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  • Question 1 - You assess a 58-year-old individual who has arrived at the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 58-year-old individual who has arrived at the emergency department complaining of chest pain resembling a cardiac condition. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover a previous diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism. In terms of aldosterone production, where is it typically synthesized?

      Your Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      The secretion of aldosterone occurs in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. His diabetes is typically controlled with metformin 500 mg twice daily. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his primary care physician, and his family reports that he has been experiencing excessive thirst. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and 1+ ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas analysis are as follows:

      pH: 7.29
      pO2: 11.1 kPa
      pCO2: 4.6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 154 mmol/l
      K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      Cl-: 100 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Glucose: 32 mmol/l

      Which SINGLE statement is true regarding this case?

      Your Answer: Anticoagulation should be given

      Explanation:

      In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.

      To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.

      The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
      – Normalize the osmolality
      – Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
      – Normalize blood glucose levels

      If significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.

      Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are evaluating a patient in the Emergency Department who has been treated...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient in the Emergency Department who has been treated for a head injury. He has recently been advised by his doctor to cease driving, but his daughter informs you that he is still driving.
      What would be the initial course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Talk to the patient and ascertain whether he understands the risks to himself and others and see if you can help him realise that he should stop driving

      Explanation:

      This question evaluates your ability to effectively communicate while promoting patient self-care and understanding of managing long-term conditions.

      The most appropriate answer would be to initially talk to the patient himself. This approach allows for an assessment of the patient’s capacity to make decisions on his own. It is a gentle approach that respects his ability to make safe and sensible decisions.

      In some cases, it can be helpful to include other close family members or friends when explaining a situation to a patient. However, it is important to avoid being coercive. While this option may be a good choice, it is not the best first step to take.

      If all reasonable means have been tried and the patient continues to drive, there may come a time when it is necessary to contact the DVLA. However, this should be expressed in a less confrontational manner.

      Suggesting to the patient’s wife to sell the car is not appropriate as it is not your place to make such a suggestion. Additionally, his wife may still need to use the car even if he cannot drive. This is not a suggestion that should be made by you.

      It is not necessary to inform the DVLA immediately, as this could negatively impact the doctor-patient relationship in the future.

      For more information, you can refer to the DVLA guidance on medical conditions affecting driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing respiratory distress....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing respiratory distress. You observe that the patient has a tracheostomy tube in place, which the patient's wife informs you was inserted before undergoing radiation therapy. The patient finished radiation therapy one month ago. What should be the initial step in evaluating this patient?

      Your Answer: Remove inner tube

      Explanation:

      When a patient with a tracheostomy is experiencing difficulty breathing, the first step is to assess their condition and provide them with oxygen. If there is suspected obstruction, one of the initial steps to resolve it is to remove the inner tube of the tracheostomy. After that, the mouth and tracheostomy should be examined, and if the patient is breathing, high flow oxygen should be applied to both the mouth and the tracheostomy stoma site. The next steps in managing the patient would be to pass a suction catheter. If the catheter cannot be passed, the cuff should be deflated. If the patient does not stabilize or improve, the tracheostomy tube should be removed. This order of steps is summarized in the green algorithm.

      Further Reading:

      Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.

      When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.

      Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma alert is activated, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully establish intravenous access and decide to prepare for intraosseous access instead.

      Which of the following anatomical sites would be the most appropriate for insertion?

      Your Answer: Proximal humerus

      Explanation:

      Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.

      Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.

      There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You evaluate a 14-year-old with Down syndrome. The reason for the visit is...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 14-year-old with Down syndrome. The reason for the visit is the caregiver's worry about recent occurrences of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. During the examination, the patient appears pale, but there are no other notable findings.
      What is the PRIMARY diagnosis that should raise the most concern at this point?

      Your Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Explanation:

      There is a known connection between trisomy 21 and acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Therefore, it is important to investigate and rule out this possibility as the first step in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 78 year old female is brought from her nursing home to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 78 year old female is brought from her nursing home to the emergency department with heightened confusion after a fall earlier today. A CT head scan is conducted and reveals a subdural hematoma. Which anatomical structure is most likely injured as a result?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Correct Answer: Cortical bridging veins

      Explanation:

      Subdural hematoma (SDH) occurs when the bridging veins in the cortex of the brain tear and cause bleeding in the space between the brain and the outermost protective layer. This is different from extradural hematoma (EDH), which is usually caused by a rupture in the middle meningeal artery.

