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Question 1
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A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days
Explanation:Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: Renal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting that has been ongoing for 12 hours. Upon examination, she is found to be tender in the epigastrium and has a low-grade fever. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones, but no signs of cholecystitis. Blood tests are ordered and show the following results:
- Hb: 121 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
- Platelets: 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- WBC: 15.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Amylase: 1056 U/L (normal range: 70 - 300)
- Bilirubin: 5 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
- ALP: 92 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
- ALT: 33 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
- γGT: 41 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
- Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)
As she awaits transfer to the ward, the patient's condition worsens. She becomes increasingly short of breath and tachypnoeic, and eventually develops central cyanosis. What is the most likely cause of her deterioration?Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s initial presentation is most likely due to acute pancreatitis, as evidenced by the elevated serum amylase levels. Her age (>55), low serum calcium levels (<2 mmol/L), and high white cell count (>15 x 109/L) indicate a Modified Glasgow Score of >3, putting her at risk of severe pancreatitis and its complications. Although the other options could also cause shortness of breath and cyanosis, the most probable explanation in this case is acute respiratory distress syndrome, a known complication of acute pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a persistent cough and drooping of his eyelid. He reports experiencing dryness on one side of his face. He denies any other medical issues but has a history of smoking for many years. What is the most suitable follow-up test?
Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Lung Cancer and Horner Syndrome
When a patient presents with a cough and a history of smoking, lung cancer should always be considered until proven otherwise. The initial investigation in this scenario is a chest X-ray. However, if the patient also presents with symptoms of Horner syndrome, such as eyelid drooping and facial dryness, it may suggest the presence of an apical lung tumour, specifically a Pancoast tumour.
A sputum sample has no added benefit to the diagnosis in this case, and bronchoscopy may not be effective in accessing peripheral or apical tumours. Spirometry is not the initial investigation, but may be performed later to assess the patient’s functional capacity.
If a lung tumour is confirmed, a CT-PET scan will be part of the staging investigations to look for any metastasis. However, due to their high radiation exposure, a chest X-ray remains the most appropriate initial investigation for suspected lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his son, who is worried about his recent increase in confusion. The son also reports that his father has had multiple falls in the past few weeks. The patient has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, consuming approximately 70 units per week. Due to his confused state, obtaining a history from the patient is not possible. What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism of the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rupture of bridging veins
Explanation:Based on the patient’s age, history of alcohol abuse, head injury, and insidious onset of symptoms, it is likely that they are suffering from a subdural hematoma. This condition is often caused by the rupture of bridging veins in the subdural space and can lead to confusion and decreased consciousness. While normal-pressure hydrocephalus can also cause confusion in elderly patients, it typically presents with additional symptoms such as urinary incontinence and gait disturbance. Diffuse axonal injury, on the other hand, is usually caused by rapid acceleration-deceleration and can result in coma. Extradural hematomas are more common in younger patients and are typically caused by trauma to the side of the head, while subarachnoid hemorrhages often present with a sudden, severe headache in the occipital area and are often caused by a ruptured cerebral aneurysm.
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A 33-year-old known intravenous drug user presents to your GP clinic with complaints of fatigue, night sweats and joint pain. During the examination, you observe a new early-diastolic murmur. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Causes of Infective Endocarditis and their Characteristics
Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. The most common causative organism of acute infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, especially in patients with risk factors such as prosthetic valves or intravenous drug use. Symptoms and signs consistent with infective endocarditis include fever, heart murmur, and arthritis, as well as pathognomonic signs like splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots, Janeway lesions, and petechiae.
Group B streptococci is less common than Staphylococcus aureus but has a high mortality rate of 70%. Streptococcus viridans is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it does cause 50-60% of subacute cases. Group D streptococci is the third most common cause of infective endocarditis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis and usually requires surgery for cure.
In summary, knowing the characteristics of the different causative organisms of infective endocarditis can help in the diagnosis and treatment of this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye that lasted for a few minutes. He describes the loss of vision as a curtain coming into his vision, and he could not see anything out of it for a few minutes before his vision returned to normal.
Upon examination, his acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, there is a small embolus in one of the vessels in the left eye. The rest of the fundus is normal in both eyes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Vision Loss: Amaurosis Fugax, Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy, CRAO, CRVO, and Retinal Detachment
When a patient presents with vision loss, it is important to differentiate between various causes. In the case of a transient and painless loss of vision, a typical diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. This is often seen in patients with atrial fibrillation and other vascular risk factors, and a small embolus may be present on fundoscopy. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and treating it as an eye transischaemic attack (TIA).
Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history.
Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is another potential cause of vision loss, but it does not present as a transient loss of vision. Instead, it causes long-lasting damage and may be identified by a cherry-red spot at the macula. The small embolus seen on fundoscopy is not causing a CRAO.
Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) presents with multiple flame haemorrhages, which are not present in this case.
While the patient did mention a curtain-like loss of vision, this does not necessarily indicate retinal detachment. Retinal detachment typically presents with flashes and floaters, and vision is worse if the detachment is a macula-off detachment.
In summary, careful consideration of the patient’s history and fundoscopic findings can help differentiate between various causes of vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with increased urinary frequency and thirst. Her initial observations and clinical examination revealed no abnormalities. On initial blood tests, the only abnormalities found are a urea of 10.5 mmol/l (normal range 2.5–6.5 mmol/l) and a borderline serum osmolality of 270 mOsmol/kg (normal range 270–295 mOsmol/kg). She subsequently had water deprivation testing. Time Investigation Result Normal range 0 hours Serum osmolality 270 mOsmol/kg 270–295 mOsmol/kg 4 hours – testing stopped Serum osmolality Urine osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg 285 mOsmol/kg 270–295 mOsmol/kg 350–1000 mOsmol/kg After administration of desmopressin Urine osmolality 287 mOsmol/kg 350–1000 mOsmol/kg. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the investigative results?
Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Understanding Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating it from Primary Polydipsia and Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the nephron fails to concentrate urine despite adequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) due to insensitivity of the ADH receptors. In contrast, primary polydipsia is characterized by normal ADH secretion and renal sensitivity to ADH, but compulsive water consumption leading to polyuria. Cranial diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, is caused by impaired ADH secretion.
To differentiate between these conditions, a water deprivation test is conducted. In nephrogenic DI, after eight hours of water deprivation, serum osmolality increases while urine osmolality remains low. Administering 2 μg desmopressin has no effect as the ADH receptors remain insensitive. In primary polydipsia, ADH secretion increases during water deprivation, resulting in retention of water by the kidneys, leading to normal serum osmolality and increased urine osmolality. In cranial diabetes insipidus, serum osmolality increases after water deprivation, but administration of desmopressin should result in a return to normal serum osmolality and a concurrent rise in urine osmolality.
In cases where the water deprivation test shows abnormal results, further testing may be required. However, in the case of nephrogenic DI, the abnormal results indicate impairment in osmolality regulation due to insensitivity of the renal ADH receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports that her last menstrual cycle was 22 months ago. She denies experiencing any discomfort, painful urination, or changes in bowel movements, and notes that these episodes only occur after sexual intercourse. The patient has been regularly screened for cervical cancer.
During an abdominal and pelvic examination, no abnormalities are detected. The patient is promptly referred to a specialist for further evaluation, and test results are pending.
What is the primary reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Endometrial hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is the cause of PMB in a minority of patients, with vaginal atrophy being the most common cause. Approximately 90% of patients with PMB do not have endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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As an FY-1 doctor working on a gynaecology ward, you have a postmenopausal patient who has been diagnosed with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. She is in good health otherwise. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Total hysterectomy
Correct Answer: Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:For women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia who are postmenopausal, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to prevent malignant progression. A total hysterectomy alone is not sufficient for postmenopausal women. It is also not recommended to undergo a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy without removing the endometrium. A watch and wait approach is not advisable due to the potential for malignancy, and radiotherapy is not recommended as the condition is not yet malignant.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with haematuria, lethargy, and cough. He smokes 15 cigarettes/day and has COPD.
His heart rate is 89/min, his respiratory rate is 18/min, his blood pressure is 151/93 mmHg and his oxygen saturation is 88%. There is central adiposity with purple striae on the abdomen and a painless 8 cm mass in the left flank.
