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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. What is the appropriate dosage of IM adrenaline to administer in this situation?
Your Answer: 0.3 mL of 1:1000
Correct Answer: 0.15 mL of 1:1000
Explanation:The management of anaphylaxis involves several important steps. First and foremost, it is crucial to ensure proper airway management. Additionally, early administration of adrenaline is essential, preferably in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. Aggressive fluid resuscitation is also necessary. In severe cases, intubation may be required. However, it is important to note that the administration of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone should only be considered after early resuscitation has taken place.
Adrenaline is the most vital medication for treating anaphylactic reactions. It acts as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist, which helps reverse peripheral vasodilatation and reduce oedema. Furthermore, its beta-adrenergic effects aid in dilating the bronchial airways, increasing the force of myocardial contraction, and suppressing histamine and leukotriene release. Administering adrenaline as the first drug is crucial, and the intramuscular (IM) route is generally the most effective for most individuals.
The recommended doses of IM adrenaline for different age groups during anaphylaxis are as follows:
– Children under 6 years: 150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000)
– Children aged 6-12 years: 300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000)
– Children older than 12 years: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)
– Adults: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Korsakoff's psychosis. You have been requested to assess the patient and report your observations.
Which of the following symptoms is typically observed in individuals with Korsakoff's psychosis?Your Answer: Disordered time appreciation
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination and balance). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. In the majority of cases, peripheral neuropathy (nerve damage) is also observed, typically affecting the legs.
The condition is marked by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (difficulty remembering past events), an inability to memorize new information, disordered time appreciation, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 42-year-old woman with a history of Sjögren’s syndrome. She has undergone a series of liver function tests, and the results are as follows:
Bilirubin: 18 mmol (3-20)
ALT: 38 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 356 IU/L (20-140)
IgM: 4.0 g/L (0.5-2.5)
pANCA: negative
cANCA: negative
ANA: positive
SMA: negative
Antimitochondrial antibodies: positive
Currently, she is asymptomatic, and her Sjögren’s syndrome is well managed with hydroxychloroquine.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Side effect of hydroxychloroquine
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Explanation:This patient has been diagnosed with primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). PBC is a liver disease caused by an autoimmune response, leading to the progressive destruction of the small bile ducts in the liver. The damage primarily affects the intralobular ducts. As a result, the patient experiences cholestatic jaundice, followed by liver fibrosis and cirrhosis. PBC is more common in females, with 90% of patients being women. It typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 65. Liver function tests show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), often before any symptoms appear. Antimitochondrial antibodies are positive in 95% of cases. Around 50% of patients have smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), and approximately 20% have antinuclear antibodies (ANA). IgM levels are raised in over 80% of cases.
Autoimmune hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by a decrease in regulatory T-cells (Treg cells), leading to the production of autoantibodies against hepatocyte surface antigens. It mainly affects women (70%) between the ages of 15 and 40. The condition causes chronic, progressive hepatitis, which eventually progresses to cirrhosis. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms of malaise, although in some cases, the disease may be more advanced, resulting in jaundice and severe illness. In later stages, liver function tests show significantly elevated levels of transaminases (ALT and AST), often exceeding ten times the normal range. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels are usually normal or slightly elevated. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive in approximately 80% of cases, while smooth muscle antibodies (SMA) are positive in around 70% of cases. Antimitochondrial antibodies are typically low or absent.
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that causes progressive inflammation and obstruction of the bile ducts. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of cholangitis and the gradual scarring of the bile ducts. PSC can eventually lead to liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and hepatocellular carcinoma. There is a known association between PSC and ulcerative colitis, with over 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis.
Hepatic damage caused by hydroxychloroquine is extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a history of gradually worsening left-sided hearing loss and tinnitus. He also reports occasional episodes of dizziness. During the examination, his hearing is significantly reduced in the left ear, and the Weber's test shows lateralization to the right. Additionally, he experiences tingling sensations on the left side of his face and has decreased sensation on that side. The rest of his cranial nerve examination appears normal.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma
Explanation:This patient has come in with a past medical history of hearing loss and ringing in the ears on the right side, along with a nerve problem in the right trigeminal nerve. These symptoms are consistent with a growth in the cerebellopontine angle, such as a vestibular schwannoma (also known as an acoustic neuroma).
