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  • Question 1 - John has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease three years ago. He has come...

    Correct

    • John has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease three years ago. He has come to see you for a regular check-up. He reports that he has been experiencing slower movements, a more pronounced tremor, and difficulty falling asleep at night. He is currently taking co-careldopa 100/25 mg three times a day. What recommendations would you make?

      Your Answer: Liaise with Parkinson's specialist nurse

      Explanation:

      Charles’ condition appears to be worsening and requires a higher level of care for the titration or adjustment of his Parkinson’s medications. Therefore, it is recommended that he consult with the specialist nurse. Monitoring for 3 months is not suitable in this case, and changing the Parkinson’s medications without proper expertise is not advisable. Additionally, Zopiclone is not an appropriate treatment for the exacerbation of Parkinson’s symptoms.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains in both feet that have been ongoing for several months. On examination, she has easily palpable pedal pulses but reduced light touch sensation in both feet up to her ankles. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 76 mmol/mol (9.1%) with normal full blood count, renal and liver function. She is currently taking metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and simvastatin 40 mg ON. You discuss the importance of tighter glycemic control and potential medications that may help alleviate her symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for her burning foot pain?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The key points include offering a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment for all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia). If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs should be offered, with consideration for switching again if necessary. Tramadol should only be considered for acute rescue therapy, and capsaicin cream may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Nortriptyline is no longer recommended as an alternative to amitriptyline, and lamotrigine and venlafaxine are not recommended in non-specialized settings. It is important to note that there are many plausible options for medication, but the test is to select the one listed in the options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.

      Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve C7

      Explanation:

      The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - For the long-term secondary prevention of stroke, which antiplatelet drug regime is the...

    Incorrect

    • For the long-term secondary prevention of stroke, which antiplatelet drug regime is the most appropriate first choice according to current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Secondary Prevention after Stroke or Transient Ischaemic Attack

      According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (2013), the first choice for antiplatelet therapy in secondary prevention after a stroke or transient ischaemic attack is clopidogrel at a daily dose of 75 mg. In cases where clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole at a dose of 200 mg twice a day can be used in combination with low dose aspirin. If both clopidogrel and modified-release dipyridamole are not suitable, aspirin alone can be used. And if both clopidogrel and aspirin are contraindicated or not tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole alone can be used. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective secondary prevention after a stroke or transient ischaemic attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements

      Explanation:

      Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man visits the clinic to discuss altering his medication. He experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the clinic to discuss altering his medication. He experiences focal onset impaired awareness (complex partial) seizures and is currently taking carbamazepine. However, his seizure control is inadequate and he needs a medication change.
      What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medications for Focal Seizures: Options and Considerations

      When it comes to treating focal seizures, there are several antiepileptic medications available. Carbamazepine and lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, while levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, and sodium valproate can be considered if the first-line options are unsuitable or not tolerated. If the initial medication is ineffective, an alternative from these five should be offered.

      Clobazam can be used as an adjunctive treatment for focal seizures, but only when poor control persists despite the use of first-line medications. Gabapentin can also be offered as an adjunctive treatment, but only after all first-line medications have been tried. Phenytoin and topiramate are second-line adjunctive agents that should only be considered if the first-line medications are ineffective or not tolerated.

      It’s important to note that each patient’s situation is unique, and the choice of medication should be based on individual factors such as age, comorbidities, and potential side effects. Close monitoring and regular follow-up with a healthcare provider are essential to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. Symptoms have appeared over 18 months. He also reports urinary incontinence. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multi system atrophy

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative Disorders: Differentiating Multiple System Atrophy, Progressive Supranuclear Palsy, Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration, Multiple Sclerosis, and Parkinson’s Disease

      Neurodegenerative disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. Here are some key features to distinguish between multiple system atrophy, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal ganglionic degeneration, multiple sclerosis, and Parkinson’s disease.

      Multiple System Atrophy: This rapidly progressive disease affects multiple systems and presents with akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs, urinary dysfunction, and autonomic features. No treatment can halt progression, and the mean survival is 6-9 years.

      Progressive Supranuclear Palsy: This disorder affects cognition, eye movements, and posture, resembling multi-system atrophy. However, cardiovascular autonomic dysfunction is not a feature.

      Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration: This rare disease involves the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, causing movement and cognitive dysfunction. Signs of apraxia, alien-limb phenomena, cortical sensory loss, and cortical reflex myoclonus can help distinguish it from multi-system atrophy.

      Multiple Sclerosis: This disease presents with symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.

      Parkinson’s Disease: Parkinsonian symptoms can occur in multi-system atrophy, but rapid progression, autonomic features, rigidity, and poor response to levodopa can help differentiate it from Parkinson’s disease.

      In summary, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical features can aid in distinguishing between these neurodegenerative disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband noticed that she still knew the names of close friends, but she was disorientated in time and place, and seemed perplexed. She could follow complex commands, but was unable to recall something she had been told 5 minutes before. The episode resolved after 10 hours, although she did not remember the event. She has a history of migraine, but the episode of memory loss was not associated with headache.
      What is the most probable clinical diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Transient Global Amnesia (TGA) is a sudden onset condition that profoundly impairs anterograde memory. Patients are disoriented in time and place, but not in person. Retrograde memory is variably disturbed, lasting for hours to years. Patients recognize their memory deficits and repeatedly ask questions to orient themselves. Immediate and procedural memory are preserved, and patients can perform complex tasks. The attack resolves gradually, with subjective recovery occurring in two-thirds of patients within 2-12 hours. Precipitating events include strenuous exercise, intense emotion, and medical procedures. Differential diagnosis includes migraine, transient epileptic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign

      Explanation:

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.

      CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.

      Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.

      Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is 3 times more common in women

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a duration of up to 72 hours. During an attack, patients often seek a quiet, dark room to alleviate their symptoms. Some patients may experience an aura before the onset of a migraine attack, which is a visual disturbance that can last up to an hour.

      Migraine is more common in women, with a prevalence of 18% compared to 6% in men. There are several triggers that can precipitate a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. The diagnosis of migraine is based on specific criteria established by the International Headache Society, which includes the frequency and duration of attacks, the location and quality of pain, and the presence of associated symptoms.

