00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

      Your Answer: 5:01

      Correct Answer: 30:02:00

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      193.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment

      Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      196.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Correct Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man presents with persistent atrial fibrillation. He has a past medical...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with persistent atrial fibrillation. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, both of which are being treated with oral agents. He has no contraindications to any antithrombotic treatments and has come to discuss his risk of stroke and the need for antithrombotic treatment. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered in this case?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Atrial Fibrillation Treatment

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a validated scoring system used by clinicians to determine the most appropriate antithrombotic treatment for patients with atrial fibrillation. It takes into account various risk factors, including congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes mellitus, prior stroke or TIA, vascular disease, and sex category. Patients scoring two or more should be considered for warfarinisation, provided there are no contraindications.

      In this case, the patient scores one point for hypertension and one point for diabetes, making him eligible for warfarinisation. However, it is also important to assess his bleeding risk using the HAS BLED score, as newer anticoagulants like Dabigatran and rivoroxiban may be more appropriate. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is recommended over the CHADS2 score, as it provides a more detailed assessment of risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      317.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins. These have been present for a few years and do not cause any discomfort, but she is unhappy with their appearance.

      Upon examination, there are no skin changes, leg ulcers, or signs of thrombophlebitis.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD

      Explanation:

      Conservative Management of Varicose Veins

      Conservative management is recommended for patients with asymptomatic varicose veins, meaning those that are not causing pain, skin changes, or ulcers. This approach includes lifestyle changes such as weight loss, light/moderate physical activity, leg elevation, and avoiding prolonged standing. Compression stockings are also recommended to alleviate symptoms.

      There is no medication available for varicose veins, and ultrasound is not necessary in the absence of thrombosis. Referral to secondary care may be necessary based on local guidelines, particularly if the patient is experiencing discomfort, swelling, heaviness, or itching, or if skin changes such as eczema are present due to chronic venous insufficiency. Urgent referral is required for venous leg ulcers and superficial vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      194.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of increasing dyspnoea with strenuous exercise. She has also had occasional chest pain on exertion.
      On examination, she has an ejection systolic murmur. Following an examination and electrocardiogram (ECG) in primary care, she is referred for a cardiology review and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is diagnosed.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate screening method for her sister?

      Your Answer: Genetic screening

      Correct Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Methods and Limitations

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic heart condition that can lead to sudden death, especially in young athletes. Diagnosis of HCM is based on the demonstration of unexplained myocardial hypertrophy, which can be detected using two-dimensional echocardiography. However, the criteria for diagnosis vary depending on the patient’s size and family history. Genetic screening is not always reliable, as mutations are only found in 60% of patients. An abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) is common but nonspecific, while exercise testing and ventilation-perfusion scans have limited diagnostic value. It is important to consider the limitations of these methods when evaluating patients with suspected HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      95.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is being evaluated. What type of antithrombotic treatment is he expected to be receiving?

      Your Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For patients with prosthetic heart valves, antithrombotic therapy varies depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically require aspirin, while mechanical valves require a combination of warfarin and aspirin.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      391.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride level of 22 mmol/L. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and all other blood tests, including HbA1c, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function, are within normal limits. There is no clear explanation for the elevated triglyceride level, and there are no prior lipid profiles available for comparison. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He reports no symptoms or feelings of illness.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for specialist assessment

      Correct Answer: Refer routinely for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition that increases the risk of pancreatitis, making prompt management crucial. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided specific guidance on how to manage this condition.

      If the triglyceride level is above 20 mmol/L and not due to alcohol excess or poor glycaemic control, urgent referral to a lipid clinic is necessary. For levels between 10 mmol/L and 20 mmol/L, a fasting sample should be repeated no sooner than 5 days and no longer than 2 weeks later. If the level remains above 10 mmol/L, secondary causes of hypertriglyceridaemia should be considered, and specialist advice should be sought.

      For those with a triglyceride level between 4.5 and 9.9 mmol/L, clinicians should consider that cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk may be underestimated using risk assessment tools such as QRISK. They should optimize the management of other CVD risk factors, and specialist advice should be sought if the non-HDL cholesterol level is above 7.5 mmol/L.

      In summary, the management of hypertriglyceridaemia requires careful consideration of the triglyceride level and other risk factors. Early referral to a lipid clinic and specialist advice can help prevent complications such as pancreatitis and reduce the risk of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      240.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.

      While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.

      To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.

      In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      184.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling his heart skip a beat regularly but denies any other symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, chest pain, or fainting.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral edema. His blood pressure is 126/64 mmHg and his ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves and a heart rate of 82/min.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessment using ORBIT bleeding risk tool and CHA2DS2-VASc tool

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct an assessment using both the CHA2DS2-VASc tool and the ORBIT bleeding risk tool. This applies to all patients with atrial fibrillation, according to current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, the option to commence on apixaban and bisoprolol is not correct.

      The patient’s symptoms and ECG findings indicate atrial fibrillation, but there is no indication for a 24-hour ECG. Therefore, referral for a 24-hour ECG and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not necessary.

      As there are no signs or symptoms of heart failure and no evidence of valvular heart disease on examination, referral for an echocardiogram and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not the appropriate option.

      The patient is currently haemodynamically stable.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
    You saw her several weeks ago with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
      You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old brother. He denies experiencing any specific symptoms. His blood pressure is 132/88 and heart rate 90 and regular. His cardiovascular system examination is unremarkable. An ECG reveals left bundle branch block and a chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly.
      What is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiomyopathy: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Cardiomyopathy is a chronic disease that affects the heart muscle, causing it to become enlarged, thickened, or stiffened. This condition can range from being asymptomatic to causing heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of cardiomyopathy.

      Causes of Cardiomyopathy
      Cardiomyopathy can be caused by a variety of factors, including coronary heart disease, hypertension, valvular disease, and congenital heart disease. It can also be caused by secondary factors such as ischaemia, alcohol abuse, toxins, infections, thyroid disorders, and valvular disease. In some cases, cardiomyopathy may be familial or genetic.

      Symptoms of Cardiomyopathy
      Most cases of cardiomyopathy present as congestive heart failure with symptoms such as dyspnoea, weakness, fatigue, oedema, raised JVP, pulmonary congestion, cardiomegaly, and a loud 3rd and/or 4th heart sound. However, some cases may remain asymptomatic for a long time.

      Diagnosis of Cardiomyopathy
      Diagnosis of cardiomyopathy usually involves an electrocardiogram (ECG) which may show sinus tachycardia, intraventricular conduction delay, left bundle branch block, or nonspecific changes in ST and T waves. Other diagnostic tests may include echocardiography, cardiac MRI, and cardiac catheterization.

