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  • Question 1 - A 9-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother who reports that he has been experiencing blood in his urine for the past 3 days, along with a sore throat and fever. The mother states that the boy has been healthy up until this point, with normal development and good performance in school. He was born through a spontaneous vaginal delivery and has never been hospitalized before. The boy has three siblings who are all healthy and doing well in school. During the examination, the doctor notes that the boy has high blood pressure. Blood tests reveal elevated urea levels and protein in a urine sample. If a kidney biopsy were to be performed on this boy, what would be the most likely finding when viewed under light microscopy?

      Your Answer: Immune complex deposits in the mesangial cells

      Correct Answer: Proliferation of the mesangial cells

      Explanation:

      If a young child with a history of fever and sore throat develops hematuria and proteinuria, it could be either acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis or IgA nephropathy. However, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis usually presents 2 to 4 weeks after a group A streptococcus infection, while IgA nephropathy presents at the same time as the upper respiratory tract infection. This child has IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger disease (First Aid 2017, p564-566).

      1. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with glomerular hypertrophy.
      2. IgA nephropathy involves the proliferation of mesangial cells.
      3. Immune complex deposits in mesangial cells are present in IgA nephropathy but can only be visualized with electron microscopy.
      4. Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane is characteristic of diabetic nephropathy and membranous nephropathy, both types of nephrotic syndrome.
      5. Diabetic nephropathy is associated with an expansion of the mesangial matrix.

      Understanding IgA Nephropathy

      IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It typically presents as macroscopic haematuria in young people following an upper respiratory tract infection. The condition is thought to be caused by mesangial deposition of IgA immune complexes, and there is considerable pathological overlap with Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). Histology shows mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3.

      Differentiating between IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is important. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with low complement levels and the main symptom is proteinuria, although haematuria can occur. There is typically an interval between URTI and the onset of renal problems in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

      Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of the condition. If there is isolated hematuria, no or minimal proteinuria, and a normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR), no treatment is needed other than follow-up to check renal function. If there is persistent proteinuria and a normal or only slightly reduced GFR, initial treatment is with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary.

      The prognosis for IgA nephropathy varies. 25% of patients develop ESRF. Markers of good prognosis include frank haematuria, while markers of poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria (especially > 2 g/day), hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, and ACE genotype DD.

      Overall, understanding IgA nephropathy is important for proper diagnosis and management of the condition. Proper management can help improve outcomes and prevent progression to ESRF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the rate of elimination of phenytoin based on its zero-order kinetics?...

    Correct

    • What is the rate of elimination of phenytoin based on its zero-order kinetics?

      Your Answer: Constant regardless of the plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      Zero-Order Kinetics in Drugs

      Zero-order kinetics is a term used to describe the rate of elimination of certain drugs, such as ethanol, phenytoin, and aspirin. In these drugs, the rate of elimination remains constant and is not dependent on the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This means that even if the concentration of the drug in the plasma increases, the rate of elimination remains the same.

      However, this also means that if the metabolism capacity of the body is overwhelmed, the plasma levels of these drugs can rapidly increase, leading to an overdose. This is particularly dangerous in drugs with zero-order kinetics, as the rate of elimination cannot be increased to compensate for the overdose. Therefore, it is important to understand the pharmacokinetics of drugs and their elimination rates to prevent such incidents.

      In summary, zero-order kinetics in drugs means that the rate of elimination is constant and not dependent on plasma concentration. This can lead to dangerous situations if the metabolism capacity is overwhelmed, as the rate of elimination cannot be increased to compensate for an overdose. the pharmacokinetics of drugs is crucial in preventing such incidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman presents with symptoms of irritability and changes in bowel habits....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with symptoms of irritability and changes in bowel habits. During examination, a smooth enlargement of the thyroid gland is noted. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
      TSH 0.1 mug/l
      Free T4 35 pmol/l
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Graves disease

      Explanation:

      When TSH receptor antibodies are present, they stimulate the thyroid to produce T4. This results in a decrease in TSH levels due to negative feedback on the pituitary. However, in cases where hyperthyroidism is caused by pregnancy, the TSH levels are usually elevated.

      Understanding Thyroid Disease and its Management

      Thyroid disease can present with various manifestations, which can be classified based on the presence or absence of clinical signs of thyroid dysfunction and the presence of a mass. To assess thyroid disease, a thorough history and examination, including ultrasound, are necessary. If a nodule is identified, it should be sampled through an image-guided fine needle aspiration. Radionucleotide scanning is not very useful.