      There are also variants of migraine, such as hemiplegic migraine, which is characterized by motor weakness as a manifestation of aura. This type of migraine is rare, affecting only around 1 in 1,000 migraine patients, and is more common in adolescent females.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and diagnostic criteria of migraine can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical myelopathy in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI Cervical spine

      Explanation:

      When cervical myelopathy is suspected, the preferred diagnostic test is an MRI of the cervical spine. This test can reveal disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy, as well as any accompanying cord signal change, making it the gold standard for diagnosis.

      In cases where a patient cannot undergo an MRI, a CT myelogram may be used as the first line investigation. Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing cervical myelopathy, although they may reveal osteoarthritic changes such as osteophytes.

      If the clinical picture is unclear, nerve conduction studies and EMG may be performed to rule out other lower motor neuron disorders. However, when there is a strong suspicion of cervical myelopathy, an MRI of the cervical spine should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs. The sensations occur only at night when she is inactive and sometimes occur in bed making it difficult to get off to sleep. There are no abnormal signs on examination of the legs and she is otherwise in good health.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options

      Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move, typically in the legs, accompanied by abnormal sensations such as tingling, aching, or burning. The symptoms tend to worsen in the evening and are temporarily relieved by movement. While some people experience only minor discomfort, others may suffer from severe pain and disruption of sleep, leading to a significant impairment in their quality of life.

      The prevalence of restless legs syndrome increases with age and can be associated with various medical conditions and drugs. Iron deficiency, pregnancy, and stage 5 chronic kidney disease are some of the medical conditions that can cause restless legs syndrome, while antidepressants, antiepileptic, and antipsychotic drugs are some of the medications that can trigger the symptoms.

      Treatment is necessary only for moderate to severe cases of restless legs syndrome. For idiopathic restless leg syndrome, the first-line treatment options include non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole, ropinirole, or rotigotine, or alpha-2-delta ligands such as pregabalin or gabapentin.

      In summary, restless legs syndrome is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disruption of sleep. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 15-year-old-girl attends with her parents, reporting occasional arm twitches and electric shocks...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old-girl attends with her parents, reporting occasional arm twitches and electric shocks in her arms that come without warning. These symptoms are more common in the morning and have been present for the last month. The girl is otherwise well with no other symptoms, but admits to feeling stressed due to upcoming mock exams at school. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to paediatric neurology

      Explanation:

      When it comes to juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, patients may experience absences and/or myoclonus before eventually progressing to generalised seizures. This type of epilepsy is quite common and typically develops during adolescence. Initially, patients may present with either absences or intermittent myoclonus of the upper limbs. Within a few months of the onset of the myoclonus, they will usually develop generalised tonic clonic seizures. It is important to refer patients promptly to paediatric neurology to confirm the diagnosis and begin treatment. While exam stress guides or CAMHS referral may be necessary in the future, it is important to first investigate the neurological symptoms. Additionally, it is not recommended to start selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like fluoxetine in children in primary care. Finally, arranging an MRI of the brain will likely require secondary care.

      Epilepsy Syndromes in Children

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects people of all ages, including children. There are different types of epilepsy syndromes that affect children, each with its own set of symptoms and treatments. Infantile spasms, also known as West’s syndrome, is a type of epilepsy that begins in the first few months of life. It is characterized by brief spasms that involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and limbs, followed by the extension of the arms. This syndrome is usually secondary to serious neurological abnormalities or may be idiopathic. Typical absence seizures, on the other hand, usually occur in children aged 4-8 years and are characterized by a sudden loss of awareness that lasts for a few seconds. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is a more severe form of epilepsy that may be an extension of infantile spasms. It is characterized by atypical absences, falls, and jerks, and is often associated with moderate to severe mental handicap. Benign rolandic epilepsy is the most common type of epilepsy in childhood and is more common in males. It is characterized by paraesthesia, usually on waking up. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, also known as Janz syndrome, typically begins in the teenage years and is more common in girls. It is characterized by infrequent generalized seizures, daytime absences, and sudden, shock-like myoclonic seizures. Treatment for these epilepsy syndromes varies depending on the type and severity of the symptoms, but may include medications such as sodium valproate, ethosuximide, steroids, or a ketogenic diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is seeking information about driving regulations for individuals with epilepsy. He is currently on sodium valproate monotherapy and had his last seizure 2 years ago. What is the minimum duration of seizure freedom required before he can drive a car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      It is common for people to have questions about the DVLA rules regarding epilepsy, given the high number of individuals affected by this condition and the potential risks associated with having a seizure while driving. In this case, the patient has a history of epilepsy and has not experienced a seizure in the past four years. According to the DVLA guidelines, individuals with epilepsy may be eligible for a driving license if they have been seizure-free for at least one year, including minor seizures and other signs of epilepsy such as limb jerking, auras, and absences. This also includes episodes that do not involve a loss of consciousness.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided frontotemporal headache over the past few days. The headache seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day, and lasts between 15 minutes to 2 hours. He feels sick at the time and is unable to lie still. He had a similar episode last year.

      During a headache-free period, a complete neurological examination is entirely normal.

      What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s demographics, description of pain, and duration of symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing a cluster headache. These headaches typically last between 15 minutes to 2 hours and occur in clusters over a period of time. The fact that the patient had a similar headache a year ago also supports this diagnosis.

      A carotid artery dissection would cause persistent symptoms, including neck pain and neurological symptoms, and would not explain the same symptoms occurring a year ago.

      Migraines usually present with unilateral, episodic headaches, but patients tend to want to lie still during an attack, which is the opposite of what is seen in cluster headaches. Additionally, migraines typically last longer than 15 minutes to 2 hours and do not occur in clusters over a period of time.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in women over the age of 50 and tends to have a specific trigger, such as brushing teeth. The pain is typically more facial in distribution rather than frontotemporal.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - What is a common characteristic of pseudoseizures? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common characteristic of pseudoseizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incontinence

      Explanation:

      Pseudoseizures: Understanding the Disorder

      Pseudoseizure or dissociated non-epileptic attack disorder is a condition that primarily affects disturbed females, with a ratio of 8:1. This disorder is characterized by erratic movements, closed eyes, and resisted eye opening, which are not typical features of epilepsy. However, lateral tongue bite and incontinence may occur, which are common in epilepsy. Patients with pseudoseizures often resist and fight any intervention.