      Conclusion
      Cardiomyopathy is a serious condition that can lead to heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of this condition in order to manage it effectively. If you suspect that you or a loved one may have cardiomyopathy, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman presents to you for a follow-up blood pressure check. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to you for a follow-up blood pressure check. She has been evaluated by two other physicians in the past three months, with readings of 140/90 mmHg and 148/86 mmHg. Her current blood pressure is 142/84 mmHg. She has no familial history of hypertension, her BMI is 23, and she is a non-smoker. Based on the most recent NICE recommendations, what is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check ECG and blood tests and see her again in a month with the results

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension Diagnosis and Management

      Hypertension is a common condition that requires careful diagnosis and management. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), ambulatory or home blood pressure should be checked if a patient has a blood pressure equal to or greater than 140/90 mmHg. If the systolic reading is above 140 mmHg, it is considered a sign of hypertension.

      The guidelines also state that lifestyle advice should be given to all patients, and drug treatment should be considered if there are signs of end organ damage or if the patient’s CVD risk is greater than 10% in 10 years. For patients under 40 years old, referral to a specialist should be considered.

      It is important to note that NICE guidance is not the only source of information on hypertension diagnosis and management. While it is important to have an awareness of the latest guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.

      In summary, understanding the diagnosis and management of hypertension is crucial for general practitioners. The 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension provides important information on thresholds for diagnosis and management, but it is important to consider other sources of information as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

    Investigations:

    Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

    TSH...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

      Investigations:

      Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)

      She is taking medication for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

      Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests. This can result in both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism may be caused by thyroiditis or the donation of iodine, as amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine.

      Aside from thyroid issues, amiodarone can also lead to other side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests regularly when taking amiodarone and to report any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction to a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.

      During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.

      What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man undergoes an abdominal ultrasound as part of investigations for persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man undergoes an abdominal ultrasound as part of investigations for persistent mildly abnormal liver function tests. The liver appears normal but he is found to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elective repair of an aneurysm has a significant mortality risk

      Explanation:

      Unruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often goes unnoticed due to the lack of symptoms. It is usually discovered incidentally during abdominal examinations or scans. However, bimanual palpation of the supra-umbilical region can detect a significant number of aneurysms. While most patients do not experience any pain, severe lumbar pain may indicate an impending rupture. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, with an annual rupture rate of 0.5-1.5% for aneurysms between 4.0 and 5.5 cm, and 5-15% for those between 5.5 and 6.0 cm.

      The natural history of a small AAA is gradual expansion, with an annual rate of approximately 10% of the initial arterial diameter. The mortality rate from a ruptured AAA is high, at 80%. However, elective repair can significantly reduce the risk of rupture. The overall mortality rate for elective repair in the UK is 2.4%, with a lower mortality rate for endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) than open surgery.

      It is important for drivers to notify the DVLA of any AAA, as it may affect their ability to drive. Group 1 drivers should notify the DVLA of an aneurysm >6 cm, while >6.5 cm would disqualify them from driving. Group 2 drivers should notify the DVLA of an aneurysm of any size, and an aortic diameter >5.5 cm would disqualify them from driving.

      In conclusion, while most patients with unruptured AAA do not experience any symptoms, it is important to be aware of the risks and treatment options. Early detection and elective repair can significantly reduce the risk of rupture and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual blood test at work. He is otherwise well with no symptoms reported.

      He was found to have a serum phosphate of 0.7.
      Other tests done include FBC, U+Es, LFTs, Calcium and PTH which were all normal.
      Serum phosphate normal range (0-8-1.4 mmol/L)

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound neck

      Explanation:

      Management of Mild Hypophosphataemia

      In cases of mild hypophosphataemia, monitoring is often sufficient. It may be helpful to check vitamin D levels as it can affect phosphate uptake and renal excretion, along with parathyroid hormone (PTH). If there is a concurrent low magnesium level, it may indicate dietary deficiencies.

      An ultrasound of the neck is not necessary unless there are signs of enlarged parathyroid glands. Oral phosphate is typically reserved for preventing refeeding syndrome in cases of anorexia, starvation, or alcoholism. Mild hypophosphataemia usually resolves on its own.

      Parenteral phosphate may be considered in acute situations but requires inpatient monitoring of calcium, phosphate, and other electrolytes. Referral should only be considered if the patient is symptomatic, has short stature or skeletal deformities consistent with rickets, or if the hypophosphataemia is chronic or severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man has a QRISK2 score of 14% and decides to start...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has a QRISK2 score of 14% and decides to start taking atorvastatin 20 mg after discussing the benefits and risks with his doctor. His cholesterol levels are as follows:

      Total cholesterol: 5.6 mmol/l
      HDL cholesterol: 1.0 mmol/l
      LDL cholesterol: 3.4 mmol/l
      Triglyceride: 1.7 mmol/l

      When should he schedule a follow-up cholesterol test to assess the effectiveness of the statin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a check-up. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a check-up. He is taking warfarin for a mechanical aortic valve and has a history of trigeminal neuralgia, depression, and COPD. During an INR check, his INR is found to be subtherapeutic at 1.5. Which drug is most likely to cause a decrease in his INR if co-prescribed with warfarin therapy? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Interactions with Warfarin: Understanding the Effects of Carbamazepine, Alcohol, Clarithromycin, Prednisolone, and Sertraline

      Warfarin is a commonly prescribed anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety. However, several factors can interact with warfarin and affect its metabolism and anticoagulant effect. Here are some examples:

      Carbamazepine is a medication used to manage trigeminal neuralgia, but it is also a hepatic enzyme inducer. This means that it can accelerate the metabolism of warfarin, leading to a reduced effect and a decreased international normalized ratio (INR).

      Alcohol consumption can enhance the effects of warfarin, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, patients on warfarin should avoid heavy drinking or binge drinking.

      Clarithromycin is an antibiotic that may be prescribed for a COPD exacerbation. However, it is associated with reduced warfarin metabolism and enhanced anticoagulant effect, which can lead to a raised INR.

      Prednisolone is a steroid medication that may also be prescribed for a COPD exacerbation. It is associated with an enhanced anticoagulant effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.

      Sertraline is an antidepressant medication that belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class. SSRIs have an antiplatelet effect, which can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.

      In summary, understanding the interactions between warfarin and other medications or substances is crucial for managing its anticoagulant effect and preventing adverse events. Patients on warfarin should always inform their healthcare providers of any new medications or supplements they are taking to avoid potential interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 59-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his medication for hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his medication for hypertension. He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and immediate-release indapamide 1.5 mg daily. Despite tolerating this treatment without any side-effects, his clinic blood pressure remains high at an average of 155/100 mmHg. The patient has no adverse lifestyle factors and a family history of hypertension and stroke. Secondary causes for hypertension have been ruled out, and routine blood tests including renal function, electrolytes, lipids, and glucose are all normal. His serum potassium level is 4.7 mmol/l (normal range 3.5-5.5 mmol/l). What is the most appropriate modification to this patient's treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase indapamide to 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for resistant hypertension

      Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals make informed decisions. In step 4 of the guidelines, NICE recommends a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and diuretic therapy, with the addition of further diuretic or alpha or beta blocker if necessary.