A vestibular schwannoma typically affects the 5th and 8th cranial nerves and is known to present with the following symptoms:
– Gradually worsening hearing loss on one side
– Numbness and tingling in the face
– Ringing in the ears
– DizzinessIn some cases, the patient may also have a history of headaches, and in rare instances, the 7th, 9th, and 10th cranial nerves may be affected.
It is recommended that this patient be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist or a neurosurgeon for further evaluation, which may include an MRI scan. The main treatment options for vestibular schwannoma include surgery, radiotherapy, and stereotactic radiosurgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 36 year old man has arrived at the Emergency Department seeking treatment for a deep cut on his leg. He is by himself, and before examining the wound, he warns you to 'be careful' and reveals that he recently tested positive for HIV. He suspects that he contracted the virus after engaging in an extramarital affair. The nurse then approaches and asks if it is permissible for his wife to enter the room. He informs you that his wife is unaware of his diagnosis and he wishes to keep it that way. You observe that his wife appears to be in the early stages of pregnancy.
In addition to providing appropriate medical care for the wound, what steps should you take?Your Answer: Confront him in front of his wife, put him in a position where he has to tell her in front of you.
Correct Answer: If confirmed HIV infection, explain risks to his wife and unborn child and need for disclosure. If he refuses to consent to this, explain you have the right to do this against his wishes.
Explanation:This is a complex situation that presents both ethical and medico-legal challenges. While patients have a right to confidentiality, it is important to recognize that this right is not absolute and may not apply in every circumstance. There are certain situations where it is appropriate to breach confidentiality, such as when mandated by law or when there is a threat to public health. However, it is crucial to make every effort to persuade the patient against disclosure and to inform them of your intentions.
In this particular case, the patient has disclosed to you that they have recently been diagnosed with HIV, which they believe was contracted from a sexual encounter outside of their marriage. They have explicitly stated that they do not want you to inform their wife, who is in the early stages of pregnancy. Before taking any action, it is advisable to gather all the relevant facts and confirm the patient’s HIV diagnosis through their health records, including any other blood-borne viruses.
If the facts are indeed confirmed, it is important to continue efforts to persuade the patient of the necessity for their wife to be informed. If she has been exposed, she could greatly benefit from testing and starting antiretroviral therapy. Additionally, specialized care during early pregnancy could help prevent transmission of the virus to the unborn child. However, if the patient continues to refuse disclosure, you have the right to breach confidentiality, but it is crucial to inform the patient of your intentions beforehand. Seeking support from your defense organization is also recommended in such situations.
For further information, you may refer to the GMC Guidance on Confidentiality, specifically the section on disclosing information about serious communicable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After conducting tests, the patient is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
What is the most effective measure to minimize transmission to other patients?Your Answer: Treatment with oral metronidazole
Correct Answer: Hand washing
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in their intestines, allowing C. difficile to multiply and cause C. difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD). This condition leads to inflammation and bleeding of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct pseudomembranous appearance. The main symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of C. difficile infections occur in individuals aged 65 and above.
To prevent the spread of C. difficile, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene. This involves washing hands with water and plain or antibacterial soap for 15 to 30 seconds after using the bathroom and before eating. Paying attention to areas such as the fingernails, between the fingers, and the wrists is essential. Thoroughly rinsing hands and drying them with a single-use towel is also recommended. Additionally, patients and their family members should remind healthcare providers to wash their hands regularly.
While alcohol-based hand rubs can be effective against many bacteria, they may be less effective against C. difficile. Therefore, during an outbreak of C. difficile infection, it is advisable to use soap and running water instead.
Taking precautions such as wearing an apron and gloves and isolating patients in separate rooms are important measures to prevent contact transmission. However, it is crucial to remember that these precautions will be ineffective if proper hand washing is neglected. Hand hygiene remains the primary and most crucial step in preventing the spread of C. difficile.
When it comes to treatment, oral vancomycin is the recommended first-line option for C. difficile associated diarrhea. However, it is important to note that this treatment does not limit the spread of the bacteria from one patient to another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in a neighbor's backyard. It is suspected that the patient had consumed alcohol at a nearby club and opted to walk home in the snowy conditions. The patient's temperature is documented as 27.8ºC. The nurse connects leads to conduct a 12-lead ECG. Which of the subsequent ECG alterations is most closely linked to hypothermia?