      Individuals with pseudoseizures often have a history of abuse or previous illness behavior. These attacks frequently occur in doctors’ surgeries and out-patient departments, and they usually happen in the presence of others. Previous illness behavior is also common in individuals with pseudoseizures.

      In summary, pseudoseizures are a disorder that can be challenging to diagnose and treat. Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of this disorder is crucial in providing appropriate care and support to individuals affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old female visited her doctor with a persistent headache that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female visited her doctor with a persistent headache that has been ongoing for the past 4 weeks. The headache is mainly felt in the frontal area and she has not experienced any other symptoms such as visual disturbances, nausea, or vomiting. The patient reports waking up with the headache and it persists throughout the day.

      The patient is currently taking lansoprazole for a gastric ulcer, inhalers for asthma, regular painkillers for fibromyalgia, and has a Mirena coil for contraception.

      Which medication is most likely contributing to the patient's headaches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-dydramol

      Explanation:

      Medication overuse headaches are often caused by regular use of opioids like co-dydramol, which is likely the case for this patient. The other medications mentioned are unlikely to be a factor in her symptoms.

      Understanding Medication Overuse Headache

      Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.

      According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 76-year-old male with prostate cancer visits his doctor complaining of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male with prostate cancer visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain accompanied by shooting pains down both legs to the knee. During the examination, the doctor observes decreased tone in the lower limbs and is unable to elicit ankle and knee reflexes.

      What is the probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauda equina

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of cauda equina syndrome includes lower back pain, reduced perianal sensation, and sciatica, with urinary incontinence as a late sign. Bilateral sciatica and lower back pain are typical symptoms. Referred hip pain may be felt in the knee and lower back, but it would not be associated with sciatica or lower motor neuron signs in the legs. A conus medullaris lesion would present with leg weakness and early painless retention and constipation. A sciatic nerve lesion would not be bilateral, so it is unlikely in a patient with bilateral sciatica and lower back pain. A bilateral L5 nerve root lesion would cause sciatica that may extend to the toes, numbness in the foot and/or toes (especially on the side of the big toe), and foot drop, but ankle and knee reflexes would remain intact.

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.

      The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.

      It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines over the last half-year. She usually experiences aura before the onset of the headache. During the history-taking process, what is the maximum duration of aura that NICE and the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) consider to be normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      The typical duration of an aura is from 5 to 60 minutes.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon examination, there is weakness in the right triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent, and there is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is responsible for supplying the back part of the upper limb and originates from the brachial plexus, carrying fibers from spinal nerves C5-8 and T1. It supplies the triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus muscles, with the myotome of the triceps and extensor digitorum being C7 and that of the brachioradialis being C6. Both radial nerve palsy and C7 radiculopathy can result in an absent triceps jerk, and sensory loss in patients with radial nerve palsy is typically at the anatomical snuffbox, although sensation is usually normal. Trauma or entrapment, particularly between muscle heads, can damage the radial nerve, with the extent of muscle power loss depending on the lesion level. The brachioradialis muscle flexes the forearm at the elbow and tends to supinate when the forearm is pronated and pronate when the forearm is supinated. The extensor digitorum muscle extends the medial four digits of the hand. Brachial plexus injuries can cause weak triceps, wrist drop, and possibly median and ulnar nerve involvement. Radiculopathy is a mechanical compression of a nerve root, usually resulting in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension, decreased sensation in a dermatomal distribution, and pain in the neck, shoulder, and/or arm. The posterior interosseous nerve is a deep motor branch of the radial nerve that emerges above the elbow between the brachioradialis and brachialis muscles, and compression can result in finger drop, radial wrist deviation on extension, and proximal forearm pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two months ago for which she takes apixaban. She presents to her GP following a 20-minute episode of unilateral arm weakness that occurred 2 hours ago and has now completely resolved. Her neurological examination is normal.

      What should her initial management be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate referral to the emergency department for imaging

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and is taking warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder, they must be admitted immediately for imaging to rule out a haemorrhage.

      For patients without these conditions, administering 300 mg of aspirin immediately and then evaluating them by a specialist within 24 hours is recommended. The primary secondary prevention method is taking clopidogrel 75 mg once daily.

      Referring patients to neurology as a routine measure would cause an unnecessary delay in treatment.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history of Parkinson's disease. He is currently on co-beneldopa 650mg five times daily. The patient reports excessive drooling of saliva, which has not improved with speech and language therapy. What would be the best initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start glycopyrronium bromide

      Explanation:

      To manage drooling of saliva in people with Parkinson’s disease, the recommended first line of medical treatment is glycopyrronium bromide. If this medication is not effective, not well-tolerated, or contraindicated, it may be necessary to refer the patient to a specialist service for botulinum toxin A. While scopolamine is also an antimuscarinic that can be used for drooling in Parkinson’s disease, it carries a higher risk of adverse cognitive effects. Increasing co-beneldopa will not have any impact on non-motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including drooling. Atropine can be used, but sublingual atropine ophthalmic solution is preferred over inhalers.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split...

    Incorrect

    • What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily living component and mobility component

      Explanation:

      The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old man with diabetic neuropathy is being evaluated. He has been dealing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with diabetic neuropathy is being evaluated. He has been dealing with type 2 diabetes for approximately 25 years and has been experiencing painful diabetic neuropathy in his feet and lower legs for the past year. Initially, he was prescribed duloxetine, but it did not provide relief even at the highest dose of 120 mg/day. He was then switched to amitriptyline three months ago, and the dosage has been increased to 75 mg ON. He has not experienced any significant side effects with amitriptyline, but it has not improved his symptoms significantly. He has come to discuss his options with you today and has been taking amitriptyline 75 mg ON for the last six weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his neuropathic symptoms pharmacologically?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in a topical lidocaine patch

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Neuropathic Pain in Non-Specialist Settings

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, especially in non-specialist settings. To help healthcare professionals provide effective treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain.

      The key points of the guidelines are as follows:

      – For all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia), offer a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment.
      – If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, offer one of the remaining three drugs and consider switching again if necessary.
      – Consider tramadol only if acute rescue therapy is needed.
      – Consider capsaicin cream for people with localised neuropathic pain who wish to avoid or cannot tolerate oral treatments.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective treatment for neuropathic pain and improve the quality of life for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache that has been bothering her for about a week. She has been feeling more tired than usual and has been experiencing muscle aches and pains. She has also noticed pain when chewing. Apart from these symptoms, she is in good health.
      During the physical examination, an unusual finding is observed.
      Which component of the physical examination is most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries

      Explanation:

      Clinical Examination for Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a condition that should be suspected in patients over 50 years of age who present with a new headache. The headache is often persistent, severe, and worse at night. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries may reveal marked tenderness and signs of inflammation, such as erythema, nodularity, and reduced pulsation. Jaw claudication when chewing is also a common feature. Here are some clinical examination techniques that can help diagnose temporal arteritis:

      1. Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries: Marked scalp tenderness is common in patients with temporal arteritis. Approximately half of patients exhibit signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation, which can be detected by palpation.

      2. Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness: Neck examination may reveal a limitation in the range of movement of the neck and crepitation, especially in tension-type headaches. However, the history in this patient, including generalised muscle aches, jaw claudication and temporal headache are more suggestive of temporal arteritis.

      3. Blood pressure (BP) measurement: Raised BP is very rarely a cause of headache. However, patients often think it is and may expect their BP to be measured. Nevertheless, this would neither confirm nor refute a diagnosis of temporal arteritis, the likely diagnosis here.

      4. Examination of the jaw and bite: Routine examination of the jaw and bite is unlikely to contribute to the diagnosis here. The jaw pain here is suggestive of claudication, which is a feature associated with temporal arteritis.

      5. Examination of the optic fundi: The optic fundi should always be examined in patients presenting with headache. However, this patient is not exhibiting any features that suggest a raised intracranial pressure.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical examination techniques can help diagnose temporal arteritis in patients presenting with a new headache, especially in those over 50 years of age. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries, examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness, and assessment of jaw claudication are particularly useful in this regard.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness in his head, affecting the frontal and occipital regions and radiating to his neck. The symptoms have been present for four months and occur most days, usually soon after he wakes up in the morning. He is able to work despite the headaches, but they tend to resolve with paracetamol, which he tries to avoid taking most days. He works in a high-pressure environment where there have been recent layoffs. On examination, there are no concerning findings, and he denies feeling depressed.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Chronic Tension-Type Headaches

      Chronic tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The following is a guide to the treatment and management of chronic TTH.

      Diagnosis and Explanation
      Patients with chronic TTH should receive a positive diagnosis and explanation of their condition. It is important to reassure patients that TTH is self-limiting and not a serious condition.

      Pharmacological Treatment
      Amitriptyline is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of chronic TTH. A starting dose of 10-15 mg at night can be increased to 150 mg, but usually, no more than 20-30 mg is needed. If higher doses are required, this may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as depression. The dose can be reduced once improvement is maintained for four to six months or held if headaches recur.

      Non-Pharmacological Approaches
      Non-pharmacological approaches to TTH often incorporate relaxation and physical and psychological therapies.

      Neuroimaging
      Neuroimaging should only be considered to rule out a serious underlying cause if there is a history of new, severe headache that is progressive and associated with neurological abnormalities on examination. Atypical aura, visual disturbance, and vomiting may also be seen.

      Medication Overuse Headache
      Codeine should be avoided in patients with chronic TTH as there is a risk of developing medication-overuse headache, given the frequency of headaches seen in this case.

      Migraine Prophylaxis
      Propanolol is used as prophylaxis for recurrent migraine. However, this medication is not suitable for patients with chronic TTH as their headaches do not fit the diagnosis of migraine.

      Mental Health Referral
      Patients with chronic TTH may benefit from stress management techniques, but referral to the local mental health team is not necessary unless the patient exhibits symptoms of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and a lopsided smile. On examination, he has lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be prescribed high-dose prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Facial nerve palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy, is a condition that affects the muscles of the face and can cause drooping, weakness, or paralysis. Lower motor neurone (LMN) facial nerve palsy is the most common type and has a good prognosis, with most cases resolving spontaneously within three weeks. While the cause is often unknown, it is believed to be related to a viral infection. Treatment with high-dose prednisolone has been shown to improve outcomes, with up to half of patients who do not spontaneously recover achieving full resolution with steroids.

      Upper motor neurone palsies, on the other hand, are associated with preservation of frowning and should be urgently referred for imaging and possible thrombolysis if a stroke is suspected. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared, allowing the patient to wrinkle their forehead.

      It is important to carefully examine the ear in cases of LMN palsy, as it may be a sign of zoster or middle ear infection (Ramsay-Hunt syndrome). In these cases, a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is typically given.

      Overall, while facial nerve palsy can be a concerning condition, the prognosis is generally good for LMN palsy and prompt treatment can improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
      On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors

      Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.

      Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden onset weakness and numbness in her legs....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden onset weakness and numbness in her legs. She has a history of treated hypertension and occasional cigarette smoking. Her mother passed away in her early forties due to a heart problem. On examination, her cranial nerves and upper limbs appear normal. However, there is increased tone in her legs bilaterally, with brisk reflexes and up-going plantars. She has reduced power to 3/5 in all modalities below the hips and has lost pain and light touch sensation to the waist. Vibration and joint-position sense are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anterior Cord Syndrome: Causes and Effects

      Anterior cord syndrome occurs when the blood supply to the anterior portion of the spinal cord is interrupted. This portion of the spinal cord is supplied by the anterior spinal artery, which receives branches from the aorta. Therefore, lesions within the aorta, such as aneurysm or atherosclerosis, are the most common causes of anterior cord syndrome. Other causes include vasculitis, polycythemia, sickle cell disease, decompression sickness, cocaine use, and collagen and elastin disorders.