      If further diuretic therapy is required, NICE suggests a higher-dose thiazide-like diuretic or spironolactone, depending on the patient’s serum potassium level. However, if spironolactone is not licensed for use or not tolerated, increasing the dose of indapamide is a suitable alternative. It’s important to note that the maximum dose of modified-release indapamide is 1.5mg daily.

      If further diuretic therapy is not tolerated or contraindicated, NICE recommends considering an alpha or beta blocker. In cases of resistant hypertension, seeking expert advice may also be beneficial. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective treatment options for patients with resistant hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diltiazem

      Explanation:

      Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon and is struggling to manage the symptoms during the colder months. He asks if there are any medications that could help alleviate his condition.
      Which of the following drugs has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness in improving this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to reduced blood flow and pain. The most commonly used drug for treatment is nifedipine, which causes vasodilatation and reduces the number and severity of attacks. However, patients may experience side-effects such as hypotension, flushing, headache, and tachycardia.

      For those who cannot tolerate nifedipine, other agents such as nicardipine, amlodipine, or diltiazem can be tried. Limited evidence suggests that angiotensin receptor-blockers, fluoxetine, and topical nitrates may also provide some benefit. However, there is no evidence to support the use of antiplatelet agents.

      In secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, management of the underlying cause may help alleviate symptoms. Treatment options are similar to primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, with the addition of the prostacyclin analogue iloprost, which has shown to be effective in systemic sclerosis.

      Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon aim to improve blood flow and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents at the GP practice with increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at the GP practice with increasing shortness of breath (SOB). She experiences SOB on exertion and when lying down at night. Her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. She is an ex-smoker and is not taking any regular medication. During examination, she appears comfortable at rest, heart sounds are normal, and there are bibasal crackles. She has pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally. Observations reveal a pulse of 89 bpm, oxygen saturations of 96%, respiratory rate of 12/min, and blood pressure of 192/128 mmHg.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for acute medical admission

      Explanation:

      If the patient has a new BP reading of 180/120 mmHg or higher and is experiencing new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury, they should be admitted for specialist assessment. This is the correct course of action for this patient, as she has a BP reading above 180/120 mmHg and is showing signs of heart failure. Other indications for admission with a BP reading above 180/120 mmHg include new-onset confusion, chest pain, or acute kidney injury.

      Arranging an outpatient echocardiogram and chest x-ray is not the appropriate action for this patient. While these investigations may be necessary, the patient should be admitted for specialized assessment to avoid any unnecessary delays.

      Commencing a long-acting bronchodilator (LABA) is not the correct course of action for this patient. While COPD may be a differential diagnosis, the signs of heart failure and new hypertension require a referral for acute medical assessment.

      Commencing furosemide is not the appropriate action for this patient. While it may improve her symptoms, it will not address the underlying cause of her heart failure. Therefore, she requires further investigation and treatment, most appropriately with an acute medical admission.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statins

      Explanation:

      Lipid Management in Primary Care

      Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.

      Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident....

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from a nursing home about a 90-year-old male resident. The staff are worried about his increasing unsteadiness on his feet in the past few months, which has led to several near-falls. They are also concerned that his DOAC medication puts him at risk of a bleed if he falls and hits his head.

      His current medications include amlodipine, ramipril, edoxaban, and alendronic acid.

      What steps should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calculate her ORBIT score

      Explanation:

      It is not enough to withhold anticoagulation solely based on the risk of falls or old age. To determine the risk of stroke or bleeding in atrial fibrillation, objective measures such as the CHA2DS2-VASc and ORBIT scores should be used. The ORBIT score, rather than HAS-BLED, is now recommended by NICE for assessing bleeding risk. A history of falls doesn’t factor into the ORBIT score, but age does. Limiting the patient’s mobility by suggesting she only mobilizes with staff is impractical. There is no rationale for switching the edoxaban to an antiplatelet agent, as antiplatelets are not typically used in atrial fibrillation management unless there is a specific indication. Stopping edoxaban without calculating the appropriate scores could leave the patient at a high risk of stroke.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up appointment. She recently experienced a transient ischemic attack and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide for hypertension. Her blood pressure at the appointment is 130/80 mmHg. As you discuss management options to decrease her risk of future strokes, what is her CHA2DS2-VASc score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and syncopal attacks. He reports that a few of these episodes have occurred while he was getting dressed for church, putting on his shirt and tie; others have happened while he was out shopping, and one at the church itself. He explains that sometimes he doesn't actually lose consciousness, but just feels extremely dizzy, and on other occasions he passes out completely.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, and dyslipidaemia, for which he takes 10 mg of atorvastatin. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/88, his pulse is 65 and regular, and his heart sounds are normal. His chest is clear.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L (135-180), a white cell count of 4.9 ×109/L (4-10), platelets of 222 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 139 mmol/L (134-143), potassium of 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 139 μmol/L (60-120). His ECG shows sinus rhythm with an inferior lead Q wave (lead III only), and a 72-hour ECG doesn't identify any significant rhythm disturbance.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sick sinus syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carotid Sinus Hypersensitivity and Differential Diagnosis

      The history of syncope during dressing for church, particularly when putting on a collared shirt, may suggest the possibility of carotid sinus hypersensitivity. To diagnose this condition, a tilt table test is the optimal method, but it is important to exclude significant carotid artery stenosis before performing carotid sinus massage. In patients with bradycardia carotid sinus hypersensitivity, cardiac pacing is the preferred treatment.

      Ménière’s disease is unlikely to be the cause of syncope in this case, as it typically presents with a triad of dizziness, deafness, and tinnitus. Sick sinus syndrome is also less likely, as it often manifests with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, and alternating bradycardia and tachycardia. However, a Q wave in one inferior lead (III) may be a normal finding.

      In summary, when evaluating syncope, it is important to consider carotid sinus hypersensitivity as a potential cause and to differentiate it from other conditions such as Ménière’s disease and sick sinus syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy

      NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check. She is a non-smoker, drinks 14 units of alcohol per week, is physically fit, active, and enjoys regular moderate exercise and a balanced diet. Her BMI is 26.8 kg/m2. Her average BP measured by home monitoring for 7 days is 160/95.
      What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Hypertension

      Patients diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of >150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension) should be offered drug therapy. For patients younger than 55 years, an ACE inhibitor is recommended as the first-line treatment. However, patients over the age of 55 and black patients of any age should initially be treated with a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide diuretic. These recommendations aim to provide effective treatment options for patients with hypertension based on their age and race.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acebutolol