Your Answer: Flattened P-waves
Correct Answer: Osborn waves
Explanation:Hypothermia can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). These changes include a slower heart rate (bradycardia), the presence of Osborn Waves (also known as J waves), a prolonged PR interval, a widened QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Additionally, the ECG may show artifacts caused by shivering, as well as the presence of ventricular ectopics. In severe cases, hypothermia can lead to cardiac arrest, which may manifest as ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF), or asystole.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg. What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?
Your Answer: 50 ml/hour
Correct Answer: 65 ml/hour
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children: Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.
Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:
– First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml
– Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml
– Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 ml
Therefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 14 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder following a fall from a skateboard. The patient has been receiving Entonox during ambulance transport. What is a contraindication to administering Entonox in this case?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: Pneumothorax
Explanation:Nitrous oxide should not be used in cases where there is trapped air, such as pneumothorax. This is because nitrous oxide can diffuse into the trapped air and increase the pressure, which can be harmful. This can be particularly dangerous in conditions like pneumothorax, where the trapped air can expand and affect breathing, or in cases of intracranial air after a head injury, trapped air after a recent underwater dive, or recent injection of gas into the eye.
Further Reading:
Entonox® is a mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that can be used for self-administration to reduce anxiety. It can also be used alongside other anesthesia agents. However, its mechanism of action for anxiety reduction is not fully understood. The Entonox bottles are typically identified by blue and white color-coded collars, but a new standard will replace these with dark blue shoulders in the future. It is important to note that Entonox alone cannot be used as the sole maintenance agent in anesthesia.
One of the effects of nitrous oxide is the second-gas effect, where it speeds up the absorption of other inhaled anesthesia agents. Nitrous oxide enters the alveoli and diffuses into the blood, displacing nitrogen. This displacement causes the remaining alveolar gases to become more concentrated, increasing the fractional content of inhaled anesthesia gases and accelerating the uptake of volatile agents into the blood.
However, when nitrous oxide administration is stopped, it can cause diffusion hypoxia. Nitrous oxide exits the blood and diffuses back into the alveoli, while nitrogen diffuses in the opposite direction. Nitrous oxide enters the alveoli much faster than nitrogen leaves, resulting in the dilution of oxygen within the alveoli. This can lead to diffusion hypoxia, where the oxygen concentration in the alveoli is diluted, potentially causing oxygen deprivation in patients breathing air.
There are certain contraindications for using nitrous oxide, as it can expand in air-filled spaces. It should be avoided in conditions such as head injuries with intracranial air, pneumothorax, recent intraocular gas injection, and entrapped air following a recent underwater dive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman comes in with a history of two episodes of atrial fibrillation (AF). The most recent episode lasted for six days before resolving on its own. How would you classify the type of AF she has experienced?
Your Answer: Acute
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal
Explanation:In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.
Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.
Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.
Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.
By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought in complaining of pain at the end of his penis. His mom has noticed that it’s red and he has been crying when trying to urinate. On examination, you see that the surface of the glans is red and swollen. When you enquire further, the mom says that he has been completely unable to pull his foreskin back over the glans as it has been too painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypospadias
Correct Answer: Balanitis
Explanation:Balanitis is the inflammation of the glans, which is the end of the penis. It often occurs alongside inflammation of the foreskin. Balanitis is a common condition that can affect individuals of any age. However, it is most commonly seen in boys under the age of four who have not undergone circumcision. The main symptoms include redness, irritation, and soreness of the glans. In some cases, it may be difficult to retract the foreskin, and there may be discomfort during urination.
There are various factors that can cause balanitis. These include poor hygiene, a non-retractile foreskin condition called phimosis, dermatological conditions like psoriasis, infections such as candidal infection, and allergies. In most cases, balanitis can be diagnosed based on clinical examination. However, if there is uncertainty, a swab may be taken for further investigation.