      Anterior spinal artery thrombosis affects the corticospinal tracts and spinothalamic tracts, which are responsible for motor neurons and pain/temperature sensation. These tracts are located at the front of the spine. Posterior columns, which carry vibration and joint-position sense, are not affected. As a spinal lesion, anterior cord syndrome is purely upper motor neuronal, resulting in brisk reflexes and up-going plantars.

      In contrast, other conditions that affect both upper and lower motor neurons will produce a combination of up-going plantars with absent knee jerks. Understanding the causes and effects of anterior cord syndrome can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 31 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 33 - A 45-year-old man developed episodes of dizziness, tinnitus and mild left-sided hearing loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man developed episodes of dizziness, tinnitus and mild left-sided hearing loss. The symptoms presented over several months and were slowly progressive. Neurological examination and otoscopy were normal. Audiometry revealed a mild degree of sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.
      Select the single most appropriate next course of action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI scan

      Explanation:

      Acoustic Neuroma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. The most common symptoms include unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unsteadiness, tinnitus, headache, mastoid pain or otalgia, facial numbness, diplopia, and vertigo. If a patient presents with these symptoms, an MRI scan is the recommended diagnostic tool, as CT scans do not have sufficient resolution.

      In most cases, the initial symptom of vestibular schwannomas is unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, which may have been present for 1-5 years. The loss is gradually progressive in 80-90% of cases and sudden in 10-20%. This sudden loss may be caused by occlusion of the internal auditory artery.

      Many patients with vestibular schwannomas are now observed for any signs of change over time, rather than operated on immediately. Microsurgery or stereotactic radiosurgery are the main treatment methods. These treatments are effective in reducing the size of the tumor and improving symptoms.

      In conclusion, acoustic neuroma is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms, and an MRI scan is the recommended diagnostic tool. Treatment options include observation, microsurgery, and stereotactic radiosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 34 - A 65-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia presents as an emergency. She was at home when she suddenly experienced weakness in her right arm and slurred speech. Her husband noticed that her face appeared droopy on one side and she had difficulty raising her right arm. The episode lasted for over an hour before things returned to normal. Her husband brought her to the clinic for evaluation. On examination, her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg, she is in sinus rhythm at 72 bpm and there are no focal neurological findings. She reports feeling back to normal. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and arrange urgent assessment by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance for TIA Management

      The old ABCD2 scoring system for TIA management has been replaced by updated guidance. If a patient has had a TIA within the last week, immediate administration of 300 mg aspirin is recommended. Urgent assessment by a specialist stroke physician should be arranged within 24 hours, unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant, in which case immediate admission for urgent assessment and imaging is necessary. If the patient is taking low-dose aspirin regularly, the current dose should be continued until reviewed by a specialist. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. These updated guidelines aim to improve the management of TIA and reduce the risk of stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 35 - A home visit is requested by the husband of a 72-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • A home visit is requested by the husband of a 72-year-old woman who is experiencing difficulty walking. Upon arrival, the patient reports weakness in her left arm since mid-morning and displays some facial asymmetry when smiling. Apart from a history of hypertension managed with ramipril, she is generally healthy. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dial 999 for emergency admission

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has not responded to traditional treatment. During her visit with her GP, she expresses interest in obtaining a medical cannabis prescription after reading about its success in treating similar conditions online.

      What should the GP do in response to Samantha's request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient’s consultant to consider initiating medicinal cannabis

      Explanation:

      Current guidelines dictate that cannabis-based products without a license can only be prescribed by doctors who are registered specialists with the General Medical Council. Furthermore, doctors should only prescribe these products for disorders within their area of expertise when there is clear evidence or published guidelines to support it.

      The first prescription of cannabis-based medicinal products must be initiated by a specialist medical practitioner in a hospital setting.

      There is evidence supporting the efficacy of cannabis-based products, which is why the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) supports their prescription.

      The THC:CBD spray is available on the NHS in certain situations. It is inappropriate to advise patients to purchase it online as the safety and quality of the product cannot be guaranteed.

      While the THC:CBD spray is the appropriate treatment, it should not be initiated in primary care.

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 37 - A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. She has diabetes and has not attended the diabetic follow-up clinic for a year. Eight months ago she had a mild stroke that affected her right side. She was also found to have atrial fibrillation, for which she is taking warfarin.
      On examination, she is obese. She has normal muscle power. Her tone is slightly increased on the right, with right-sided reflexes are slightly brisker than those on the left. Pinprick is reduced over the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Anterolateral Thigh Pain in a Stroke Patient with Increased Reflexes and Tone

      The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This condition typically causes pain and sensory abnormalities in the anterolateral thigh and is more common in obese individuals. The patient’s increased reflexes and tone on the right side are likely due to the stroke she suffered seven months ago.

      Other possible causes of anterolateral thigh pain and weakness include diabetic femoral nerve amyotrophy, femoral hernia, and iliopsoas haematoma from warfarin use. However, these conditions are less likely based on the patient’s presentation.

      Thalamic pain from a previous stroke is another potential cause, although it is not typically as well-localized as the patient’s symptoms suggest. It is important to consider the patient’s diabetes as a factor that may increase the susceptibility of any peripheral nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening muscle weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last 10 years. The patient says he had never been interested in sports at school and that his father had problems with his gait for years. On examination, cognition, bulbar function and cranial nerves are all normal. Examination of the limbs shows distal symmetrical wasting and weakness in his arms and legs. There is areflexia. Tone is normal. There are no visible fasciculation. Vibration, pain and temperature are impaired in both hands and feet. There is kyphoscoliosis and bilateral pes cavus.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: A Comparison

      When presented with a patient exhibiting neuromuscular symptoms and signs, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In this case, the presence of musculoskeletal deformities and a family history of gait difficulties suggest a hereditary basis for the patient’s condition. The following are some potential diagnoses to consider:

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease (CMT): This is the most common inherited polyneuropathy, affecting approximately 1 in 2500 people. It typically presents with distal limb muscle wasting and sensory loss, with proximal progression over time. However, the disease course can vary greatly.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Neurological features of this deficiency may include peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, skeletal defects will be absent.

      Acquired Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP): This is a chronically progressive or relapsing symmetric sensorimotor disorder that lacks the skeletal deformities of CMT.

      Motor Neurone Disease (MND): This tends to present with early signs of weakness in an ankle or leg, or a weak grip. It then progresses, leading to problems with slurred speech or swallowing. However, this patient’s relatively young age and symptoms suggest an inherited neurological problem rather than MND.

      Spinal Muscular Atrophy: This is a spectrum of genetically inherited disorders that present with muscle weakness and wasting. It lacks the sensory loss of CMT.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 39 - During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you...

    Incorrect

    • During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you see a 34-year-old man who has a background of depression, asthma and a traumatic spinal cord injury. The nurses report him being more distressed and agitated over the last two days.

      On examination he is profusely sweating in the upper body and face, his blood pressure is 180/110mmHg, heart rate 60/min, oxygen saturations 99%, chest clear to auscultation and Glasgow coma scale 15, calves soft and non-tender, pupils equal and reactive. He admits to drinking 15 units/week and smokes 10 cigarettes/day. Regular medications include salbutamol, oxycodone, co-codamol 30/500 as required and prophylactic dose low molecular weight heparin.

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is faecal impaction or urinary retention. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, which in this case is likely faecal impaction. Risk factors for impaction include immobility, certain medications, anatomic conditions, and neuropsychiatric conditions. The patient may have developed impaction due to the use of oxycodone and Co-codamol without laxatives. This is the only answer that would result in localised flushing above the level of the spinal cord injury.

      Alcohol withdrawal is an incorrect answer as the patient’s alcohol consumption is not high enough to cause physical withdrawal symptoms.

      Pulmonary embolism is also an incorrect answer as it would present with different symptoms such as tachycardia and signs of a DVT.

      Serotonin syndrome is an incorrect answer as it would not cause localised sweating and may present with other symptoms such as tachycardia and dilated pupils.

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her left hand. She complains of a dull aching pain in her forearm, which is made worse by carrying a shopping bag. On examination you find weakness of the left abductor pollicis brevis and mild weakness of thumb flexion. Finger abduction and adduction appear to be within normal limits. There is sensory loss to pinprick mainly affecting the left thumb and index finger. Phalen's sign is positive. Sensorimotor examination of the right hand is normal. The deep tendon reflexes are symmetrical.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the right median nerve in the carpal tunnel

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can be caused by pregnancy, fluid retention, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, and hereditary tendency to pressure palsy. The symptoms include weakness and sensory loss in the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. Phalen’s sign, which involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds, can help diagnose the condition. Nerve conduction studies can confirm the diagnosis. Pronator teres syndrome, which is rare, can also cause forearm pain, but carpal tunnel syndrome is more likely in pregnant patients with a positive Phalen’s sign. Compression of the ulnar nerve produces symptoms at the medial side of the forearm and hand, while brachial plexopathy and C8 nerve root irritation usually involve the length of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 42 - You are in a consultation with a 60-year-old man who has just received...

    Incorrect

    • You are in a consultation with a 60-year-old man who has just received a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Despite experiencing mild symptoms, his neurologist has presented him with various treatment options. Which therapy is known to provide the most significant enhancement in symptom management and daily activities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levodopa

      Explanation:

      Levodopa is the antiparkinson drug that is linked to the most significant enhancement in symptoms and daily functioning.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory. He has felt more forgetful over the last six months; his wife mentions that he seems to ask the same questions repeatedly.
      The GP decides to conduct a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
      What is the most appropriate advice to provide the patient before this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The MMSE involves tests of immediate and delayed recall

      Explanation:

      The MMSE: A Test of Cognition and Recall

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used test to assess cognitive function in patients. It consists of 30 items that evaluate various aspects of cognition, including immediate and delayed recall, fine motor skills, calculation, language, and comprehension. One of the tasks involves asking the patient to recall three words immediately and later on in the test. A score of 27 or lower on the MMSE may indicate dementia.

      While the MMSE does test fine motor skills by asking the patient to copy intersecting pentagons, it may not be the best screening tool for general practice. GPs may find other tests, such as the 6-Item Cognitive Impairment Test or the GP Assessment of Cognition Test, more suitable for their needs.

      It’s important to note that the MMSE is not designed to assess affective disorders or delirium. Therefore, it should not be used for this purpose. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for clinicians to establish a baseline understanding of a patient’s cognitive state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in her right eye and pain on eye movement for the past 6 days. Upon examination, the doctor finds that her acuity is reduced to 6/36, she has impaired colour vision, a relatively afferent pupillary defect, and a swollen, pale optic disc. The doctor diagnoses her with optic neuritis. The patient mentions that she has heard about a connection between optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks for more information. What is the best advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Demyelinating Optic Neuritis and its Relationship to Multiple Sclerosis

      Acute demyelinating optic neuritis (ADON) is a condition that can be associated with multiple sclerosis (MS). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS, as the presence of white matter abnormalities on MRI of the brain increases the risk of MS. The Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT) revealed that the risk of developing MS at 15-year follow-up was approximately 25% for patients with no white matter lesions on MRI compared to 75% for those with lesions.

      Interferon-beta treatment can increase the time interval to relapse in MS, particularly in patients with ADON and white matter lesions on MRI. However, it is important to remember that many patients with ADON will not develop MS. Information about their prognosis can help patients to decide whether to undergo MRI scanning and whether to use interferon-beta or other immunomodulators in their treatment.

      While the risk of recurrence of ADON is approximately 35% over ten years, the prognosis for vision retainment in patients with ADON is usually good. The ONTT found that one year after onset, 93% of individuals had visual acuity greater than 6/12 in the affected eye. However, many patients may continue to experience subjective reductions in vision and other visual impairments.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between ADON and MS, as well as the potential benefits and risks of treatment options, can help patients make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 45 - Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having a constant headache for several weeks. Her mother is extremely worried. However, Samantha is always anxious during medical appointments and refuses to cooperate with a thorough examination.

