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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
    What should be prescribed in combination...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
      What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg and 160/95mmHg during three consecutive visits to his GP surgery. He refuses ambulatory blood pressure monitoring due to its interference with his job as a construction worker. His home blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/95mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice only

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and has stage 2 hypertension, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker. This is in accordance with the NICE guidelines, which suggest that antihypertensive drug treatments should be offered to individuals of any age with stage 2 hypertension. If the patient is 55 years or older, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended instead.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that she has previously received treatment for constipation, but is generally healthy. The mother reports that the child is currently passing only one hard stool every 3-4 days, which resembles 'rabbit droppings'. There is no history of overflow soiling or diarrhea. The abdominal examination is normal. What is the most suitable initial intervention?

      Your Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake

      Correct Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake + Movicol Paediatric Plain

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks gestation. She is now 3 weeks postpartum and is exclusively breastfeeding with plans to continue for at least 6 months. What contraceptive method should she avoid due to absolute contraindication?

      Your Answer: Combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.

      Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucus. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucus, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.

      It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old heavy smoker presents with a persistent cough and occasional wheezing. The...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old heavy smoker presents with a persistent cough and occasional wheezing. The chest radiograph reveals hyperinflation but clear lung fields.
      What is the next step to assist in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spirometry

      Explanation:

      Spirometry: The Best Diagnostic Tool for COPD

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common respiratory condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. To diagnose COPD, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool. According to NICE guidelines, a diagnosis of COPD should be made based on symptoms and signs, but supported by spirometry results. Post-bronchodilator spirometry should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. Airflow obstruction is confirmed by a forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1):forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Other diagnostic tools, such as CT of the chest, serial peak flow readings, and trials of beclomethasone or salbutamol, may have a role in the management of COPD, but they are not used in the diagnosis of the condition. CT of the chest may be used to investigate symptoms that seem disproportionate to the spirometric impairment, to investigate abnormalities seen on a chest radiograph, or to assess suitability for surgery. Serial peak flow readings may be appropriate if there is some doubt about the diagnosis, in order to exclude asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids and short-acting beta agonists may be used in the management of COPD for breathlessness/exercise limitation, but they are not used in the diagnosis of COPD. In summary, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool for COPD, and other diagnostic tools may have a role in the management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is true when considering an exacerbation of chronic bronchitis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true when considering an exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in patients with COPD?

      Your Answer: An elevated white cell count indicates exacerbation

      Correct Answer: Moraxella catarrhalis is not commonly isolated on culture

      Explanation:

      Exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are a common occurrence and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial infections. In a bacterial acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the most common causative pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Since the introduction of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, the most common bacterial pathogen may be changing from Streptococcus pneumoniae to Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae are also relatively common. An elevated white cell count may indicate exacerbation, but a lack of prominent leukocytosis is common. Clinical judgement is crucial, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) test may be useful, but it lags behind by 24-48 hours.

      Exacerbations of COPD are characterized by episodes of acutely increased dyspnea and cough, often with a change in the characteristics of the sputum. Despite fever and other signs and symptoms, the clinical presentation is mild to moderate in most cases. Patients with COPD often develop type 2 respiratory failure, which can escalate into respiratory acidosis, a potentially serious complication that may require non-invasive or invasive ventilation. An arterial blood gas analysis should be performed early in every patient presenting with a possible exacerbation of COPD.

      Treatment options for bacterial infections in exacerbations of COPD include trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septrin) combinations. However, resistance to this combination has been frequently reported in cases of infection with M. catarrhalis. The vast majority of cases of infection with M. catarrhalis are also penicillin-resistant due to their production of beta-lactamase. Co-amoxiclav is usually the antibiotic of choice, with macrolides being good alternatives.  In most cases, the initial antibiotic treatment is empirical and mainly guided by known local sensitivities and the patient’s previous history of exacerbations. Gram stain can be quite useful to identify broad classes of bacteria. If the gram stain is inconclusive, blood cultures should be performed if the patient is pyrexial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.3
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread across his trunk over the last 4 days. He is worried about the appearance of the rash. The patient has no significant medical history except for completing a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis last week and takes no other regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple scaly papules on the patient's trunk and upper limbs. The lesions are small and have a teardrop shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The tear-drop scaly papules that have suddenly appeared on the patient’s trunk and limbs suggest guttate psoriasis. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and young adults who have recently had a Streptococcus infection, such as the tonsillitis infection that this patient had. The rash is characterized by multiple small scaly and red patches that have a teardrop shape.