Treatment for balanitis involves practicing good hygiene and gently cleaning the affected area. If a candidal infection is suspected, clotrimazole may be used. Additionally, a mild steroid cream is often prescribed to reduce inflammation. In cases where recurrent balanitis is caused by phimosis, circumcision may be considered as a potential treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations and a headache. The patient appears distressed and is observed to be trembling and sweating excessively. The patient has no regular medication and no significant medical history. The patient mentions experiencing similar episodes in the past few months, but none as severe as this one. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 212/100 mmHg
Pulse: 98 bpm
Respiration: 16 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:Phaeochromocytoma is characterized by certain clinical features, including paroxysmal hypertension, palpitations, headache, tremor, and profuse sweating. This patient exhibits paroxysmal symptoms that align with phaeochromocytoma, such as high blood pressure (systolic readings exceeding 220 mmHg are common), headache, sweating, and feelings of anxiety and fear. It is important to note that individuals with conditions like congenital adrenal hyperplasia, diabetes insipidus, and Addisonian crisis typically experience low blood pressure.
Further Reading:
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.
The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.
The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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You are managing a 35-year-old woman with a presumed diagnosis of anaphylaxis. A tryptase level is obtained shortly after initiating treatment, which leads to an improvement in the patient's condition. You decide to request a follow-up tryptase level to further support the diagnosis of anaphylaxis. When would be the appropriate time to obtain the repeat level?
Your Answer: 1 to 2 hours from the onset of symptoms
Explanation:Tryptase levels can be a valuable tool in diagnosing anaphylaxis. During an anaphylactic reaction, mast cell tryptase is released and can be measured in the blood. Research suggests that tryptase levels reach their highest point in the blood within 1 minute to 6 hours after the reaction begins, typically peaking around 1-2 hours after the onset of symptoms. This information is crucial for diagnosing and treating anaphylaxis, especially in cases where the diagnosis is uncertain. It’s important to note that tryptase levels may return to normal within 6 hours, so the timing of blood samples is crucial. The current recommendation is to take three tryptase level measurements: one as soon as resuscitation begins, another 1-2 hours after symptoms start, and a third 24 hours later or during the recovery period. It’s worth mentioning that some individuals may have elevated baseline tryptase levels, which should be taken into consideration during the diagnosis process.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old Irish woman comes in with a complaint of increasingly severe shortness of breath. During the interview, she mentions experiencing joint pain for several months and having painful skin lesions on both shins. A chest X-ray is performed, which shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
What is the specific syndrome she is experiencing?Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Correct Answer: Löfgren’s syndrome
Explanation:The patient presents with a medical history and physical examination findings that are consistent with a diagnosis of Löfgren’s syndrome, which is a specific subtype of sarcoidosis. This syndrome is most commonly observed in women in their 30s and 40s, and it is more prevalent among individuals of Nordic and Irish descent.
Löfgren’s syndrome is typically characterized by a triad of clinical features, including bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy seen on chest X-ray, erythema nodosum, and arthralgia, with a particular emphasis on ankle involvement. Additionally, other symptoms commonly associated with sarcoidosis may also be present, such as a dry cough, breathlessness, fever, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, Achilles tendonitis, and uveitis.
In order to further evaluate this patient’s condition, it is recommended to refer them to a respiratory specialist for additional investigations. These investigations may include measuring the serum calcium level, as it may be elevated, and assessing the serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level, which may also be elevated. A high-resolution CT scan can be performed to assess the extent of involvement and identify specific lymph nodes for potential biopsy. If there are any atypical features, a lymph node biopsy may be necessary. Lung function tests can be conducted to evaluate the patient’s vital capacity, and an MRI scan of the ankles may also be considered.
Fortunately, the prognosis for Löfgren’s syndrome is generally very good, and it is considered a self-limiting and benign condition. The patient can expect to recover within a timeframe of six months to two years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A child presents with a headache, high temperature, and a very itchy rash on their face and body. The doctor diagnoses the child with chickenpox. When would it be necessary to administer acyclovir through injection in this patient?
Your Answer: Patient aged 20 years
Correct Answer: Chronic skin disorder
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly contagious illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a DNA virus from the Herpesviridae family. Most cases are mild to moderate, and the infection usually resolves on its own. Severe complications are rare but can occur, especially in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions.
The incubation period for chickenpox is typically between 14 to 21 days. It is contagious from a few days before the rash appears until about a week after the first lesions show up.
The common clinical features of chickenpox include:
– Fever, which lasts for approximately 3-5 days.
– The initial rash starts as flat red spots and progresses into raised bumps.