      Further Reading:

      A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a condition where there is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater of the brain. It occurs when the cortical bridging veins tear and bleed into the subdural space. Risk factors for SDH include head trauma, cerebral atrophy, advancing age, alcohol misuse, and certain medications or bleeding disorders. SDH can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on its age or speed of onset. Acute SDH is typically the result of head trauma and can progress to become chronic if left untreated.

      The clinical presentation of SDH can vary depending on the nature of the condition. In acute SDH, patients may initially feel well after a head injury but develop more serious neurological symptoms later on. Chronic SDH may be detected after a CT scan is ordered to investigate confusion or cognitive decline. Symptoms of SDH can include increasing confusion, progressive decline in neurological function, seizures, headache, loss of consciousness, and even death.

      Management of SDH involves an ABCDE approach, seizure management, confirming the diagnosis with CT or MRI, checking clotting and correcting coagulation abnormalities, managing raised intracranial pressure, and seeking neurosurgical opinion. Some SDHs may be managed conservatively if they are small, chronic, the patient is not a good surgical candidate, and there are no neurological symptoms. Neurosurgical intervention typically involves a burr hole craniotomy to decompress the hematoma. In severe cases with high intracranial pressure and significant brain swelling, a craniectomy may be performed, where a larger section of the skull is removed and replaced in a separate cranioplasty procedure.

      CT imaging can help differentiate between subdural hematoma and other conditions like extradural hematoma. SDH appears as a crescent-shaped lesion on CT scans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 9 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a worsening sore throat, fever, and feeling unwell. The patient reports that the symptoms began 4 days ago. During the examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.1ºC, bilateral palpable cervical lymphadenopathy, and exudate on both tonsils. Glandular fever is suspected.

      What would be the most suitable approach for investigation?

      Your Answer: Arrange blood test for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) viral serology in 2-3 days time

      Explanation:

      The most suitable approach for investigation in this case would be to send a blood test for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) viral serology. Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is commonly caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms described by the patient, including a sore throat, fever, and feeling unwell, are consistent with this condition. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for EBV viral serology can be performed. This test detects antibodies produced by the body in response to the virus. It is important to note that the Monospot test, which is another blood test for infectious mononucleosis, may not be as accurate in younger children. Therefore, the most appropriate option would be to send a blood test for EBV viral serology in 2-3 days time. This will allow for the detection of specific antibodies and provide a more accurate diagnosis.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An older woman arrives at the Emergency Department in the afternoon, reporting chest...

    Correct

    • An older woman arrives at the Emergency Department in the afternoon, reporting chest discomfort. She has visited the hospital four times within the past two weeks with similar symptoms, and each time her examination and all tests came back normal. She lives alone but has family members living nearby. Her cat passed away recently. During today's examination, she appears to be in a slightly low mood. All systems examinations, ECG, and tests conducted today show no abnormalities.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient? Choose ONE option.

      Your Answer: Send a discharge summary to the GP outlining your findings and suggest that she may benefit from some social support

      Explanation:

      When it comes to decision making and utilizing the wider medical team, it is crucial to always consider the possibility of new medical issues, even if the symptoms have occurred multiple times before. In the case of chest pain in elderly individuals, it is important to conduct further investigations, even if the presentation is similar to previous instances.

      In addition, this patient appears to be displaying signs of depression. The loss of a pet can intensify feelings of loneliness. To address this, it would be wise to send a discharge summary to the patient’s general practitioner, outlining the findings and suggesting the potential benefits of providing social support for the patient.

      By rephrasing and organizing the information with paragraph spacing, the explanation becomes clearer and easier to read.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You review a 52-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 52-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a urinary tract infection (UTI). She has a history of COPD and is currently taking salbutamol and Seretide inhalers and Phyllocontin Continus. Since starting the antibiotics, she has been experiencing nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
      Which SINGLE antibiotic is she most likely to have been prescribed for her UTI?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin Continus contains aminophylline, which is a combination of theophylline and ethylenediamine. It is a bronchodilator that is commonly used to manage COPD and asthma.

      In this case, the woman is showing symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the antibiotic prescribed for her urinary tract infection. Quinolone antibiotics, like ciprofloxacin, can increase the concentration of theophyllines in the blood, leading to toxicity.