      Thyroid tumors can be papillary, follicular, anaplastic, medullary, or lymphoma. Multinodular goitre is a common reason for presentation, and if the patient is asymptomatic and euthyroid, they can be reassured. However, if they have compressive symptoms, surgery is required, and total thyroidectomy is the best option. Patients with endocrine dysfunction are initially managed by physicians, and surgery may be offered alongside radioiodine for those with Graves disease that fails with medical management or in patients who prefer not to be irradiated. Patients with hypothyroidism do not generally get offered a thyroidectomy.

      Complications following surgery include anatomical damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, bleeding, and damage to the parathyroid glands resulting in hypocalcaemia. For further information, the Association of Clinical Biochemistry guidelines for thyroid function tests and the British Association of Endocrine Surgeons website can be consulted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 43-year-old obese man comes to your clinic for a diabetes check-up. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old obese man comes to your clinic for a diabetes check-up. Despite being treated with metformin and gliclazide, his HbA1c remains elevated at 55 mmol/mol. He has previously found it difficult to follow dietary advice and lose weight. To enhance his diabetic management, you prescribe sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor. What is the mode of action of this novel medication?

      Your Answer: Binds to incretin receptors

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the breakdown of incretins

      Explanation:

      DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT-2 inhibitors, thiazolidinediones, and sulfonylureas are all medications used to treat diabetes. DPP-4 inhibitors work by inhibiting the breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP, which are released in response to food and help to lower blood glucose levels. GLP-1 agonists directly stimulate incretin receptors, while SGLT-2 inhibitors increase the urinary secretion of glucose. Thiazolidinediones stimulate intracellular signaling molecules responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism, and sulfonylureas stimulate beta cells to secrete more insulin. However, sulfonylureas may be less effective in long-standing diabetes as many beta cells may no longer function properly.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Jill, a 54-year-old female, visits her doctor complaining of chest pain. She reports...

    Correct

    • Jill, a 54-year-old female, visits her doctor complaining of chest pain. She reports that the pain worsens when she walks and subsides when she rests.

      Jill's medical history includes diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension. She also has a family history of myocardial infarction.

      Based on her symptoms, the doctor diagnoses Jill with angina and prescribes a nitrate spray.

      At what stage of the cardiac cycle do the coronary arteries primarily fill?

      Your Answer: Ventricular diastole

      Explanation:

      The filling of the coronary arteries takes place during ventricular diastole and not during ventricular systole, which is when isovolumetric contraction occurs.

      Understanding Coronary Circulation

      Coronary circulation refers to the blood flow that supplies the heart with oxygen and nutrients. The arterial supply of the heart is divided into two main branches: the left coronary artery (LCA) and the right coronary artery (RCA). The LCA originates from the left aortic sinus, while the RCA originates from the right aortic sinus. The LCA further divides into two branches, the left anterior descending (LAD) and the circumflex artery, while the RCA supplies the posterior descending artery.

      The LCA supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum, while the RCA supplies the right ventricle and the inferior wall of the left ventricle. The SA node, which is responsible for initiating the heartbeat, is supplied by the RCA in 60% of individuals, while the AV node, which is responsible for regulating the heartbeat, is supplied by the RCA in 90% of individuals.

      On the other hand, the venous drainage of the heart is through the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium. During diastole, the coronary arteries fill with blood, allowing for the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscles. Understanding the coronary circulation is crucial in the diagnosis and management of various heart diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of decreased mobility....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of decreased mobility. He reports experiencing difficulty walking due to weakness in his left foot. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically healthy, regularly participating in sports.

      Upon examination, there is a decrease in sensation in the lateral aspect of the left foot and the posterior aspect of the left leg. The patient exhibits normal power on dorsiflexion but reduced power on plantarflexion of the left foot. Additionally, ankle reflexes are absent.

      Which anatomical structure is likely to be damaged and causing the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: S1 nerve root

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a lesion in the S1 nerve root, which supplies sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot. This is supported by the presence of sensory loss, weakness in plantarflexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. The other options, such as Achilles tendon rupture, injury to the common fibular nerve, or L4-L5 nerve root compression, do not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old female comes to the GP after a recent fall resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female comes to the GP after a recent fall resulting in a right knee injury. She reports difficulty in lifting her right foot. During the clinical examination, you observe a lack of sensation on the dorsum of her right foot and the lower lateral area of her right leg.

      What nerve is most likely to have been affected by the injury?

      Your Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      A common peroneal nerve lesion can result in the loss of sensation over the lower lateral part of the leg and the dorsum of the foot, as well as foot drop. In contrast, a femoral nerve lesion would cause sensory loss over the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg, while a lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh lesion would cause sensory loss over the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. An obturator nerve lesion would result in sensory loss over the medial thigh, and a tibial nerve lesion would cause sensory loss over the sole of the foot.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - From which embryological structure is the ureter derived? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which embryological structure is the ureter derived?

      Your Answer: Cloaca

      Correct Answer: Mesonephric duct

      Explanation:

      The ureter originates from the mesonephric duct, which is linked to the metanephric duct located in the metenephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud emerges from the metanephric duct and separates from the mesonephric duct, forming the foundation of the ureter.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A mother takes her 7-month-old daughter to the doctor as she noticed her...

    Correct

    • A mother takes her 7-month-old daughter to the doctor as she noticed her left pupil appeared white in all their recent pictures. The doctor urgently refers them and a diagnosis of retinoblastoma is made. What type of genetic inheritance is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Retinoblastoma is caused by a mutation in the retinoblastoma gene that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This leads to the development of a malignant tumor in the retina.

      In cases where the condition runs in families, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with incomplete penetrance.

      Typically, children with retinoblastoma are either born with the tumor or develop it shortly after birth. In newborns, a white pupil is a concerning symptom that requires prompt medical attention.

      Therefore, retinoblastoma is not caused by an X or Y-linked gene, an autosomal recessive gene, or a spontaneous mutation.

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions: A List of Inherited Disorders

      Autosomal dominant conditions are genetic disorders that are passed down from one generation to the next through a dominant gene. Unlike autosomal recessive conditions, which require two copies of a mutated gene to cause the disorder, autosomal dominant conditions only require one copy of the mutated gene. While some autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural, such as Marfan’s syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta, others are considered metabolic, such as hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

      The following is a list of autosomal dominant conditions:

      – Achondroplasia
      – Acute intermittent porphyria
      – Adult polycystic disease
      – Antithrombin III deficiency
      – Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
      – Familial adenomatous polyposis
      – Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
      – Hereditary spherocytosis
      – Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
      – Huntington’s disease
      – Hyperlipidaemia type II
      – Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis
      – Malignant hyperthermia
      – Marfan’s syndromes
      – Myotonic dystrophy
      – Neurofibromatosis
      – Noonan syndrome
      – Osteogenesis imperfecta
      – Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
      – Retinoblastoma
      – Romano-Ward syndrome
      – Tuberous sclerosis
      – Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
      – Von Willebrand’s disease*

      It’s important to note that while most types of von Willebrand’s disease are inherited as autosomal dominant, type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - As a medical student on community care placement, I was shadowing a health...

    Correct

    • As a medical student on community care placement, I was shadowing a health visitor who measured the height and weight of all the children to monitor their growth. I was curious to know what drives growth during the adolescent stage (13 to 19 years old)?

      Your Answer: Sex steroids and growth hormone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It

      Growth is a significant difference between children and adults, and it occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.

      In infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. High fetal insulin levels result from poorly controlled diabetes in the mother, leading to hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. Growth hormone is not a significant factor in infancy, as babies have low amounts of receptors. Hypopituitarism and thyroid have no effect on growth in infancy.

      In childhood, growth is driven by growth hormone and thyroxine, while in puberty, growth is driven by growth hormone and sex steroids. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.

      It is essential to monitor growth in children regularly. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man is undergoing investigation for a secondary cause of early-onset heart...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is undergoing investigation for a secondary cause of early-onset heart failure and a systolic murmur. He is referred for an echocardiogram, which reveals an ejection fraction of 62% and impaired diastolic function of the myocardial tissue. Additionally, the report notes a septal wall thickness of 17mm. What is the most probable condition responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a likely cause of diastolic dysfunction, which can lead to heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). This genetic cardiomyopathy is associated with sudden cardiac death, syncope, and heart failure. Unlike other conditions, such as degenerative calcification of the aortic valve or dilated cardiomyopathy, HOCM typically presents with diastolic dysfunction rather than systolic dysfunction. Ischaemic heart disease is also unlikely to be the cause of diastolic dysfunction and would typically present with heart failure and systolic dysfunction.

      Types of Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which Korotkoff sound indicates that the diastolic pressure has been reached during blood...

    Correct

    • Which Korotkoff sound indicates that the diastolic pressure has been reached during blood pressure measurement?

      Your Answer: Fifth

      Explanation:

      Korotkoff Sounds

      Korotkoff sounds are the sounds heard when taking blood pressure readings. There are five phases of Korotkoff sounds, each indicating different stages of blood pressure. The first phase is a tapping sound, which indicates the systolic pressure. The second phase is a swooshing sound or murmurs. The third phase is a crisp tapping sound, while the fourth phase is a muffled, blowing sound. The fifth and final phase is silence.

