incorrect

    • What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 7.5 MHz

      Correct Answer: 3.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt. On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring. Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Reassure and discharge home

      Correct Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      850.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the incubation period for Varicella Zoster infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period for Varicella Zoster infection?

      Your Answer: 2-3 days

      Correct Answer: 10-21 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of varicella is 10-21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?

      Your Answer: Retained product

      Correct Answer: DIC

      Explanation:

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came for the advice about contraception. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: She can use COCP

      Explanation:

      There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Coffee consumption

      Correct Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A low APGAR score at one minute: ...

    Correct

    • A low APGAR score at one minute:

      Your Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42 year old woman in early pregnancy is rushed to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old woman in early pregnancy is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. What percentage of women her age have miscarriages?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C. She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma

      Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of...

    Correct

    • If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of the menstrual cycle and examined under the microscope, what kind of findings would be observed?

      Your Answer: A fern pattern characteristic of oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Fern test looks for a specific fern like pattern of cervical mucus when observed under light microscope after the sample is dried. It occurs due to the presence of sodium chloride under oestrogen influence whereas progesterone opposes it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has...

    Correct

    • A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 1 gene is 70% and of ovarian cancer is 40%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long? ...

    Incorrect

    • Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

      Your Answer: 21-28 days

      Correct Answer: 2-3 days

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin can also stimulate after pains that occur 2-3 following delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?

      Your Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Chorioamnionitis occurs due to prolong rupture of the fetal membranes. It is most commonly caused by B streptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance ...

    Correct

    • Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance

      Your Answer: Autosomal Dominant

      Explanation:

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) can either be autosomal dominant or recessive. The autosomal dominant variant is more common in adult PKD however, the recessive pattern is more common in infantile PKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      As B-HCG and TSH have similar structures, increased B-HCG can lead to hyperthyroidism, however there is only a 3% chance of this happening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Inguinal Canal
      – Anterior wall: formed by the external oblique aponeurosis throughout the length of the canal; its lateral part is reinforced by muscle fibres of the internal oblique.
      – Posterior wall: formed by the transversalis fascia; its medial part is reinforced by pubic attachments of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis aponeuroses that frequently merge to variable extents into a common tendon—the inguinal falx (conjoint tendon)—and the reflected inguinal ligament.
      – Roof: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, centrally by musculo-aponeurotic arches of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis, and medially by the medial crus of the external oblique aponeurosis.
      – Floor: formed laterally by the iliopubic tract, centrally by gutter formed by the infolded inguinal ligament, and medially by the lacunar ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women. It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia. Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department.Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days.Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min.Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. On systemic examination: Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally. Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. Laboratory results are as follows: a) Complete blood count shows - Hematocrit: 33%, - Platelets: 140,000/mm3, - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3. b) Serum chemistry - Sodium: 124 mmol/L, - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L, - Chloride: 96 mmol/L, - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L, - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L, - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L, - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L. Urinalysis - Protein: none, - Ketones: present. CT scan of the head is normal. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient has returned to your clinic. She presented with painful periods 18...

    Correct

    • A patient has returned to your clinic. She presented with painful periods 18 months earlier and laparoscopy confirmed endometriosis. She now gets pain on opening her bowels as well as low back pain. What structure is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain during menstrual periods and lower back or leg pain are associated with endometriosis in the uterosacral ligaments. Endometriosis can cause diarrhoea and IBS type symptoms. Note Endometriosis on the uterosacral ligament can cause tender nodules to form. These can be palpated during pelvic exam. Tender nodules are specific to endometriosis of the uterosacral ligament so if the question mentions feeling a tender nodule during PV exam think endometriosis of the Uterosacral ligaments!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva. She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins. She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies. What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?

      Your Answer: Injection of sclerosing solution into the affected veins.

      Correct Answer: Use of pressure stockings and a vulva pad.

      Explanation:

      The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.

      In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.

      Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.

      Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,

      Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.

      Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - At what stage of gestation does fetal immunoglobulin M production begin? ...

    Correct

    • At what stage of gestation does fetal immunoglobulin M production begin?

      Your Answer: Week 10

      Explanation:

      Maternofetal IgG transfer starts around week 12. Fetal production IgM starts around week 10 to 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test. From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria

      The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.

      Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.

      At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the emergency room. She claims that it is around the time that she usually has her period. She has previously experienced defecation discomfort, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. The patient claims that she has previously experienced similar symptoms, but that the agony has suddenly become unbearable. Her abdomen is soft, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound soreness, according to her physical examination. There is no costovertebral discomfort and the patient does not guard. Blood in the posterior vaginal vault, a closed os, and no palpable masses or cervical motion pain are all findings on her pelvic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavity. Approximately 30-40% of women with endometriosis will be sub fertile. About one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:
      – Dysmenorrhea
      – Heavy or irregular bleeding
      – Pelvic pain
      – Lower abdominal or back pain
      – Dyspareunia
      – Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation
      – Bloating, nausea, and vomiting
      – Inguinal pain
      – Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency
      – Pain during exercise

      Pregnancy, appendicitis, ureteral colic and ruptured ectopic pregnancy all do not present with dysmenorrhea, pain on defecation and dyspareunia. Presence of a non tender, soft abdomen also rules out these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      37.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (3/7) 43%
Gynaecology (3/4) 75%
Microbiology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Data Interpretation (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Management (2/5) 40%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed