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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Correct
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A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Bed rest
Correct Answer: Dilatation and curettage
Explanation:Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:
Your Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 5
Correct
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During pregnancy which one of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?
Your Answer: Platelet count
Explanation:In pregnancy, although it is a hypercoagulable state with an increase in clotting factors, the platelet count is decreased. Fibrinogen and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may be both increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?
Your Answer: A serum progesterone level should be drawn
Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant
Explanation:With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.
Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up. On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm. which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan
Explanation:At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.
For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.
A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
– Dating errors which is the most common cause
– Twin pregnancy
– Gestational diabetes
– Polyhydramnios
– Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: US
Explanation:The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Trans-vaginal sonography (TVS)
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following sexual engagement. It's been a year since she had her last menstrual cycle. Her previous cervical screening test was 12 months ago, and everything came back normal. For the past year, she had not engaged in any sexual activity. She wasn't on any hormone replacement treatment at the time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Atrophic vaginitis
Explanation:Postmenopausal haemorrhage has started in this patient. Menopause is defined as the permanent cessation of menstruation and fertility that occurs 12 months after the previous menstrual period.
Atrophic vaginitis caused by oestrogen insufficiency is the most likely reason for this woman’s postmenopausal haemorrhage. It can also induce vaginal dryness and soreness during sexual intercourse.
Endometrial hyperplasia is unlikely to develop without hormone replacement therapy or oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium.
Similarly, endometrial cancer is a less likely cause of this patient’s post-menopausal bleeding.
A year ago, this woman received a normal cervical screening test. Cervical cancer is extremely unlikely to occur. After 12 months of no oestrogen, it’s also unlikely that you’ll have any irregular periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?
Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event. On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible. Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
– Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
– Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
-Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
– Uterine tenderness
– Change in uterine shape and contour
– Easily palpable fetal parts
– No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
– Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.
Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.
Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.
Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the half life of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: 5 minutes
Explanation:The half-life of Oxytocin is approximately 5 minutes
The half-life of Misoprostol is approximately 20-40 minutes
The half-life of Ergometrine is approximately 30-120 minutes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment. Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?
Your Answer: Tubal obstruction
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.
70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.
Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.
Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes.Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated.She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place.She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse. Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head. Fetal monitoring is category I. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction. The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Fetal malposition
Explanation:Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.
The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.
When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.
Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.
Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture. In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.
When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer: Ischium
Correct Answer: Ilium
Explanation:Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection is associated with which of the following onco-proteins?
Your Answer: E6 and E7
Explanation:There are over 100 genotypes of HPV including several other high risk HPV types. HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. HPV is thought to induce cancer via onco-proteins. The primary onco-proteins are E6 and E7 which inactivate two tumour suppressor proteins, p53 (inactivated by E6) and pRb (inactivated by E7)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal. Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?
Your Answer: Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.
Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.
Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.
Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.
Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.
CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?
Your Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test. On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375) intrauterine device inserted six months ago. On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected. She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next. What is the best next step in her management?
Your Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.
Explanation:The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.
Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.
Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.
Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.
In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.
Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic. She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks. She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation. At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously. You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13), Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle), Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500). Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?
Your Answer: An LH-producing pituitary adenoma.
Correct Answer: Early pregnancy.
Explanation:All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.
The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.
Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.
LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.
The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.
The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.
If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.
If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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What is meant by a barr body?
Your Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome
Explanation:Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of New South Wales. She is 34 weeks pregnant and all her past 3 pregnancy has been uncomplicated. On examination her blood pressure is 140/95 mm of Hg today which is higher than her usual blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows protein 2+ and the patient feels well generally. Among the following, which is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Correct Answer: Send her to the local hospital for urgent review
Explanation:This patient has developed clinical features like hypertension and proteinuria consistent with Pre-eclampsia. So the patient should be sent to an obstetrician for urgent review, it is not appropriate in such cases to postpone urgent specialist reviews as it could lead to serious complications.
Labetalol though is safe in pregnancy and is considered as an option to treat hypertension, it could be given in the emergency department.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?
Your Answer: 5 days
Explanation:Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which one of the following dimensions relates to the greatest diameter of the fetal head?
Your Answer: Occipitomental
Explanation:Occipitomental diameter is the greatest diameter of the fetal scalp and runs from chin to the prominent portion on the occiput. It measure about 12.5cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands?
Your Answer: Stimulate placenta to form oestrogen
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death?
Your Answer: Apoptosis
Explanation:Apoptosis is described as programmed cell death. The cell release certain proapoptotic mediators that regulate this cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 28
Correct
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Question 29
Correct
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm. Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?
Your Answer: Implanon
Correct Answer: Condoms
Explanation:This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.
It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.
For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
– Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
– Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
– A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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