      Older textbooks used to state that the fourth Korotkoff sound indicate diastolic pressure, but now the fifth sound is used preferentially. To take a blood pressure reading, the cuff is inflated and then slowly reduced. The first tapping sound heard is the systolic pressure. The cuff is then further deflated until silence is heard, which indicates the diastolic pressure. Korotkoff sounds is important for accurate blood pressure readings and proper diagnosis and treatment of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns...

    Correct

    • A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns about ambiguous genitalia. After gathering information and conducting various tests, the doctor determines that the cause is congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is linked to a deficiency in which specific enzyme?

      Your Answer: 21-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Insufficient production of cortisol and compensatory adrenal hyperplasia are the consequences of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. This leads to elevated androgen production and ambiguous genitalia. However, enzymes such as 5-a reductase, aromatase, 17B-HSD, and aldosterone synthase are not involved in this disorder. Other enzymes, including 11-beta hydroxylase and 17-hydroxylase, may also be involved.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.

      Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty rotating his head to...

    Correct

    • An 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty rotating his head to the right side. The patient had a cervical lymph node excision biopsy recently due to an enlarged lymph node. During the examination, the GP observes weakened elevation of the right shoulder. The GP suspects iatrogenic damage to the accessory nerve. What is the name of the foramen through which the affected nerve exits the skull?

      Your Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The accessory nerve, responsible for innervating the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, passes through the jugular foramen along with the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The mandibular nerve, which provides both motor and sensory functions to the chin, lower lip, teeth, gums, and tongue, passes through the foramen ovale. The maxillary nerve, responsible for providing innervation to the mid-third of the face, passes through the foramen rotundum. The hypoglossal nerve, which supplies motor innervation to the tongue, passes through the hypoglossal canal. Finally, the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves pass through the internal acoustic meatus, with the vestibulocochlear nerve splitting into vestibular and cochlear roots and the facial nerve splitting into five branches within the parotid gland.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement about peristalsis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about peristalsis is true?

      Your Answer: Peristalsis only occurs in the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System

      Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.

      In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.

      Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain that extends to his back. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, osteoarthritis, and asthma, and is a smoker. He is currently taking a salbutamol and corticosteroid inhaler. During the examination, his BMI is found to be 35kg/m².

      What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Heavy alcohol use

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is most commonly caused by heavy alcohol use and gallstones, while osteoarthritis and smoking are not direct contributors. However, the use of a steroid inhaler and a high BMI may also play a role in the development of pancreatitis by potentially leading to hypertriglyceridemia.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old woman is currently experiencing menopausal symptoms and seeks advice from her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is currently experiencing menopausal symptoms and seeks advice from her GP regarding treatment options. She has been having irregular periods for a few months and is bothered by reduced libido, vaginal dryness, night sweats, and hot flushes. Initially, she expresses interest in an oestrogen-only HRT based on her friend's experience, but after reviewing her medical history, the GP recommends a combined HRT instead. What is the contraindication that led the GP to suggest this alternative treatment?

      Your Answer: Presence of a uterus

      Explanation:

      Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with progestogen to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. SSRIs can be used as a non-hormonal option for menopausal symptoms. Smoking and uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to HRT use, but migraines with aura are not. COCP has different contraindications than HRT.

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.

      The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.

      HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.

      HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.8
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?

      Your Answer: Trapezoid bone

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone is in close proximity to both the ulnar nerve and artery. Additionally, the capitate bone is in articulation with the lunate, scaphoid, hamate, and trapezoid bones, indicating a close relationship between them.

      The Capitate Bone: Largest of the Carpal Bones

      The capitate bone is the largest of the carpal bones and is located centrally in the wrist. It has a rounded head that fits into the cavities of the lunate and scaphoid bones. The bone also has flatter articular surfaces for the hamate medially and the trapezoid laterally. At the distal end, the capitate bone primarily articulates with the middle metacarpal. Overall, the capitate bone plays an important role in the structure and function of the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with central crushing chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with central crushing chest pain and undergoes a coronary angiogram. Arterial blockage can result from atherosclerosis, which can cause changes in the endothelium. What is an anticipated change in the endothelium?

      Your Answer: Reduced nitric oxide bioavailability

      Explanation:

      Fatty infiltration in the subendothelial space is associated with LDL particles, but the endothelium undergoes changes that include reduced nitric oxide bioavailability, proliferation, and pro-inflammatory and pro-oxidant effects.

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages that phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      27.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal System (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System (3/5) 60%
Cardiovascular System (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/2) 50%
Neurological System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
General Principles (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Passmed