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Treatment Options

      According to the 2010 update by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), there are several medications that are indicated for the treatment of heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, and nebivolol. These drugs are commonly used to manage heart failure symptoms and improve overall heart function. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of heart failure. With proper medication management, individuals with heart failure can experience improved quality of life and better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old man presents as a new patient at your clinic for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents as a new patient at your clinic for his first appointment. He has had no major health issues and has never been hospitalised. He mentions that his father passed away from sudden cardiac death at the age of 35, and an autopsy revealed that he had hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the likelihood that this patient has inherited the same condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The inheritance pattern of HOCM is autosomal dominant, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50 percent chance of passing on the mutated gene to their child.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 54-year-old man has come in for his annual health check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has come in for his annual health check-up. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg once daily, felodipine 10 mg once daily, and bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily. His blood pressure readings today are consistently high. Additionally, blood tests have been taken as part of the check-up. Based on this information, what would be the most suitable medication to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      To manage poorly controlled hypertension in a patient who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level of >4.5mmol/l, the appropriate medication to add would be an alpha- or beta-blocker. Bisoprolol is the correct choice in this scenario. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension alone, and indapamide is contraindicated as the patient is already taking a thiazide-like diuretic. While an ARB like losartan could replace an ACE inhibitor, it should not be used in combination with one. Spironolactone is not the appropriate choice as the patient’s potassium level is already elevated.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Prohibited Substances in Sports

      Beta-blockers and diuretics are among the substances prohibited in certain sports. In billiards and archery, the use of beta-blockers is not allowed as they can enhance performance by reducing anxiety and tremors. On the other hand, diuretics are generally prohibited as they can be used as masking agents to hide the presence of other banned substances. It is important to note that diuretics can be found in some combination products, such as Cozaar-Comp which contains hydrochlorothiazide. Athletes should be aware of the substances they are taking and ensure that they are not violating any anti-doping regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction....

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.

      For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a medication consultation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a medication consultation. She has recently suffered a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She has no other significant conditions and prior to this event was not taking medication or known to have cardiovascular disease. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg and her fasting cholesterol is 5.2 mmol/l.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to reduce the risk of further events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril, atenolol, aspirin and clopidogrel and atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Recommended Drug Treatment for Secondary Prevention of Myocardial Infarction

      The recommended drug treatment for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction (MI) includes a combination of medications. These medications include a β-blocker, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a statin, and dual antiplatelet treatment. Previously, statin treatment was only offered to patients with a cholesterol level of > 5 mmol/l. However, it has been shown that all patients with coronary heart disease benefit from a reduction in total cholesterol and LDL.

      β-blockers are estimated to prevent deaths by 12/1000 treated/year, while ACE inhibitors reduce deaths by 5/1000 treated in the first month post-MI. Trials have also shown reduced long-term mortality for all patients. Aspirin should be given indefinitely, and clopidogrel should be given for up to 12 months.

      In summary, the recommended drug treatment for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction includes a combination of medications that have been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is important for patients to continue taking these medications as prescribed by their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 41-year-old man is worried about his risk of heart disease due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man is worried about his risk of heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away at the age of 45 from a heart attack. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:

      HDL 1.4 mmol/l
      LDL 5.7 mmol/l
      Triglycerides 2.3 mmol/l
      Total cholesterol 8.2 mmol/l

      Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old female with no prior medical history presents with a left-sided hemiparesis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female with no prior medical history presents with a left-sided hemiparesis and is found to be in atrial fibrillation. Imaging reveals a cerebral infarction. What anticoagulation approach would be most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin started immediately switching to Lifelong warfarin after 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke

      Atrial fibrillation is a major risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a patient with atrial fibrillation for rhythm control (cardioversion) if they were elderly.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Longstanding atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation: NICE Guidelines and Considerations

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends referral to a cardiologist for rhythm-control treatment (cardioversion) in certain cases of atrial fibrillation. These include atrial fibrillation with a reversible cause, heart failure primarily caused or worsened by atrial fibrillation, and new-onset atrial fibrillation. If onset is known to be within 48 hours, referral to an acute medical unit is recommended for immediate cardioversion without anticoagulation treatment. Pharmacological cardioversion is often used as a first-line therapy, with electrical cardioversion reserved for non-responders. However, cardioversion may be less successful or not recommended in cases of long-standing atrial fibrillation, significant valve problems, cardiomegaly, or multiple recurrences of atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril and bisoprolol upon discharge. After a month, he experiences some muscle aches and undergoes routine blood tests at the clinic. His serum creatine kinase (CK) activity is found to be 650 u/l (normal range 30–300 u/l). What is the probable reason for the elevated CK levels in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Effect of statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Elevated CK Levels in a Post-MI Patient on Statin Therapy

      When a patient complains of symptoms while on statin therapy, it is reasonable to check their CK levels. An elevated level suggests statin-induced myopathy, and the statin should be discontinued. However, if the patient doesn’t complain of further chest pain suggestive of another MI, CK is no longer routinely measured as a cardiac marker. Heavy exercise should also be avoided, and CK levels usually return to baseline within 72 hours post-MI. While undiagnosed hypothyroidism can cause a rise in CK, it is less likely than statin-induced myopathy, and other clinical features of hypothyroidism are not mentioned in the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.

      What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has recently been discharged from hospital after an episode of non-ST-elevation acute coronary syndrome. She has no other significant medical conditions.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate antiplatelet therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel 75 mg od in combination with aspirin 75 mg od for 12 months, then aspirin 75 mg od alone

      Explanation:

      Antiplatelet Therapy for Non-ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndrome

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends dual therapy with aspirin and other antiplatelet for 12 months, followed by aspirin alone, for antiplatelet therapy after a non-ST-elevation acute coronary syndrome. However, the use of clopidogrel with aspirin increases the risk of bleeding, and there is no evidence of benefit beyond 12 months of the last event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 6 months

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower legs while running. The pain gradually intensifies after a brief period of running, causing him to stop. However, the pain quickly subsides when he is at rest. Upon examination, there are no abnormal findings, and his peripheral pulses are all palpable. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter's disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome

      Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is a condition that causes exertional leg pain due to the fascial compartment being unable to accommodate the increased volume of the muscle during exercise. It is often mistaken for peripheral arterial disease.

      If you experience exertional leg pain with tenderness over the middle of the muscle compartment but no bony tenderness, it may be a sign of CECS. This condition should be suspected when there is no evidence of tibial tuberosity pain, which is common in Osgood-Schlatter’s disease.

      Referral for pre- and post-exertional pressure testing may be necessary, and if conservative measures are unsuccessful, a fasciotomy may be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who has been undergoing BP monitoring with the health-care assistant. The health care assistant has arranged the appointment as her readings have been consistently around 150/90 mmHg. Upon reviewing her records, you see that she was prescribed amlodipine due to her Irish ethnicity, and she is taking 10 mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20 mg. The health care assistant has noted in the record that the patient confirms she takes her medications as directed.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is the next step in managing hypertension in Mrs. O'Brien, taking into account her ethnic background?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin who are taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and require a second medication, it is recommended to consider an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. An alpha-blocker is typically not a first-line option, while spironolactone may be considered as a fourth-line option. However, the 2019 update to the NICE guidelines on hypertension recommends an ARB as the preferred choice for this patient population.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a past medical history of hypertension, migraine, and obesity (BMI is 38). Currently, he takes metformin 1 g BD and ramipril 5 mg OD for blood pressure control. His latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol, and his total cholesterol is 5.2 with an LDL cholesterol of 3.5. His QRisk2 score is 21%.