The blood results are as follows:
Hb 191 Men: 135-180 g/L Women: 115-160 g/L
Na+ 148 135-145 mmol/L
K+ 3.1 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L
Calcium 3.2 2.1-2.6 mmol/L
The chest x-ray shows areas of low density and flattening of the diaphragm.
What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the definitive treatment?Your Answer: Hydrocortisone followed by adrenalectomy
Correct Answer: Radical nephrectomy
Explanation:Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic after discovering a painless pea-sized lump in her left breast. Her grandmother passed away at age 46 due to breast cancer, and the patient is worried that she may have the same condition. What is the most accurate statement regarding breast cancer?
Your Answer: Women with a history of ovarian cancer are at increased risk of breast cancer
Explanation:Breast Cancer Myths and Facts
Breast cancer is a complex disease that affects millions of women worldwide. Unfortunately, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding breast cancer that can lead to confusion and anxiety. Here are some common breast cancer myths and facts to help you better understand this disease.
Myth: Women with a history of ovarian cancer are not at risk for breast cancer.
Fact: Women with a history of ovarian cancer are at increased risk of breast cancer because they share similar risk factors.Myth: All patients with the BRCA1 gene will develop breast cancer.
Fact: Patients with the BRCA1 gene have an 80% lifetime risk for developing breast cancer, and 50% for ovarian cancer. It is a mutation on chromosome 17.Myth: Breast cancer is more common in women from low socioeconomic groups.
Fact: Higher socio-economic groups are associated with increased risk of breast cancer.Myth: Malignant lumps are usually painful.
Fact: Most breast cancers present with a painless lump and may be associated with nipple change or discharge, or skin contour changes. Mastalgia (breast pain) alone is a very uncommon presentation; <1% of all breast cancers present with mastalgia as the only symptom. Myth: Most breast cancers are lobular carcinomas.
Fact: Breast cancer is most commonly ductal (arising from the epithelial lining of ducts) (90%). The second most common type is lobular (arising from the epithelium of the terminal ducts of lobules). They can be either intrusive or in situ. Paget’s disease of the breast is an infiltrating carcinoma of the nipple epithelium (1% of all breast cancers). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?
Your Answer: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
Correct Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
Explanation:Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen
The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.
Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladderThe fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.
Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleenThe transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.
Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric arteryThe origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.
Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the leftAt the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.
Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the leftAt the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with recently developed symptoms. He has a complicated medical history, including depression, schizophrenia, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis. He had an episode one hour ago where his left eye moved upwards and inward, and he began blinking repeatedly. The episode lasted for three minutes, and he did not lose consciousness. He is currently experiencing severe neck pain. However, he is feeling fine at the moment. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions are a negative effect of antipsychotic medications, particularly first-generation ones that are known to cause extrapyramidal side effects. Chlorpromazine is a medication that can cause an oculogyric crisis, which is a type of acute dystonic reaction. The exact cause of these reactions is not fully understood, but they can be managed with the use of an anticholinergic medication like procyclidine. Fluoxetine, on the other hand, is an SSRI used to treat depression and is not known to cause acute dystonic crisis. Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic that was developed to reduce the risk of extrapyramidal side effects, so it is less likely to cause acute dystonic reactions compared to chlorpromazine. Prednisolone, a medication used to treat various conditions, has not been shown to cause acute dystonic reactions but can lead to other side effects like Cushing’s syndrome and osteoporosis.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A newborn delivered at 36 weeks gestation through a normal vaginal delivery is exhibiting irritability and has experienced a convulsion 72 hours after birth. No visible head trauma or swelling is present. What type of cranial injury is most probable in this case?
Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma
Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Caput succedaneum is a condition that occurs when pressure is applied to the fetal scalp during birth, resulting in a swollen and bruised area. This condition typically resolves on its own within a few days and does not require treatment.
Cephalohaematoma, on the other hand, can occur after a vaginal delivery or due to trauma from obstetric tools. This condition results in bleeding between the skull and the periosteum, causing a tense swelling that is limited to the outline of the bone. Cephalohaematoma typically resolves over a period of weeks to months.
Subaponeurotic haemorrhage, also known as subgaleal haemorrhage, is a rare condition that can occur due to a traumatic birth. This condition can result in significant blood loss in the infant.
Intracranial haemorrhage refers to bleeding within the brain, including subarachnoid, subdural, and intraventricular haemorrhages. Subarachnoid haemorrhages are common and can cause irritability and convulsions in the first few days of life. Subdural haemorrhages can occur due to the use of forceps during delivery. Intraventricular haemorrhages are most common in preterm infants and can be diagnosed using ultrasound examinations.
Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage
Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.
Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During the physical examination, the physician notes enlarged deep cervical lymph nodes. What is the cause of the hoarse voice in this patient?
Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus
Explanation:The Role of Nerves in Voice Production
The human voice is a complex system that involves the coordination of various muscles and nerves. One of the most important nerves involved in voice production is the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus. Damage to this nerve can cause hoarseness, as it innervates all the muscles of the larynx. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more commonly affected due to its longer course and proximity to mediastinal tumors.
The internal and external branches of the superior laryngeal nerve also play a role in voice production. They innervate the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as provide secretomotor fibers to mucosal glands of the larynx above the vocal folds. However, damage to these nerves would not cause hoarseness.
Lastly, the pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx, but does not directly affect voice production. Understanding the role of these nerves can help diagnose and treat voice disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?
Your Answer: Increased residual volume
Correct Answer: Increased minute ventilation
Explanation:Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship
During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.
While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a new drug X, which follows a linear pharmacokinetic pattern. Peak plasma concentration is measured at 0.4 mg/ml. Twelve hours later, the plasma concentration is 0.1 mg/ml.
Which of the following best reflects the half-life of drug X?Your Answer: 8 hours
Correct Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:Understanding Half-Life and Dosage Frequency of Medications
When taking medication, it is important to understand the concept of half-life. The half-life of a medication refers to the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the body to reduce by 50%. For example, if a medication has a half-life of 4 hours, then after 4 hours, the concentration of the drug in the body will be reduced by half.
If a medication has a peak concentration of 0.4 mg/ml, and the concentration is 0.1 mg/ml after 8 hours, this means that two half-lives have elapsed during that time. Therefore, the half-life of the medication is 4 hours.
It is important to note that unless the duration of action of the medication is significantly longer than the half-life, it will need to be taken at least twice per day to be effective. For example, if a medication has a half-life of 2 hours, its concentration will be 0.1 mg/ml after 4 hours. This means that the medication would need to be taken at least twice per day to maintain therapeutic levels in the body.
Understanding the half-life of a medication can help patients and healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosage frequency to ensure the medication is effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than a 15-pack year history of smoking, he has no other medical history and reports no prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Endoscopy reveals features of gastritis and a solitary gastric ulcer in the pyloric antrum. A rapid urease test turned red, revealing a positive result.
What would be a suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Helicobacter pylori Infection
Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-negative bacillus that causes chronic gastritis and can lead to ulceration if left untreated. Diagnosis of H. pylori infection can be done through a rapid urease test, which detects the presence of the enzyme urease produced by the bacterium. Treatment for H. pylori infection involves a 7-day course of two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). Fluconazole, prednisolone and azathioprine, and quinine and clindamycin are not appropriate treatments for H. pylori infection. Combination drug therapy is common to reduce the risk of resistance in chronic infections. Repeat testing should be done after treatment to ensure clearance of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulcers, accompanied by feelings of being unwell, feverish, headache, and muscle pains. She had engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a casual male partner two weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. Upon examination, multiple shallow ulcers are observed on her vulva, along with mildly tender muscles and a low-grade fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Explanation:Causes of Genital Ulcers
Chancroid, a sexually transmitted infection, is characterized by multiple painful ulcers that appear within three to ten days after exposure to the bacteria. This infection is more common in tropical regions. On the other hand, genital infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV) typically presents with multiple painful ulcers one to two weeks after exposure to the virus. HSV is the most common cause of multiple painful genital ulcers and can also cause a systemic illness. Herpes zoster, another viral infection, can also cause multiple painful genital ulcers, but this is much less common than HSV. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) usually causes a single, painless ulcer and is associated with unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Finally, primary syphilis causes a single, painless ulcer, while secondary syphilis causes multiple painless ulcers. the different causes of genital ulcers is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his height. The GP charts the teenager's height on a growth chart and finds him to be in the 5th percentile. At birth, he was in the 50th percentile. However, the teenager's developmental milestones are normal, and he appears to be content with himself. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this teenager?