– These bumps then turn into fluid-filled blisters and eventually form pustules surrounded by redness.
– The lesions are extremely itchy.
– The rash reaches its peak around 48 hours in individuals with a healthy immune system.
– The rash tends to be more concentrated on the face and trunk, with fewer lesions on the limbs.
– The blisters eventually dry up and form crusts, which can lead to scarring if scratched.
– Headache, fatigue, and abdominal pain may also occur.Chickenpox tends to be more severe in teenagers and adults compared to children. Antiviral treatment should be considered for these individuals if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of rash onset. The recommended oral dose of aciclovir is 800 mg taken five times a day for seven days.
Immunocompromised patients and those at higher risk, such as individuals with severe cardiovascular or respiratory disease or chronic skin disorders, should receive antiviral treatment for ten days, with at least seven days of intravenous administration.
Although most cases are relatively mild, if serious complications like pneumonia, encephalitis, or dehydration are suspected, it is important to refer the patient for hospital admission.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Chickenpox.
https://cks.nice.org.uk/topics/chickenpox/ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32 year old woman is brought into the emergency department with burns to her chest and arms. The patient was trying to handle a grease fire but accidentally spilled the burning contents onto herself. Your consultant requests you to evaluate the severity of the burns. What is used to estimate the extent of a burn injury?
Your Answer: Bernoulli's equation
Correct Answer: Lund and Browder chart
Explanation:TBSA, or Total Body Surface Area, is a method commonly used to estimate the size of small burns and very large burns by including the area of unburnt skin. However, it is not considered a reliable method for medium-sized burns.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after a car accident. She has significant bruising on the right side of her chest. You suspect she may have a hemothorax. What clinical signs would you anticipate observing in a patient with a hemothorax?
Your Answer: Tracheal deviation towards affected side
Correct Answer: Decreased fremitus on affected side
Explanation:Haemothorax often leads to reduced or absent air entry, a dull percussion sound, and decreased fremitus on the affected side. Commonly observed symptoms in patients with haemothorax include decreased or absent air entry, a dull percussion note when the affected side is tapped, reduced fremitus on the affected side, and in cases of massive haemothorax, tracheal deviation away from the affected side. Other signs that may be present include a rapid heart rate (tachycardia), rapid breathing (tachypnoea), low blood pressure (hypotension), and signs of shock.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You assess a patient with a past medical history of chronic pain. The patient's pain has significantly worsened. The pain team administers a 10 mg dose of oral morphine, but regrettably, it does not provide adequate pain control.
What adjustment should be made to the patient's next dose of oral morphine?Your Answer: Keep dose at 10 mg
Correct Answer: Increase dose to 15 mg
Explanation:When adjusting the dosage of oral morphine, if the initial dose does not provide relief, it is recommended to increase the dose by 50%. The goal of dosage titration is to identify the minimum amount of morphine required to effectively manage pain. Additionally, it is important to consider the use of supplementary analgesics like NSAIDs and paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 19
Correct
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A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a condition that you identify as a reportable infection. You fill out the notification form and reach out to the local health protection team.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.
The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient comes in with a history of back pain and neurological symptoms in the lower limbs. He has experienced back issues intermittently for a few years and has previously been diagnosed with spondylolysis.
Which specific part of the vertebra is typically affected by spondylolysis?Your Answer: Inferior vertebral notch
Correct Answer: Pars interarticularis
Explanation:Spondylolysis refers to a flaw or fracture caused by stress in the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch. While it can occur in the cervical vertebrae, it is most commonly found in the lower lumbar vertebrae, specifically L5. This injury is frequently seen in children and adolescents who engage in sports activities that place repetitive strain on the lower back, such as gymnastics, football, and weightlifting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 21
Correct
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A 4 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a 4 day history of fever, irritability, and pain in his left ear. On examination, there is a tender, erythematous, boggy swelling behind his ear. What is the most probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Acute otitis media
Explanation:Acute mastoiditis commonly occurs as a complication of acute otitis media (AOM). In this case, the patient exhibits symptoms indicative of acute mastoiditis. The infection typically spreads from the middle ear tympanic cavity (acute otitis media) to the mastoid antrum through a narrow canal within the petrous temporal bone.