      During the consultation, you discuss the addition of lipid-lowering medication to reduce his cardiovascular risk, especially in light of his recently treated hypertension. You both agree that starting him on Atorvastatin 20 mg at night is an appropriate treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      Before prescribing the medication, you review his latest blood results, which show normal full blood count, renal function, and thyroid function. However, his liver function tests reveal an ALT of 106 IU/L (<60) and an ALP of 169 IU/L (20-200). Bilirubin levels are within normal limits.

      Upon further investigation, you discover that the ALT rise has persisted since his first blood tests at the surgery over four years ago. However, the liver function results have remained stable over this time, showing no significant variation from the current values. A liver ultrasound done two years ago reports some evidence of fatty infiltration only.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte can be initiated and repeat liver function tests should be performed within the first three months of use

      Explanation:

      Liver Function and Statin Therapy

      Liver function should be assessed before starting statin therapy. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can be used. It is important to repeat liver function tests within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months, as well as if a dose increase is made or if clinically indicated.

      In the case of a modest ALT elevation due to fatty deposition in the liver, statin therapy can still be beneficial for primary prevention, especially if the patient’s Qrisk2 score is over 10%. Mild derangement in liver function is not uncommon in overweight type 2 diabetics. The patient can be treated with the usual NICE-guided primary prevention dose of atorvastatin, which is 20 mg nocte. A higher dose or alternative statin may be required in the future, depending on the patient’s response to the initial treatment and lifestyle modifications. The slight ALT rise doesn’t necessarily require a lower statin dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
      What other finding are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Variable S1

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.

      Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing for the past few weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Initially, she thought it was just a cold, but now she has noticed swelling in her feet. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds in both lungs, a third heart sound, and a displaced point of maximum impulse.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Cardiomyopathy and Recent Travel History

      Cardiomyopathy is a myocardial disorder that can range from asymptomatic to life-threatening. It is important to consider this diagnosis in young patients presenting with heart failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism. While recent travel history may be relevant to other potential diagnoses, such as atypical pneumonia or thromboembolism, neither of these fully fit the patient’s history and examination. Rheumatic heart disease, pericarditis, and pulmonary embolus can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. The underlying cause and type of cardiomyopathy in this case are unknown but could be multiple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon conducting an ECG, it is revealed that she has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication should be prescribed to manage her heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.

      On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
      Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
      Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block

      Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:

      Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.

      Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.

      Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.

      Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.

      Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.

      By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a blood clot 3 weeks ago but has been recovering well. However, the patient had to discontinue taking clopidogrel 75 mg due to severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea after switching from aspirin 300 mg daily. Since then, the symptoms have subsided.

      What would be the best medication(s) to recommend for preventing another stroke in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking aspirin or modified-release dipyridamole alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended by NICE for this purpose, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which settles spontaneously with rest. He presents to his General Practitioner, not wanting to bother the Emergency Department. On auscultation, there is a loud ejection systolic murmur. Following an electrocardiogram (ECG) he is urgently referred to cardiology and aortic stenosis is diagnosed.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following comorbid conditions is most associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Factors in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to limited blood flow and various symptoms such as dyspnea, angina, and syncope. While patients may be asymptomatic for years, the prognosis for symptomatic aortic stenosis is poor, with a 2-year survival rate of only 50%. Sudden deaths can occur due to heart failure or other complications.

      Valvular calcification and fibrosis are the primary causes of aortic stenosis, and the presence of calcification doesn’t have a direct impact on prognosis. However, mixed aortic valve disease, which includes aortic regurgitation, can increase mortality rates, particularly in severe cases.

      Left ventricular failure is a significant prognostic factor in aortic stenosis, indicating late-stage hypertrophy and fibrosis. Patients with left ventricular failure have a poor prognosis both before and after surgery. Hypertension can also impact left ventricular remodelling and accelerate the progression of aortic stenosis, but it is not as significant a prognostic factor as left ventricular failure.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as left ventricular hypertrophy, are common in patients with aortic stenosis but are not directly correlated with mortality risk. Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers better manage and treat patients with aortic stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral for urgent assessment and intervention the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apex beat 155 bpm

      Explanation:

      Urgent Admission Criteria for Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence has provided guidelines for urgent admission of patients with atrial fibrillation. These guidelines recommend urgent admission for patients who exhibit a rapid pulse greater than 150 bpm and/or low blood pressure with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg. Additionally, urgent admission is recommended for patients who experience loss of consciousness, severe dizziness, ongoing chest pain, or increasing breathlessness. Patients who have experienced a complication of atrial fibrillation, such as stroke, transient ischaemic attack, or acute heart failure, should also be urgently admitted. While other symptoms may warrant a referral, these criteria indicate the need for immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and has a 60-pack/year smoking history. His uncle and father both died in their 50s of a myocardial infarction.

      He is found to have a blood pressure of 146/92 mmHg in the clinic. He has no signs of end organ damage on examination and bloods, ACR, urine dip and ECG are normal. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is >10%. He has ambulatory monitoring which shows a blood pressure average of 138/86 mmHg.

      As per the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension for the AKT Exam

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) published in September 2019 provide important information for general practitioners on the management of hypertension. However, it is important to remember that these guidelines have attracted criticism from some clinicians for being over complicated and insufficiently evidence-based. While it is essential to have an awareness of NICE guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.

      One example of a question that may be asked in the AKT exam relates to the cut-offs for high blood pressure on ambulatory monitoring. According to the NICE guidelines, stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of 135-149/85-94 mmHg and should be treated if there is end organ damage, diabetes, or a 10-year CVD risk of 10% or more. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure equal to or greater than 150/95 mmHg and should be treated.

      In the exam, you may be asked to determine the appropriate treatment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension. The NICE guidance suggests a calcium channel blocker in patients above 55 or Afro-Caribbean. However, it is important to note that lifestyle factors are also crucial in risk reduction.

      While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to remember that the AKT exam tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is important to have a broader understanding of the subject matter and consider other guidelines and opinions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review. He has no daytime symptoms and occasionally uses his ventolin inhaler at night when suffering from a viral infection. His only other medical history is of urinary incontinence, for which he has been fully investigated, and three episodes of gout in the last five years.
      On examination, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, his heart rate 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 168/82 mmHg. Subsequent home blood pressure readings confirm isolated systolic hypertension.
      Which of the following is the single most suitable medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Systolic Hypertension: Drug Options and Considerations

      Isolated systolic hypertension, characterized by elevated systolic blood pressure and normal diastolic blood pressure, is managed similarly to systolic plus diastolic hypertension. Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, is the preferred first-line drug for treating isolated systolic hypertension in patients over 55 years old.