Your Answer: Review the child in the GP clinic in 2 years
Correct Answer: Make a referral to the the paediatric outpatients clinic
Explanation:A paediatrician should review children who fall below the 0.4th centile for height. Referral is the appropriate course of action as it is not an urgent matter. While waiting for the review, it is advisable to conduct thyroid function tests and insulin-like growth factor tests on the child.
Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It
Growth is a significant aspect that distinguishes children from adults. It occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.
During infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. Insulin plays a significant role in fetal growth, as high levels of insulin in a mother with poorly controlled diabetes can result in hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. In childhood, growth hormone and thyroxine drive growth, while in puberty, growth hormone and sex steroids are the primary drivers. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.
It is essential to monitor growth regularly to ensure that children are growing at a healthy rate. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician. Understanding growth and the factors that affect it is crucial for ensuring healthy development in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A mother has delivered a baby with significant microcephaly and a missing philtrum. During examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected. The mother did not receive any prenatal care at this hospital and cannot remember if any abnormalities were detected during the prenatal period. What maternal prenatal occurrences could have led to the infant's abnormalities and presentation?
Your Answer: Maternal syphilis infection
Correct Answer: Maternal alcohol use
Explanation:If a mother experiences a primary infection between weeks 3-28 of pregnancy, the developing foetus may be affected due to deactivation while still in the womb. This can result in various features such as skin scarring, eye defects (including small eyes, cataracts, or chorioretinitis), and neurological defects (such as reduced IQ, abnormal sphincter function, and microcephaly).
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty passing urine for the past 6 hours and is in significant discomfort. Upon catheterization, 1 litre of urine is drained and the patient experiences relief. During a PR examination, an enlarged, hard, nodular prostate is detected. The Urology Registrar advises admission and observation for 24 hours due to the risk of complications following an episode of acute urinary retention. What is the most crucial test to repeat within the next 12 hours to aid in identifying such a complication?
Your Answer: Serum creatinine
Explanation:This man experienced sudden inability to urinate and upon examination, it appears that his enlarged prostate (possibly due to cancer) is the cause. Acute kidney damage can occur as a result of this condition, so the best course of action is to test his serum creatinine levels. It’s crucial to closely monitor his fluid intake over the next two days as some patients may experience excessive urination after a catheter is inserted. Additionally, it’s important to note that the PSA levels may be inaccurately elevated after catheterization.
Prostate cancer is currently the most prevalent cancer among adult males in the UK, and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths in men, following lung cancer. The risk factors for prostate cancer include increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Localized prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, as the cancer tends to develop in the outer part of the prostate gland, causing no obstructive symptoms in the early stages. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, haematuria or haematospermia, and pain in the back, perineal or testicular area. A digital rectal examination may reveal asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus. In addition, an isotope bone scan can be used to detect metastatic prostate cancer, which appears as multiple, irregular, randomly distributed foci of high-grade activity involving the spine, ribs, sternum, pelvic and femoral bones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man presents with persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. His expression appears to have a reduced affect. He has disorganised speech and thinking.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Early-onset dementia
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Common Psychiatric Conditions
Schizophrenia is a prevalent psychiatric condition that affects individuals with positive and negative symptoms, as well as a breakdown in thinking. Positive symptoms include delusions and hallucinations, while negative symptoms refer to reduced mood and blunted affect. Agoraphobia, on the other hand, is an anxiety disorder where patients perceive the outside environment as unsafe. Frontotemporal dementia and early-onset dementia are unlikely presentations for a young patient with disorganized speech and thinking and reduced affect. Endogenous depression, which is more common in women, presents with sudden loss of energy or motivation in daily routines and neurotic thinking, such as anxiety, sleep disturbance, and mood swings. Understanding these conditions can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old pregnant woman from Sudan visits her GP with concerns about her upcoming vaginal delivery. She is currently 30 weeks pregnant and has undergone type 3 female genital mutilation. She expresses her preference to have her vagina reinfibulated after delivery, as this is what she is accustomed to. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation can only be performed under exceptional circumstances and she will need to be further assessed