      There are other medications that can also interact with theophyllines. These include macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin, allopurinol, antifungals like ketoconazole, and calcium-channel blockers such as amlodipine. It is important to be aware of these interactions to prevent any potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to examine the patient and arrange an investigation to assist in confirming the diagnosis.

      Which of the following investigations is MOST LIKELY to be beneficial in establishing the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI scan of brain

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is linked to alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is commonly identified by the presence of three main symptoms: acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional signs may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs.

      This condition is characterized by the occurrence of acute capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be detected through MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop a condition known as Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered perception of time, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      When Wernicke’s encephalopathy is suspected, it is crucial to administer parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be continued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted following a paracetamol overdose. Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator and indication for liver transplant in paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: Arterial pH < 7.30 on or after day 2 following overdose

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      A pH level in the arteries that is below 7.30 on or after the second day following a paracetamol overdose is considered a poor indicator of prognosis. Additionally, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) of over 100 seconds (indicated by an international normalized ratio (INR) of over 6.5), along with a high plasma creatinine level of over 300 μmol/L and grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy, are also poor prognostic indicators and may indicate the need for a liver transplant. Furthermore, an increase in PT between the third and fourth day after the overdose is also considered a poor prognostic indicator.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 14-month-old boy presents with a history of occasional wheezing and cough, which...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old boy presents with a history of occasional wheezing and cough, which worsens at night. He recently had a cold and appears congested today. His mother reports that he often wheezes after a cold, and this can persist for several weeks after the infection has resolved. Both parents smoke, but his mother is trying to reduce her smoking, and neither parent smokes inside the house. There is no family history of asthma or allergies. Another doctor recently prescribed inhalers, but they have had little effect. On examination, he has a slight fever of 37.8°C, and there are scattered audible wheezes heard during chest examination.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral induced wheeze

      Explanation:

      Viral induced wheeze is a common condition in childhood that is triggered by a viral infection, typically a cold. The wheezing occurs during the infection and can persist for several weeks after the infection has cleared. This condition is most commonly seen in children under the age of three, as their airways are smaller. It is also more prevalent in babies who were small for their gestational age and in children whose parents smoke. It is important to note that viral induced wheeze does not necessarily mean that the child has asthma, although a small percentage of children with this condition may go on to develop asthma. Asthma is more commonly seen in children with a family history of asthma or allergies. Inhalers are often prescribed for the management of viral induced wheeze, but they may not always be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32 year old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, fever, and yellowing of her skin and eyes. Upon examination, it is evident that she is clinically jaundiced. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. You suspect she may have acute hepatitis B infection. Which of the following serology results would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: anti-HBs positive and HBsAg negative

      Correct Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgM positive

      Explanation:

      The presence of serum HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates chronic HBV infection. HBeAg can be detected in the serum during the early stages of acute infection and some chronic infections. Higher levels of virus replication are usually associated with the presence of HBeAg, making individuals with chronic HBV more infectious. If HBeAg is cleared, anti-HBe is typically detected, indicating lower infectivity. The presence of anti-HBe, along with a decline in HBV-DNA, suggests control of viral replication and the likelihood of resolving acute hepatitis B. The presence of anti-HBc indicates current or past HBV infection, appearing at the onset of symptoms in acute infection and persisting for life. However, it may be absent in the early stages of acute infection. Anti-HBc IgM indicates recent HBV infection within the last six months and can help differentiate between acute and chronic infection. Over time, it is gradually replaced by IgG anti-HBc. IgG anti-HBc generally persists for life and indicates past infection. Anti-HBs indicates recovery from and immunity to HBV. If anti-HBs is present without anti-HBc, it suggests immunization. The quantification of anti-HBs is used to measure the response to vaccination.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began a few hours ago. This is his first-ever episode, and he has no significant medical history.
      Which of the following accurately characterizes the type of AF he has experienced?

      Your Answer: Acute

      Explanation:

      In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.

      Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.

      Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.

      Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.

      By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents with a history of central chest pain that lasted approximately 45 minutes. Her ECG showed T wave inversion in the lateral leads, but her pain settled, and ECG normalized following the administration of GTN spray and IV morphine. She was also given 325 mg of aspirin on arrival. A troponin test has been organized and admission arranged.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Diltiazem

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, possibly a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) or unstable angina. The troponin test will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but this normalized after treatment with GTN and morphine, ruling out a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      Immediate pain relief should be provided. GTN (sublingual or buccal) can be used, but intravenous opioids like morphine should be considered, especially if a heart attack is suspected.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications like bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered right after presentation.