      Before starting any medication, a new diagnosis of hypertension should be confirmed through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home blood pressure monitoring. Additionally, an assessment for evidence of end-organ damage and 10-year cardiovascular risk should be conducted, along with a discussion about modifiable risk factors such as diet, exercise, sodium intake, alcohol consumption, caffeine, and smoking.

      Indapamide, a thiazide diuretic, is typically used as a second or third step in the treatment protocol. However, it may exacerbate gout and worsen urinary problems.

      Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, were previously recommended as second-line treatment for hypertension. However, they can cause hyperglycemia and are now at step 4 of the management plan. Beta-blockers are also contraindicated in asthma, making them unsuitable for some patients.

      Doxazosin, which is at step 4 of the hypertension management plan, may cause urinary incontinence and is not appropriate for all patients.

      Valsartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, is a first-line option for patients under 55 years old, along with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It may be added at step 2 if necessary for patients over 55 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, moderate aortic stenosis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, moderate aortic stenosis, and stage 3b chronic kidney disease presents for hypertension management. His blood pressure in the clinic is 150/90 mmHg, and he has been recording an average of 155/84 mmHg for the past month. He has previously refused antihypertensive medication due to concerns about dizziness and falls. What is the appropriate initial antihypertensive to consider in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Due to the patient’s moderate-severe aortic stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated and a calcium channel blocker should be prescribed as the first-line treatment for hypertension. Alpha-blockers may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if necessary, typically at step 4 of the guidelines when potassium levels are high. While ACE inhibitors are typically recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes to protect the kidneys, they should not be used in this patient due to their aortic stenosis. Beta-blockers are not the first-line treatment for hypertension and are better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. They may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if needed, typically at step 4 when potassium levels are high.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 44-year-old man has an irregular tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 130....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man has an irregular tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 130. He played in a football match the previous day and consumed 28 units of alcohol on the evening of the match. On examination his blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Arrhythmias and Their Characteristics

      Acute atrial fibrillation is characterized by a sudden onset within the past 48 hours and may be triggered by excessive alcohol or caffeine intake. An ECG is necessary for diagnosis. Atrial flutter is less common than atrial fibrillation and typically presents with a rapid, irregular or regular pulse with a ventricular rate of approximately 150 beats per minute. Extrasystoles are extra heartbeats that disrupt the normal rhythm of the heart and can originate from either the atria or ventricles. Sinus arrhythmia is a common occurrence in children and young adults and involves cyclic changes in heart rate during breathing. Sinus tachycardia is a physiological response to various stimuli such as fever, anxiety, pain, exercise, and hyperthyroidism, and is characterized by a regular heart rate of over 100 beats per minute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision that have been present for two days. He has been taking amlodipine 5 mg, which was prescribed at the same clinic two weeks ago. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 190/115 mmHg. Although his cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, retinal hemorrhages are observed during fundoscopy, but no papilledema is present. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent specialist care on the same day

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral to Specialist Care for Hypertension

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with accelerated hypertension or suspected phaeochromocytoma should be referred to specialist care on the same day. Accelerated hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure usually higher than 180/120 mmHg with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage. Suspected phaeochromocytoma is characterized by labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor, and diaphoresis.

      It is important to note that if a patient presents with a blood pressure higher than 180/120 mmHg, it is crucial to examine their fundi and check for the presence or absence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages. Additionally, healthcare professionals should consider the need for specialist investigations in patients with signs and symptoms suggesting a secondary cause of hypertension. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started while he was mowing the lawn but subsided after he drank a glass of cold lemonade. However, his symptoms have returned. On physical examination, his pulse is regular and measures 150 bpm. An ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with P waves linked to each QRS complex.
      What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia from Other Arrhythmias: An ECG Analysis

      AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia that causes recurrent palpitations lasting for minutes to hours. Patients may also experience chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope. The heart rate is usually between 150-250 bpm, and the rhythm is regular with narrow QRS complexes. Vagal manoeuvres can terminate the episode. However, it is essential to differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, torsades de pointes, and ventricular tachycardia. An ECG analysis can help in this regard.

      Atrial fibrillation is characterised by irregular ventricular complexes with an absence of P waves. In contrast, atrial flutter shows a saw-tooth pattern with the absence of P waves. Torsades de pointes is a rare form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that causes a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. It is associated with a prolonged QT interval. Ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, is characterised by broad complexes on ECG.

      In conclusion, an ECG analysis is crucial in differentiating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias. It helps in providing accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment to the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short-acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension

      Explanation:

      The BNF cautions that the use of short-acting versions of nifedipine can result in significant fluctuations in blood pressure and trigger reflex tachycardia.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A national screening programme exists in the UK for abdominal aortic aneurysms.
      Select the single correct statement regarding this process.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening all men at 65 is estimated to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50%

      Explanation:

      National Screening Programme for Aortic Aneurysm in Men at 65

      The National Screening Programme aims to reduce the rate of premature death from ruptured aortic aneurysm by 50% by screening all men in their 65th year. The prevalence of significant aneurysm in this age group is 4%. Screening will be done through ultrasound, and those without significant aneurysms will be discharged. For those with aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter, surgery will be offered to 0.5% of men. Those with small aneurysms will enter a follow-up programme. However, the mortality from elective surgery is 5-7%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is 55%. She has been experiencing orthopnoea and ankle swelling. The cardiology team has referred her to you for medication initiation.

      During the assessment, her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and heart rate 82/min.

      What should be the initial consideration in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is the appropriate choice for managing symptoms in individuals with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction using loop diuretics. Spironolactone is not recommended for this purpose. In cases of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists should be considered along with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker if symptoms persist.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 54-year-old man has scheduled a meeting to discuss his struggles with poor...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has scheduled a meeting to discuss his struggles with poor concentration and feeling sleepy while working. He works as a truck driver and frequently has to operate heavy machinery. His spouse has noticed that he experiences brief pauses in breathing while sleeping at night and occasionally makes choking sounds.

      The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His Epworth sleepiness scale score is 16.

      Considering his condition, what is the best course of action for the patient to take regarding operating heavy machinery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is required to inform the DVLA and stop driving

      Explanation:

      If a person has mild, moderate, or severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) that causes excessive daytime sleepiness, they must inform the Driver Vehicle and Licensing Agency (DVLA). Excessive sleepiness refers to sleepiness that can negatively impact driving. The severity of OSA is determined by the number of apnoea/hypopnoea episodes per hour (apnoea-hypopnoea index [AHI]). Mild OSA is defined as an AHI of 5-14 per hour, moderate OSA is an AHI of 15-30 per hour, and severe OSA is an AHI of more than 30 per hour. If a person is diagnosed with OSA and experiences enough sleepiness to impair driving, they must inform the DVLA and stop driving. In this case, there is no need to retake a driving assessment, and the GP will not inform the DVLA initially. However, if the patient fails to inform the DVLA after multiple reminders and being informed that the GP may break confidentiality, the GP will inform the DVLA. If a person is being investigated for or has a diagnosis of OSA but doesn’t experience daytime sleepiness severe enough to impair driving, they do not need to inform the DVLA or stop driving. If a person is successfully using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or an intra-oral device and their symptoms are controlled to the point where they no longer impair driving, they should inform the DVLA but do not need to stop driving.