Correct Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstances
Explanation:Performing any form of female genital cutting/modification for non-medical reasons, including reinfibulation of a woman with type 3 FGM after vaginal delivery, is illegal according to the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003. It is strictly prohibited to carry out such procedures under any circumstances. However, discussing the topic is not illegal.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of sudden pain and curvature in his penis, along with loss of erection. He reports that the incident occurred during sexual intercourse when his penis bent in an abnormal direction, causing a loud popping sensation and acute pain. Upon examination, the penis appears flaccid and significantly swollen with visible bruising. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Isolated tear of the tunica albuginea
Correct Answer: Tear of one corpus cavernosum
Explanation:Anatomy and Physiology of the Penis
The penis is composed of three cylindrical structures: two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum. These structures are surrounded by the tunica albuginea and Buck’s fascia. During an erection, the sinusoids within the corpora cavernosa fill with arterial blood, causing the penis to enlarge longitudinally and transversely. The internal pudendal arteries provide the blood supply to the penis and the urethra, with the cavernosal artery supplying the corpus cavernosum.
In the flaccid state, the penis is mobile and flexible, making injury rare. However, sudden direct trauma or abnormal bending of the penis during an erection can cause a transverse tear of the tunica albuginea, resulting in injury to the underlying corpus cavernosum. This injury typically affects one corpus cavernosum, but both can be involved, leading to penile laceration and urethral injury.
As the penis transitions from a flaccid state to an erect state, the tunica albuginea thins, stiffens, and loses elasticity. This expansion and stiffness impede venous return, maintaining tumescence during male erection. the anatomy and physiology of the penis is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and disorders of the male reproductive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting surgery. She has started a new relationship and is seeking advice on contraception. In her previous relationship, she used the depo injection and is interested in restarting it. She is a non-smoker, has no history of migraines or venous thromboembolism, and has a BMI of 23 kg/m². Which contraception option would be most suitable for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option in such cases.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to you. She has had a Mirena coil (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) for the past 3 years and has been without periods since 4 months after insertion. Recently, she has experienced 2 episodes of post-coital bleeding and a 4-day episode of vaginal bleeding. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer to postmenopausal bleeding clinic for endometrial biopsy
Explanation:To address the patient’s condition, it is recommended to refer her to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic for an endometrial biopsy. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health, women aged 45 years who use hormonal contraception and experience persistent problematic bleeding or a change in bleeding pattern should undergo endometrial biopsy. Given that the patient is obese and has type two diabetes, both of which are risk factors for endometrial malignancy, watchful waiting and reassurance are not appropriate responses. While the Mirena may be nearing the end of its lifespan after 4 years of insertion, bleeding cannot be attributed to this without ruling out underlying pathology. Hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for this patient at this time.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She reports that her periods are so heavy that she goes through a full box of tampons on the first day, which affects her daily routine. The patient has read that Menorrhagia is characterised by unusually heavy bleeding during menstruation. Before diagnosing her with menorrhagia, the doctor checks the criteria used to classify bleeding as 'abnormally heavy'. What is the definition used for this classification?
Your Answer: Greater than 12 pads/tampons used in 24 hours
Correct Answer: An amount that the woman considers to be excessive
Explanation:The definition of menorrhagia has been updated to focus on a woman’s personal experience rather than attempting to measure the amount of blood loss. Previously, heavy bleeding was defined as a total blood loss of over 80 ml during the menstrual cycle. However, due to challenges in accurately measuring blood loss and the fact that treatment for heavy bleeding can improve quality of life regardless of the amount of blood lost, the definition has shifted to a more subjective approach.
Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition
Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?
Your Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
Explanation:Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment
When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.
If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.
It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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