      Fondaparinux should be given to patients without a high bleeding risk, unless coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours of admission. Unfractionated heparin can be an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who will undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours. For patients with significant renal impairment, unfractionated heparin can also be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for a SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have a bradyarrhythmia evident on their ECG, and you determine to administer a dose of atropine.
      Which ONE statement about the use of atropine is accurate?

      Your Answer: It should be used routinely in the management of PEA cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      Atropine acts as an antagonist to the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. This means that it blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA node and the AV node, resulting in increased sinus automaticity and improved AV node conduction.

      The side effects of atropine are dependent on the dosage and may include dry mouth, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, urinary retention, and tachyarrhythmias. Elderly patients may also experience acute confusion and hallucinations.

      Atropine is recommended for use in cases of sinus, atrial, or nodal bradycardia or AV block when the patient’s hemodynamic condition is unstable due to the bradycardia. According to the ALS bradycardia algorithm, an initial dose of 500 mcg IV is suggested if any adverse features such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure are present. If this initial dose is unsuccessful, additional 500 mcg doses can be administered at 3-5 minute intervals, with a maximum dose of 3 mg. It is important to avoid doses exceeding 3 mg as they can paradoxically slow the heart rate.

      Asystole during cardiac arrest is typically caused by primary myocardial pathology rather than excessive vagal tone. Therefore, there is no evidence supporting the routine use of atropine in the treatment of asystole or PEA. Consequently, atropine is no longer included in the non-shockable part of the ALS algorithm.

      Aside from its use in cardiac conditions, atropine also has other applications. It can be used topically in the eyes as a cycloplegic and mydriatic, to reduce secretions during anesthesia, and in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which age group does Addison's disease typically first manifest? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which age group does Addison's disease typically first manifest?

      Your Answer: Young adults between 12-18 years of age

      Correct Answer: Adults aged 30-50 years of age

      Explanation:

      Adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, is a condition that is more frequently observed in women and typically manifests in individuals aged 30-50 years. In the UK alone, nearly 9000 individuals have received a diagnosis for this disorder. While it can affect people of all ages, it predominantly occurs in women and those within the 30-50 age range.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.6
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman experiences excessive bleeding after a minor surgical procedure. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman experiences excessive bleeding after a minor surgical procedure. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl (12-15 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (80-100 fl)
      Platelets: 246 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
      Bleeding time: 9 minutes (2-7 minutes)
      Prothrombin time: 12 seconds (10-14 seconds)
      Thrombin time: 16 seconds (15-19 seconds)
      Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT): 64 seconds (35-45 seconds)

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a common hereditary coagulation disorder that affects approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It occurs due to a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. vWF not only binds to factor VIII to protect it from rapid breakdown, but it is also necessary for proper platelet adhesion. When vWF is lacking, both factor VIII levels and platelet function are affected, leading to prolonged APTT and bleeding time. However, the platelet count and thrombin time remain unaffected.

      While some individuals with vWD may not experience any symptoms and are diagnosed incidentally during a clotting profile check, others may present with easy bruising, nosebleeds (epistaxis), and heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). In severe cases, more significant bleeding and joint bleeding (haemarthrosis) can occur.

      For mild cases of von Willebrand disease, bleeding can be managed with desmopressin. This medication works by stimulating the release of vWF stored in the Weibel-Palade bodies, which are storage granules found in the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and heart. By increasing the patient’s own levels of vWF, desmopressin helps improve clotting. In more severe cases, replacement therapy is necessary. This involves infusing cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate to provide the missing vWF. Replacement therapy is particularly recommended for patients with severe von Willebrand’s disease who are undergoing moderate or major surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are caring for a 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD who...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) due to worsening shortness of breath and suspected sepsis. You are planning to perform an arterial blood gas (ABG) test by puncturing the radial artery. What solution should you use to cleanse the intended puncture site before obtaining the sample?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Before performing arterial blood gas sampling, it is necessary to disinfect the skin. This is typically done using alcohol, which should be applied and given enough time to dry completely before proceeding with the skin puncture. In the UK, it is common to use solutions that combine alcohol with Chlorhexidine, such as Chloraprep® (2).

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (2/3) 67%
Resus (1/1) 100%
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