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of his medication as advised by cardiology. He suffered an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) four weeks ago. His history reveals that he is a smoker (20 per day for 30 years) and works in a sedentary office job, where he often works long days and eats ready meals to save time with food preparation.
      On examination, his heart rate is 62 bpm and his blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, body mass index (BMI) is 31. His bisoprolol is increased to 5 mg and ramipril to 7.5 mg.
      Which of the following is the single non-pharmacological intervention that will be most helpful in reducing his risk of a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing Cardiovascular Risk: Lifestyle Changes to Consider

      Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a leading cause of death worldwide, but many of the risk factors are modifiable through lifestyle changes. The three most important modifiable and causal risk factors are smoking, hypertension, and abnormal lipids. While hypertension and abnormal lipids may require medication to make significant changes, smoking cessation is the single most important non-pharmacological, modifiable risk factor in reducing cardiovascular risk.

      In addition to quitting smoking, there are other lifestyle changes that can help reduce cardiovascular risk. A cardioprotective diet should limit total fat intake to 30% or less of total energy intake, with saturated fat intake below 7%. Low-carbohydrate dietary intake is also thought to be important in cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Regular exercise is also important, with 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity and muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days a week recommended. While exercise is beneficial, stopping smoking remains the most effective lifestyle change for reducing cardiovascular risk.

      Salt restriction can also help reduce risk, with a recommended intake of less than 6 g per day. Patients should be advised to avoid adding salt to their meals and minimize processed foods.

      Finally, weight reduction should be advised to decrease future cardiovascular risk, with a goal of achieving a normal BMI. Obese patients should also be assessed for sleep apnea. By making these lifestyle changes, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with hypertension on home blood pressure recordings (155/105 mmHg). His medical records indicate a recent hospitalization for pyelonephritis where he was diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is the most suitable medication to initiate for his hypertension management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      In patients with renovascular disease, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. If hypertension persists despite CCB and thiazide-like diuretic treatment and serum potassium is over 4.5mmol/L, a cardioselective beta-blocker like carvedilol may be considered. If blood pressure is still not adequately controlled with a CCB, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide would be the second-line treatment. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is also contraindicated in patients with renovascular disease for the same reason as ACE inhibitors.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.

      What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve

      Explanation:

      Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.

      Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications

      Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 50-year-old man requests you to check his blood pressure after his colleague...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man requests you to check his blood pressure after his colleague had a heart attack. Upon measurement, his blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg, and five minutes later, it is 134/74 mmHg in the same arm. According to NICE guidelines, what is the best next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure him that the second reading is normal and suggest he has it checked in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If the clinic reading is equal to or greater than 140/90 mmHg, it is recommended to offer ABPM/HBPM. However, if the lower reading in the consultation is below 140/90 mmHg, no immediate action is necessary according to NICE guidelines.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the...

    Incorrect

    • Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the results of his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). This was arranged as a clinic reading one month ago was noted to be 150/94 mmHg. The results of the ABPM show an average reading of 130/80 mmHg. What is the most suitable plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer to measure the patient's blood pressure at least every 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the ABPM indicates an average blood pressure below the threshold, NICE suggests conducting blood pressure measurements on the patient every 5 years.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolaemia due to being heterozygous...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolaemia due to being heterozygous for the condition. During the consultation, you suggest screening her family members. She mentions that her father has normal cholesterol levels. What is the likelihood that her brother will also be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath in recent weeks and has started coughing up pink frothy sputum, particularly when lying down. She reports no chest pain. Blood tests reveal no anemia, but upon listening to her chest, you detect a mid-diastolic heart murmur at the apex. Her chest exam is otherwise normal, and her resting pulse is 90 bpm SR with O2 sats at 96%. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Findings

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where patients experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema due to increased left atrial pressure. This is more common in younger patients and can be exacerbated by situations of increased blood volume, such as during pregnancy. As a result, a previously asymptomatic patient may present to their GP during pregnancy.

      Typical findings in mitral stenosis include a small pulse that may be irregularly irregular. Jugular venous pressure is only raised if there is heart failure, right ventricular hypertrophy, tapping apex beat, loud S1, loud P2 if pulmonary hypertension, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex only, or presystolic accentuation murmur if no atrial fibrillation.

      In summary, patients with mitral stenosis may experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema, and typical findings include a small pulse and irregularly irregular heartbeat. Jugular venous pressure may only be raised in certain situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Samantha is a 55-year-old female with hypertension which has been relatively well controlled...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old female with hypertension which has been relatively well controlled with lisinopril for 5 years. Her past medical history includes hypercholesterolaemia and osteoporosis.

      During a routine check with the nurse, Samantha's blood pressure was 160/100 mmHg. As a result, she has scheduled an appointment to see you and has brought her home blood pressure readings recorded over 7 days.

      The readings show an average blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue ramipril and commence amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with hypertension is already taking an ACE inhibitor and has a history of gout, it would be more appropriate to prescribe a calcium channel blocker as the next step instead of a thiazide. This is because thiazide-type diuretics should be used with caution in individuals with gout as it may worsen the condition. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker should be considered as a second-line Antihypertensive medication.

      It would be incorrect to make no changes to the patient’s medication, especially if their blood pressure readings are consistently high. In this case, a second-line Antihypertensive medication is necessary.

      Stopping the patient’s current medication, ramipril, is also not recommended as it is providing some Antihypertensive effects. Instead, a second medication should be added to further manage the patient’s hypertension.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

    He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

      He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.

      His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.

      He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.

      Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.

      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients

      Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 79-year-old man presents with ongoing angina attacks despite being on atenolol 100...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents with ongoing angina attacks despite being on atenolol 100 mg od for his known ischaemic heart disease. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal with a pulse of 72 bpm and a blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add nifedipine MR 30 mg od

      Explanation:

      When beta-blocker monotherapy is insufficient in controlling angina, NICE guidelines suggest incorporating a calcium channel blocker. However, verapamil is not recommended while taking a beta-blocker, and diltiazem should be used with caution due to the possibility of bradycardia. The initial dosage for isosorbide mononitrate is twice daily at 10 mg.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be...

    Incorrect

    • You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.

      Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention

      Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.