      Disseminated varicella zoster, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis versicolor are not likely diagnoses for this patient. Disseminated varicella zoster causes a different type of rash that includes macular, papular, and vesicular lesions that crust over time. Pityriasis rosea presents with a large round herald patch on the chest, abdomen, or back, and is thought to be triggered by viral or bacterial infections. Pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that causes patches that are paler than the surrounding skin, and is commonly found on the upper limbs and neck. However, exposure to heat and moisture can increase the risk of developing this rash.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23 week pregnant woman presents with offensive vaginal discharge and is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 23 week pregnant woman presents with offensive vaginal discharge and is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis (BV) based on high vaginal swab results. She has no known drug allergies and is in good health otherwise. What treatment options are recommended for her?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection that affects many women, with up to 50% of cases being asymptomatic. The main symptom of BV is a fishy-smelling discharge from the vagina.

      In pregnant women, BV can lead to late miscarriage and preterm delivery if left untreated. Therefore, all pregnant women who experience symptoms should receive treatment. This typically involves taking oral metronidazole twice a day for 5-7 days, as a single 2-gram dose is not recommended during pregnancy.

      However, for asymptomatic pregnant women with BV, treatment is considered on a case-by-case basis. This is because research suggests that identifying and treating asymptomatic cases does not necessarily reduce the risk of preterm birth. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CKS.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his mother who recently arrived in the UK. Due to inadequate antenatal care in their home country, the baby has been experiencing rapid breathing, poor feeding, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. During examination, the baby displayed upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent inner epicanthal folds, a protuberant tongue, and single palmar creases. Additionally, an atypical murmur was heard. An urgent echocardiogram was performed, and the diagnosis was revealed. What is the most likely congenital cardiac abnormality in this baby?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The most frequent congenital cardiac abnormality found in individuals with Down’s syndrome is atrioventricular septal defects. This baby, who displays typical syndromic features of Down’s syndrome, was not diagnosed during pregnancy due to inadequate antenatal care in Somalia. In the first few weeks of life, dyspnoea, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, and cyanosis can be common presentations. Although Tetralogy of Fallot can occur in Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common. Ventricular and atrial septal defects can also occur, but they are not as prevalent and do not align with the severity of this baby’s symptoms.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21
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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing confusion and vomiting. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing confusion and vomiting. Upon further inquiry, she reports six months of weight loss, fatigue, and dizziness upon standing. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 126 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120). After stabilization, she undergoes additional testing and is prescribed a daily maintenance regimen of 20 mg hydrocortisone and 100mcg fludrocortisone. In the event of an acute illness, such as an infection, what dosage of medication should she take?

      Your Answer: 40mg hydrocortisone, 100mcg fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      To manage this patient with Addison’s disease who is experiencing an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase the glucocorticoid dose by double while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. The patient’s symptoms, including vomiting, confusion, fatigue, weight loss, and postural hypotension, suggest adrenal insufficiency. Blood tests reveal hyponatremia and hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency. Aldosterone normally regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body, and its absence leads to sodium loss and potassium elevation. The prescribed steroid replacement regimen is appropriate for intercurrent illness, as it mimics the body’s natural response by increasing glucocorticoid secretion while maintaining mineralocorticoid secretion. The patient’s hydrocortisone dose has been doubled from 20mg to 40mg, while the fludrocortisone dose remains at 100mcg.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      23.3
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to take 2 doses of her regular contraceptive pill. She reports engaging in sexual activity approximately 48 hours ago. Her medical history includes eczema and severe asthma. Although she missed her pill, she is hesitant to switch to a different form of contraception as she typically has no issues with her current pill but simply forgot to bring it with her while staying at her boyfriend's for the weekend. What is the most suitable emergency contraception option to suggest to her?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel is the correct choice, as the patient has expressed reluctance to try a different form of contraception. It is important to prioritize pregnancy prevention while also discussing the benefits of long-acting reversible contraception and allowing the patient time to consider it. While ulipristal and levonorgestrel are both oral options, ulipristal should be used cautiously in patients with severe asthma. As the patient is still within the 72-hour window for levonorgestrel use and has missed two doses of her oral contraceptive pill, levonorgestrel is the preferred option.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      38.8
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man visits his doctor. He was prescribed fluoxetine for depression eight...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his doctor. He was prescribed fluoxetine for depression eight weeks ago and now wants to discontinue the medication as he feels much better. What advice should be given regarding his treatment?

      Your Answer: It should be continued for at least 6 months

      Explanation:

      The risk of relapse is significantly decreased, and patients should be comforted by the fact that antidepressants are non-addictive.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.5
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  • Question 14 - A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height?

      Your Answer: 22 - 26 cm

      Explanation:

      The symphysis-fundal height in centimeters after 20 weeks of gestation is equal to the number of weeks of gestation.