Further Reading:
Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid air cells, which are located in the mastoid process of the skull. It is usually caused by the spread of infection from the middle ear. The most common organism responsible for mastoiditis is Streptococcus pneumoniae, but other bacteria and fungi can also be involved. The infection can spread to surrounding structures, such as the meninges, causing serious complications like meningitis or cerebral abscess.
Mastoiditis can be classified as acute or chronic. Acute mastoiditis is a rare complication of acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear. It is characterized by severe ear pain, fever, swelling and redness behind the ear, and conductive deafness. Chronic mastoiditis is usually associated with chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma and presents with recurrent episodes of ear pain, headache, and fever.
Mastoiditis is more common in children, particularly those between 6 and 13 months of age. Other risk factors include immunocompromised patients, those with intellectual impairment or communication difficulties, and individuals with cholesteatoma.
Diagnosis of mastoiditis involves a physical examination, blood tests, ear swab for culture and sensitivities, and imaging studies like contrast-enhanced CT or MRI. Treatment typically involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist, broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, pain relief, and myringotomy (a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear).
Complications of mastoiditis are rare but can be serious. They include intracranial abscess, meningitis, subperiosteal abscess, neck abscess, venous sinus thrombosis, cranial nerve palsies, hearing loss, labyrinthitis, extension to the zygoma, and carotid artery arteritis. However, most patients with mastoiditis have a good prognosis and do not experience long-term ear problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department after twisting his right ankle while playing basketball. He reports pain on the outer side of his ankle and foot, and experiences discomfort when putting weight on it.
After conducting a physical examination, the healthcare provider decides to order ankle and foot X-rays based on the Ottawa foot & ankle rules. According to these guidelines, which of the following scenarios would warrant a foot X-ray?Your Answer: Tenderness anterior edge medial malleolus
Correct Answer: Tenderness over navicular
Explanation:An X-ray of the foot is recommended when there is pain in the base of the fifth metatarsal or the navicular bone, as well as an inability to bear weight immediately after an injury or in the emergency department. The Ottawa ankle rules can also be used to determine if an X-ray is necessary for ankle injuries. These rules focus on two specific areas (the malleolar and midfoot zones) to determine if an X-ray of the ankle or foot is needed. More information on these rules can be found in the notes below.
Further Reading:
Ankle fractures are traumatic lower limb and joint injuries that involve the articulation between the tibia, fibula, and talus bones. The ankle joint allows for plantar and dorsiflexion of the foot. The key bony prominences of the ankle are called malleoli, with the medial and posterior malleolus being prominences of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus being a prominence of the distal fibula. The distal fibula and tibia are joined together by the distal tibiofibular joint or syndesmosis, which is comprised of three key ligaments. An ankle X-ray series is often used to guide clinical decision making in patients with ankle injuries, using the Ottawa ankle rules to determine if an X-ray is necessary. Ankle fractures are commonly described by the anatomical fracture pattern seen on X-ray relative to the malleoli involved, such as isolated malleolus fractures, bimalleolar fractures, and trimalleolar fractures. The Weber classification is a commonly used system for distal fibula fractures, categorizing them as Weber A, B, or C based on the level and extent of the fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 4 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a 24 hour history of diarrhoea and vomiting. The patient's father informs you that several of the child's preschool classmates have experienced a similar illness in the past few days. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Correct Answer: Rotavirus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with hematemesis. He consumed excessive alcohol with his colleagues the previous night and began vomiting towards the end of the evening. After forcefully retching and vomiting multiple times, he observed traces of blood in his vomit. He vomited once again this morning and is extremely worried as there was still blood present.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Explanation:Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a condition characterized by a tear in the lining of the esophagus, specifically near the junction where the esophagus meets the stomach. This tear is typically caused by forceful retching and vomiting and is often associated with behaviors such as binge drinking, eating disorders, and hyperemesis gravidarum. Fortunately, the bleeding usually stops within 24-48 hours and invasive procedures like endoscopy are rarely necessary.