      It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis

      Explanation:

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. He has been informed that he has a drug-eluting stent and is worried about potential negative consequences.
      What is accurate regarding these stents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-stenosis is reduced

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents

      Drug-eluting stents (DESs) are metal stents coated with a growth-inhibiting agent that reduces the frequency of restenosis by about 50%. However, the reformation of endothelium is slowed, which prolongs the risk of thrombosis. DESs are recommended if the artery to be treated has a calibre < 3 mm or the lesion is longer than 15 mm, and the price difference between DESs and bare metal stents (BMSs) is no more than £300. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is required for patients with coronary stents to reduce stent thrombosis. Aspirin is continued indefinitely, while clopidogrel should be used for at least one month with a BMS (ideally, up to one year), and for at least 12 months with a DES. It is important for cardiologists to explain this information to patients, but General Practitioners should also have some knowledge of these procedures. Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is nervous every time he is intimate with his new partner. He can still achieve his own erections and has morning erections. His recent NHS health screening blood tests were all normal, and he has normal blood pressure. The GP examines his medication history and advises him against using sildenafil. Which of the following medications listed below is not recommended to be used with sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN)

      Explanation:

      When considering treatment options for this patient, it is important to note that PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil are contraindicated when used in conjunction with nitrates and nicorandil. This is due to the potential for severe hypotension. Therefore, alternative treatment options should be explored and discussed with the patient.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his wife's home blood pressure monitor. He found his blood pressure to be 154/96 mmHg. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured twice, with readings of 156/98 mmHg and 154/98 mmHg. He has no significant medical history. To assess his overall health, you schedule him for a fasting glucose and lipid profile test. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Prior to initiating treatment, NICE suggests verifying the diagnosis through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.

      His recent blood work reveals the following results:

      - Sodium: 142 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 mol/L
      - Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
      - HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
      - LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
      - Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
      - Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L

      Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic

      Explanation:

      The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LDL, IDL and VLDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Non-HDL Cholesterol in Statin Treatment

      NICE guidelines recommend that high-intensity statin treatment for both primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease should aim for a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Non-HDL cholesterol includes LDL, IDL, and VLDL cholesterol. In the past, LDL reduction has been used as a marker of statin effect. However, non-HDL reduction is more useful as it takes into account the atherogenic properties of IDL and VLDL cholesterol, which may be raised even in the presence of normal LDL levels.

      Using non-HDL cholesterol also has other benefits. Hypertriglyceridaemia can interfere with lab-based LDL calculations, but it doesn’t impact non-HDL calculation, which is measured by a different method. Additionally, a fasting sample is not required to measure non-HDL cholesterol, making sampling and monitoring easier. Overall, non-HDL cholesterol is an important marker to consider in statin treatment for cardiovascular disease prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep disturbances

      Explanation:

      Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 57-year-old caucasian woman is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension. Baseline investigations do...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old caucasian woman is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension. Baseline investigations do not reveal evidence of end-organ damage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes apixaban. Her ECG is normal. Her QRISK3 score is calculated as 12.4%. She has no known drug allergies. Lifestyle advice is given and appropriate follow-up is scheduled. What is the most effective supplementary treatment choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and amlodipine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, patients who are aged 55 years or over and do not have type 2 diabetes or are of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and do not have type 2 diabetes (of any age) should be prescribed calcium-channel blockers as the first-line treatment for hypertension. In addition, this patient requires a statin for primary cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Amlodipine alone is not sufficient as she requires both an antihypertensive agent and lipid-lowering therapy.

      Atorvastatin and indapamide (a thiazide-like diuretic) is not the best option as indapamide is only recommended as a second-line antihypertensive agent if a calcium-channel blocker is contraindicated, not suitable or not tolerated.

      Atorvastatin and ramipril is also not the best option as ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists) are first-line for patients under the age of 55 and not of black African or African-Caribbean family origin, or those with type 2 diabetes (irrespective of age or family origin).

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranberry juice

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring reading of 142/84 mmHg. He has no history of coronary heart disease, renal disease or diabetes, and is only taking lansoprazole regularly. His 10-year cardiovascular risk score was recently assessed to be 8%. Which of the following should be included in his management plan for follow up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      When a patient is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension, regardless of their age, it is recommended to start antihypertensive medication and reinforce lifestyle advice.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 57-year-old bus driver presents for his yearly hypertension evaluation. What are the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old bus driver presents for his yearly hypertension evaluation. What are the regulations of DVLA regarding hypertension for Group 2 operators?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive if resting BP consistently 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

      He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:

      Aspirin 75 mg daily

      Ramipril 10 mg daily

      Bisoprolol 10 mg daily

      Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and

      Tadalafil 5 mg daily.

      He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.

      Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates

      Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.

      For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There is no previous history of any abnormal cardiac findings.
      Select from the list the single most likely explanation of this murmur.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological

      Explanation:

      Systolic Murmurs in Pregnancy: Causes and Characteristics

      During pregnancy, the increased blood volume and flow through the heart can result in the appearance of innocent murmurs. In fact, a study found that 93.2% of healthy pregnant women had a systolic murmur at some point during pregnancy. These murmurs are typically systolic, may have a diastolic component, and can occur at any stage of pregnancy. They are often located at the second left intercostal space or along the left sternal border, but can radiate widely. If there is any doubt, referral for cardiological assessment is recommended.

      Aortic stenosis produces a specific type of systolic murmur that begins shortly after the first heart sound and ends just before the second heart sound. It is best heard in the second right intercostal space. Mitral murmurs, on the other hand, are best heard at the apex and can radiate to the axilla. Mitral incompetence produces a pansystolic murmur of even intensity throughout systole, while mitral valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click. A ventricular septal defect produces a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard along the left sternal edge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.

      During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

      Spacing:

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.

      Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.

      Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.

      AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with the practice nurse for her type 2 diabetes. During the review, the nurse found that her blood pressure was elevated. Mrs. Smith has since borrowed a friend's BP monitor and has recorded her readings on a spreadsheet, which she has brought to show you. She has already calculated the average BP, which is 142/91 mmHg. Mrs. Smith has been researching on the internet and is interested in starting medication to reduce her cardiovascular risk, especially since she already has diabetes.

      According to NICE, what antihypertensive medication is recommended for Mrs. Smith?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, the recommended first-line medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, regardless of age. Alpha-blockers or beta-blockers are usually considered as a 4th-line option. Calcium channel blockers were previously recommended for patients aged 55 or over, but the updated NICE guidelines prioritize ACE inhibitors or ARBs. It is not appropriate to monitor the patient annually without commencing treatment, as they have confirmed stage 1 hypertension and a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 55-year-old man with Tourette's and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with Tourette's and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents to you with concerns about intermittent chest pain on exertion. He drinks 21 units of alcohol per week and smokes 20 cigarettes a day. His father died of a myocardial infarction at the age of 56 years. You refer him for suspected angina, provide advice on what to do if he experiences chest pain, and prescribe a GTN spray for use as needed. While prescribing the GTN spray, you notice a medication on his prescription list that he should avoid taking while being investigated for chest pain or using the GTN spray. What medication is this referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil, a type of PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be used together with nitrates and nicorandil due to potential risks of significant hypotension and myocardial infarction. On the other hand, there are no known interactions between nitrates and metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, or atorvastatin according to the BNF.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health