      The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.9
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl presented to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presented to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of fever, and watery diarrhoea for the previous 8 days. After initial management, she now appears well hydrated and is drinking as usual. Her observations are normal. The child's stool culture result returns positive for Salmonella spp.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Discharge home with a course of oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Discharge home with no antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Salmonella Infection in Children: Discharge Home with No Antibiotic Treatment

      Salmonella infection is a common cause of gastroenteritis in children. The mainstay of treatment is oral rehydration for correction of dehydration and prevention of further fluid losses. Most children with salmonella infection do not need any specific treatment, and symptoms usually improve in a few days. Unless symptoms are severe, children with salmonella can usually be cared for at home. Infection with Salmonella spp. is a notifiable disease in the UK. Antibiotics should be considered in children with salmonella gastroenteritis who are aged < 6 months, malnourished or immunocompromised. However, in this case, the child is well hydrated and drinking as usual, and therefore, discharge home with no antibiotic treatment is the correct management approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery,...

    Correct

    • A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
      What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the Gastroenterology Clinic with concerns about his tongue. He has noticed unusual patterns on his tongue that have been present for a while, but he is worried about tongue cancer as he has been a heavy smoker for the past 20 years. What is the most suitable initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Excision biopsy

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Geographic Tongue: A Benign Condition Requiring No Medical Intervention

      Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a common condition that affects up to 3% of the general population. While some patients may experience a burning sensation when consuming hot or spicy foods, most are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of geographic tongue can usually be confirmed from history and physical examination alone, and no medical intervention is required.

      Surgical correction is not warranted for geographic tongue, as it is a benign condition of no clinical significance. Aspiration for cytology is also not appropriate, as the diagnosis can be made without further investigation. Excision biopsy may actually cause harm, as histological findings are identical to those seen in pustular psoriasis.

      A full blood count is not necessary for the diagnosis of geographic tongue. Instead, the condition can be identified through the elongation of rete ridges, hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis at the periphery, loss of filiform papillae, and migration and clustering of neutrophils within the epithelium towards the centre of the lesions. The predominant inflammatory infiltrates in the lamina propria is neutrophils with an admixture of chronic inflammatory cells.

      In summary, geographic tongue is a benign condition that requires no medical intervention. Diagnosis can be made through history and physical examination alone, and further investigation may cause harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on one diabetes medication (500mg metformin BD). He reports no adverse effects from this treatment. His most recent retinopathy screening was unremarkable. You draw blood to assess his HbA1c levels.
      What is the recommended target HbA1c for this patient?

      Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The recommended HbA1c goal for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. According to NICE guidelines, this target is appropriate for patients who are managing their condition through lifestyle changes or a single antidiabetic medication. However, if a patient is prescribed a second medication or is taking a medication that increases the risk of hypoglycaemia (such as a sulphonylurea), the target may be adjusted to 53 mmol/mol. It is important to note that the HbA1c threshold for changing medications may differ from the target HbA1c level.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision of his right eye. On examination, there is conjunctival injection and dendritic ulceration seen on his cornea.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus keratitis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with unilateral eye symptoms

      Herpes simplex virus keratitis and Candida endophthalmitis are two potential causes of unilateral eye symptoms, but other conditions should also be considered. A foreign body may cause corneal ulceration and blurred vision, but there is no evidence of its presence in the scenario. Trachoma is unlikely in a developed country, while glaucoma typically presents with bilateral symptoms or acute angle-closure in a minority of cases. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate tests can help to establish the correct diagnosis and guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy rash that developed while she was on holiday in Spain. On examination, she has an inflamed eczematous rash on her face, neck, arms and legs, with a few blisters. She has sparing of skin in areas that have been covered by her swimwear. She is currently being treated for acne and takes no other regular medications. She has no other known medical conditions.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient’s rash?

      Your Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Photosensitivity and Acne Treatments

      Photosensitivity is a common side-effect of certain medications used to treat acne. This abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause a rash, particularly when exposed to UVA rays. Primary photosensitive conditions include polymorphic light eruption or solar urticaria, while secondary photosensitivity may be caused by medications such as tetracyclines or retinoids, or exposure to psoralens released by plants.

      Lymecycline, a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used to treat acne, is known to cause photosensitivity. Oral erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic used to treat acne, does not typically cause photosensitive skin reactions. Topical azelaic acid and clindamycin are also used to treat acne but are not known to cause photosensitivity. Topical benzoyl peroxide may cause local skin reactions but is not associated with photosensitivity. It is important to be aware of the potential side-effects of acne treatments and to take precautions to protect the skin from UV radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with vaginal bleeding and is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit. The ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy, but the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). What is the appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Treat immediately with oral erythromycin & intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin only

      Explanation:

      GBS is a type of bacteria commonly found in the vagina of many women. While it is generally harmless, it can cause serious infections in newborns, leading to significant health problems and even death.