It is important to note that Mallory-Weiss syndrome should not be confused with Boerhaave’s syndrome, which is the spontaneous rupture of a healthy esophagus, usually following intense vomiting. Patients with Boerhaave’s syndrome experience respiratory collapse, subcutaneous emphysema, and acute abdominal pain. While Boerhaave’s syndrome is rare, it is more commonly observed in individuals who abuse alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. The patient's pulse rate is recorded as 44 beats per minute. Your assessment focuses on identifying reversible causes of bradycardia. Which of the following metabolic conditions is commonly associated with reversible bradycardia?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Hypermagnesemia
Explanation:Some reversible metabolic causes of bradycardia include hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypothermia. These conditions can lead to a slow heart rate and can be treated or reversed.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a two week history of worsening nausea, muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. You send urine and blood samples for analysis. The results are shown below:
Na+ 126 mmol/l
K+ 5.3 mmol/l
Urea 7.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
Glucose 6.0 mmol/l
Urine osmolality 880 mosmol/kg
You review the patient's medications. Which drug is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:This patient is experiencing hyponatremia, which is characterized by low plasma osmolality and high urine osmolality, indicating syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). One of the most common causes of SIADH is the use of SSRIs. On the other hand, lithium, sodium bicarbonate, and corticosteroids are known to cause hypernatremia. Plasma osmolality can be calculated using the formula (2 x Na) + Glucose + Urea. In this patient, the calculated osmolality is 265 mosmol/kg, which falls within the normal range of 275-295 mosmol/kg.
Further Reading:
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.
There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.
The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.
Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.
It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of a 45-year-old male who has suffered a head injury. A fellow healthcare provider informs you that the patient is exhibiting Cushing's triad of symptoms. What is the most accurate description of Cushing's triad?
Your Answer: Widened pulse pressure, tachycardia and tachypnoea
Correct Answer: Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia and bradypnoea
Explanation:Cushing’s triad is a combination of widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and reduced respirations. It is a physiological response of the nervous system to acute increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). This response, known as the Cushing reflex, can cause the symptoms of Cushing’s triad. These symptoms include an increase in systolic blood pressure and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure, a slower heart rate, and irregular or reduced breathing. Additionally, raised ICP can also lead to other symptoms such as headache, papilloedema, and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old construction worker comes in with intense lower back pain. He has experienced back pain on and off for several years, but it has recently worsened significantly. He is walking with a noticeable limp, and during the examination, you observe that he has weakness in knee extension. You decide to conduct a digital rectal examination and discover that his anal sphincter tone is unexpectedly loose.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious complication that can occur when a disc in the spine ruptures. This happens when the material from the disc is pushed into the spinal canal and puts pressure on a bundle of nerves in the lower back and sacrum. When this happens, it can lead to problems with controlling the bladder and bowels.
There are certain signs that may indicate the presence of CES, which are known as red flags. These include experiencing sciatica on both sides of the body, having a severe or worsening neurological deficit in both legs, such as significant weakness in the muscles that extend the knee, turn the ankle outward, or lift the foot upward. Other red flags include difficulty starting to urinate or a decreased sensation of the flow of urine, a loss of feeling when the rectum is full, a loss of sensation in the perianal, perineal, or genital areas (also known as saddle anesthesia or paresthesia), and a looseness in the anal sphincter muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with no permanent residence sustains a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.
During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.
Which medication has caused the onset of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.
This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.
Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For the past two days, she has had severe diarrhoea and vomiting. She has not passed urine so far today. She normally weighs 20 kg. On examination, she has sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes. She is tachycardia and tachypnoeic and has cool peripheries. Her capillary refill time is prolonged.
What is her estimated percentage dehydration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. To put it in simpler terms, 5% dehydration means that the body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 milliliters per kilogram of fluid. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a loss of 100 milliliters per kilogram of fluid.
The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:
Dehydration (5%):
– The child appears unwell
– The heart rate may be normal or increased (tachycardia)
– The respiratory rate may be normal or increased (tachypnea)
– Peripheral pulses are normal
– Capillary refill time (CRT) is normal or slightly prolonged
– Blood pressure is normal
– Extremities feel warm
– Decreased urine output
– Reduced skin turgor
– Sunken eyes
– Depressed fontanelle
– Dry mucous membranesClinical shock (10%):
– The child appears pale, lethargic, and mottled
– Tachycardia (increased heart rate)
– Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate)
– Weak peripheral pulses
– Prolonged CRT
– Hypotension (low blood pressure)
– Extremities feel cold
– Decreased urine output
– Decreased level of consciousness -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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