      If GBS is detected during pregnancy, it does not require immediate treatment as it will not reduce the likelihood of transmission to the baby during delivery. However, intravenous benzylpenicillin or clindamycin is necessary during labor to reduce the risk of transmission. This applies to GBS found in vaginal swabs and urine, and appropriate antibiotics are required for GBS urinary tract infections during pregnancy.

      There is currently no screening program for GBS in the UK, and vaginal swabs should only be taken when clinically necessary. Women who have had a previous baby infected with GBS are offered intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin in future pregnancies.

      (Source – RCOG guidelines, GBS in pregnancy).

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of bloody diarrhoea 10 times per day associated with colicky abdominal pain.

      Observations are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 90/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation 97% on air. The examination is unremarkable apart from diffuse abdominal tenderness.

      Stool analysis revealed Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe symptoms of Campylobacter infection such as bloody diarrhea and more than eight stools per day, treatment with clarithromycin may be necessary. While Campylobacter infection is typically self-limiting, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends antibiotics for severe cases or for immunocompromised patients. NICE also advises antibiotic treatment for severe symptoms or if symptoms persist for more than one week. Supportive treatment may be sufficient for mild symptoms in immunocompetent patients. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative to clarithromycin, but strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated. Metronidazole and oral vancomycin are not recommended for Campylobacter treatment, but are first-line options for Clostridium difficile.

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.8
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man arrives at the hospital accompanied by his spouse. He appears...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man arrives at the hospital accompanied by his spouse. He appears restless, agitated, sweaty, and tremulous. According to his wife, the patient has been consuming at least half a bottle of vodka daily for several months. However, he has significantly reduced his alcohol intake in the past few days due to a lack of funds. His last drink was approximately eight hours ago. What medication would be the best option for treating this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      In the management of alcohol withdrawal, decreasing doses of long-acting benzodiazepines are commonly used. This is because long-term alcohol use can cause an imbalance in the brain’s excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to symptoms of an overactive sympathetic nervous system when alcohol is suddenly stopped. These symptoms can include restlessness, sweating, tremors, and agitation, and can even progress to seizures and delirium tremens. Long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, potentiate the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and can help mitigate the risk of seizures and other withdrawal symptoms. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant, may also be used as a second-line medication if benzodiazepines are not appropriate. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is not typically used in alcohol withdrawal as it does not reduce the risk of seizures. Lorazepam, a short-acting benzodiazepine, is also not typically used in this context as long-acting benzodiazepines are preferred for their longer half-life.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15.9
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old male patient complains of a painful rash on his forehead that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient complains of a painful rash on his forehead that has been present for one day. The patient has no significant medical history. Upon examination, a vesicular rash is observed on the right side in the distribution of the ophthalmic nerve. There is no discharge or pus, and no ocular involvement is present. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir for 7-10 days

      Explanation:

      In the case of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, topical antiviral treatment is not recommended. The first line of treatment is oral acyclovir, which should be initiated promptly and continued for 7-10 days. If there are any indications of ocular involvement, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist immediately. While steroids can be administered concurrently, they do not decrease the likelihood of post-herpetic neuralgia. Topical mupirocin is not an appropriate treatment option.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her menstrual cycle. After how much time can she consider it a reliable form of birth control?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man complains of pain in his right eye that worsens with movement. Upon examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.8
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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family. The patient recently graduated from university and has had trouble adapting and fitting in. His parents note that he has always been a loner, preferring to stay in his room. They hoped graduation would bring him out of his shell. He has not made any new friends, but only his parents are bothered by this. Instead of socialising, he seems to have continued to stay alone in his room.
      On interview, he is withdrawn and quiet. His range of affect is restricted, and he displays no clear happiness or joy when discussing activities that he reports enjoying. He denies any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no suicidal or homicidal intent. He reports that he has no change in his sleep, appetite, energy or concentration.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Psychiatric Conditions

      Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under the weird cluster of disorders. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, but they do not have weird/magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder). They classically have a very flat affect and no interest in interpersonal relationships, preferring to work and play alone. It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia, avoidant personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder, as they have distinct features and treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.4
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  • Question 29 - During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman....

    Incorrect

    • During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman. Her vision is not affected. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Both corneal opacities and optic neuritis can be caused by amiodarone therapy.

      There are certain drugs that can cause problems with the eyes. For example, steroids can lead to the development of cataracts, while amiodarone and indomethacin can cause corneal opacities. Ethambutol, amiodarone, and metronidazole are known to cause optic neuritis. Additionally, chloroquine and quinine can result in retinopathy. It’s important to note that sildenafil, a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, can cause both blue discoloration and non-arteritic anterior ischemic neuropathy. It’s crucial to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any ocular problems arise while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      28.6
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  • Question 30 - A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion...

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus. She has been experiencing vulval itching and soreness for the past three years, despite using topical steroid treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (3/6) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (5/7) 71%
Respiratory Medicine (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Passmed