      As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about Samantha's condition and decide to request an immediate referral. What is the maximum time frame within which she should receive an appointment with a specialist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Children with Suspected Cancer

      When a child presents with symptoms and signs of cancer, it is important to refer them to a paediatrician or a specialist children’s cancer service, if appropriate. If the child experiences headaches and vomiting that cause early morning waking or occur on waking, this could be a sign of raised intracranial pressure, and an immediate referral should be made.

      It is important to note that patients have a legal right to be seen by a specialist within two weeks of being urgently referred for suspected cancer by their GP. If this is not possible, the NHS must do everything it reasonably can to offer them clinically appropriate alternatives. By following these referral guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that children with suspected cancer receive timely and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 46 - A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of headaches on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of headaches on the left side of his face and watery eyes for the past two weeks. He reports experiencing approximately two episodes per day, each lasting about 30 minutes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Daily occurrence of eye pain, lacrimation, and nasal stuffiness in episodes – indicative of cluster headache.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 47 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory loss. He had become confused three days earlier while out shopping. His wife led him back to the house where he made himself a cup of tea and then wandered around the house. He appeared confused but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his wife, though continued to ask similar questions repeatedly. After three hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest transient global amnesia, which is most common in individuals over 65 years old. This condition causes temporary memory loss, but the patient retains their social skills and ability to perform learned tasks. Repetitive questioning is a common feature, and recovery typically occurs within 24 hours. However, patients are unable to recall the episode once they have recovered. Alcohol-related amnesia is another possibility, but the patient did not exhibit impaired cerebellar function. Chronic subdural haematoma can cause confusion and memory loss, but the patient lacked other symptoms. Complex partial status epilepticus and dissociative fugue state were also ruled out based on the patient’s presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 48 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about developing Alzheimer's disease. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about developing Alzheimer's disease. He has been experiencing memory problems for the past few months, frequently repeating questions according to his wife. He struggles to recall recent events but has a good memory of things that happened a long time ago. What finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Objective neurological deficits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cognitive Impairment in Alzheimer’s Dementia

      Alzheimer’s dementia is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects cognitive function. While it doesn’t typically cause objective neurological deficits, it can manifest in a variety of cognitive impairments. These include an inability to plan activities, agnosia (the failure to identify objects despite intact sensory function), apraxia (the inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function), and language disturbance (such as receptive or expressive dysphasia). These impairments are all related to executive function and can be seen in other forms of dementia as well. Understanding these symptoms can help with early detection and management of Alzheimer’s dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - You assess a 75-year-old patient who presents with a tremor in their right...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 75-year-old patient who presents with a tremor in their right hand. What are the common symptoms observed in Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resting tremor + bradykinesia + rigidity

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 50 - A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history of diabetes and cervical spondylosis that required surgical decompression seven years ago. He drinks 30 units of alcohol a week. On examination, there is fasciculation, wasting and weakness of the left deltoid and biceps. There is also bilateral upper limb-girdle weakness. There is fasciculation and wasting of the gluteals and quadriceps, with weakness of the hip flexors. Reflexes are brisk in the upper and lower limbs. Plantars are up-going. There is no sensory loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this case is motor neurone disease, which is characterized by the degeneration of neurones in the motor cortex, motor cranial nuclei, and anterior horn cells. This condition presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs, such as weakness, spasticity, hyper-reflexia, up-going plantars, wasting, and fasciculation. However, there are no sensory changes.

      Alcohol can cause an acute alcoholic myopathy after binge drinking, which can lead to acute renal tubular necrosis due to the precipitation of myoglobin in the renal tubules. Chronic myopathy associated with gradual progressive weakness and atrophy, usually involving the hip and shoulder girdle without myoglobinuria, can also occur.

      Diabetic amyotrophy is a diabetic proximal neuropathy that causes weakness, wasting, and pain, typically in the quadriceps, and progresses distally.

      Cervical spondylosis can result in nerve root compression (radiculopathy) or cord compression (myelopathy). Radiculopathy presents with unilateral neck, shoulder, or arm pain, possibly with changes in sensation or weakness in related muscles. Myelopathy results in progressive spastic quadriparesis and sensory loss with decreased position and vibration sense, and a sensory level develops.

      Syringomyelia is characterized by a fluid-filled tubular cyst (syrinx) within the central spinal cord, usually in the cervical region. The syrinx enlarges, compressing the corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts and the anterior horn cells. This condition typically presents in the 20s and 30s, and progress is slow. Symptoms depend on the site of the lesion, but early signs often include wasting and weakness of the hands, with decreased pain and temperature sensation in the trunk and arms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 51 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and loss of taste. There is left-sided weakness of both the upper and the lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. There is a vesicular rash on the eardrum, ear canal, earlobe, tongue and roof of the mouth (palate) on the same side as the weakness of the face.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and Other Facial Nerve Conditions

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. This can lead to ear pain, hearing loss, vertigo, facial nerve paralysis, and even involvement of other cranial nerves. The presence of lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid and vesicles on the skin of the ear canal or pinna may also be observed. However, it is important to note that this condition can also occur without a skin rash.

      Bell’s palsy, on the other hand, is the most common cause of unilateral facial nerve paralysis. It may also present with otalgia and pain behind the ear, but vesiculation is absent. Acute otitis media can also lead to facial paralysis, but this usually responds well to antibiotics and corticosteroids.

      Postherpetic neuralgia is a nerve pain that occurs after the herpes zoster vesicles have crusted over and begun to heal. However, the description provided doesn’t suggest that this stage has been reached. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterised by recurrent episodes of facial pain following the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve, but without facial paralysis or rash.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to properly diagnose and treat them. While some may share similar symptoms, the underlying causes and treatments can vary greatly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 52 - A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about his recent behavior changes. She notes that he used to be reserved, but in the past year, he has become much louder and seeks attention at social events. Additionally, he makes inappropriate comments and lacks empathy towards her. She also mentions that he has been consuming a lot of fatty and carbohydrate-rich foods, despite being health-conscious previously. The patient's neurological exam is normal, and his wife recalls that his mother passed away at 63 due to a neurological condition, but she cannot recall the name of it. What condition is likely affecting this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is exhibiting a slow progression of personality changes and social conduct issues at a younger age, while still maintaining their memory and visuospatial abilities. Additionally, their mother passed away at 65 years old due to a comparable neurological condition. This suggests that the individual is likely suffering from Frontotemporal lobar degeneration, specifically Pick’s disease. Other forms of dementia have distinct presentations and can be found in the PassMedicine textbook. Bipolar disorder is an unlikely diagnosis due to its sudden onset and the strong familial connection to Pick’s disease.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.

      FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.

      CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 53 - A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily,...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.

      What is the best immediate treatment to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 54 - A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.

    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Fluctuating Level of Consciousness in Elderly Patients

      When presented with an elderly patient exhibiting fluctuating levels of consciousness, it is important to consider various potential causes. Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, Creutzfeldt-Jacob, and depression can all lead to dementia or apparent dementia, but typically do not result in fluctuating levels of consciousness. However, chronic subdural hematoma is a condition that can be associated with such fluctuations. In the absence of neurological signs, this diagnosis may be the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. It is important to carefully consider all potential causes and conduct appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 55 - A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
    Select from the list the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this drug.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: While taking the drug there may be large variations in motor function

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: The Most Effective Drug for Parkinson’s Disease

      Levodopa is the most effective drug for treating Parkinson’s disease (PD). It replenishes depleted striatal dopamine, the lack of which causes PD symptoms. Levodopa is given with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor to limit side-effects such as nausea, vomiting, and cardiovascular effects. Benserazide and carbidopa are the dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa.

      Levodopa therapy should start at a low dose and increase gradually. The final dose should be the lowest possible that controls symptoms. Intervals between doses should suit the patient’s needs. Nausea and vomiting with co-beneldopa or co-careldopa are rarely dose-limiting and can be controlled with domperidone.

      Levodopa treatment can cause motor complications such as response fluctuations and dyskinesias. Response fluctuations involve large variations in motor performance, with normal function during an ‘on’ period, and restricted mobility during an ‘off’ period. End-of-dose deterioration with progressively shorter duration of benefit also occurs. Freezing of gait and falls may be problematic. Modified-release preparations may help with end-of-dose deterioration or immobility or rigidity at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 56 - What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor may be worsened by medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tremors: Causes and Treatment Options

      Tremors can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication such as lithium, tricyclic antidepressants, metoclopramide, and bronchodilators. However, the most common type of tremor seen in general practice is essential tremor, which is worsened by posture and movement but relieved by rest. This type of tremor can affect various parts of the body, including the head, neck, jaw, and voice.

      In contrast, Parkinsonian tremor is present at rest. When it comes to treating essential tremor, β blockers are typically the first-line option. If these are not suitable, primidone may be tried, although it can cause sedation. Unfortunately, up to half of patients do not respond to these treatments or cannot tolerate them. In such cases, topiramate may be a viable alternative for long-term management.

      Occasionally, short-term treatment with alprazolam or clonazepam may be used to alleviate tremors caused by tension or anxiety. However, these medications can cause sedation and may be habit-forming. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for tremors can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 57 - How long should a patient cease driving after experiencing a stroke? ...

    Incorrect

    • How long should a patient cease driving after experiencing a stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      If you have had a stroke or TIA, the DVLA advises that you should refrain from driving for a period of one month.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 58 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 59 - A 22-year-old medical student comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral leg weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old medical student comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral leg weakness and paraesthesia. She reports that the symptoms started in her feet and have been gradually moving up over the past few days. She also mentions that she had a bout of diarrhoea while on an elective in Zimbabwe about a week ago. Upon examination, her GCS is 15/15, her lower limb sensation is intact, but her strength is 2/5 throughout with reduced tone and reflexes. Her plantars are downgoing. Based on her symptoms and examination findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by an ascending peripheral neuropathy, while multiple sclerosis presents with mixed motor and sensory deficits and lesions affecting both upper and lower motor neurons. Transverse myelitis also involves both upper and lower motor neurons, with the specific deficits depending on the location of the spinal cord lesion. Brain abscess, on the other hand, typically results in upper motor neuron lesions.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 60 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pain over his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pain over his left shoulder blade and axillary region, which radiates down his arm into the fingers, especially the index and middle finger. He has a history of chronic neck pain. He has some tenderness in the triceps region and a reduced range of neck movements, which is painful.
      There is a mild weakness of the forearm extensors and wrist extension. There is a slight loss of pinprick sensation over the index and middle finger. The biceps and brachioradialis reflexes are equal and symmetrical, and the triceps reflex is diminished on the left compared with the right.
      What is the most likely level of disc prolapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C6/C7

      Explanation:

      Nerve Root Compression: Symptoms and Signs at Different Levels of the Spine

      C6/C7 Disc Prolapse:
      Compression of the C7 nerve root due to disc prolapse at the C6/C7 level causes weakness in radial-nerve-supplied muscles such as triceps and extensor carpus radialis. The triceps reflex is diminished while the biceps and brachioradialis reflexes are preserved.

      C8/T1 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the T1 nerve root results in weakness of finger abduction and adduction. There are no changes to reflexes, but sensory changes are found on the medial side of the upper and lower arm.

      C4/C5 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the C5 nerve root causes weakness in shoulder abduction and flexion, and elbow flexion. The biceps reflex is impaired and sensory changes are found in the lateral arm.

      C5/C6 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the C6 nerve root results in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension. The biceps and supinator reflexes are impaired, and sensory changes are found in the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger.

      C7/C8 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the C8 nerve root causes weakness in finger flexion. There are no changes to reflexes, but sensory changes are found on the medial side of the lower forearm and the ring and little fingers.

      Understanding Nerve Root Compression at Different Levels of the Spine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 61 - A 26-year-old man has scheduled an appointment at your clinic. He suffered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has scheduled an appointment at your clinic. He suffered a traumatic head injury in a car accident six months ago and has been recovering well. However, two months ago, he experienced a generalised tonic clonic seizure and was advised by a neurologist to seek further review if he had any more episodes.

      Recently, he had another seizure at home and was taken to the emergency department. The on-call neurologist recommended starting levetiracetam and arranged an urgent clinic appointment in the coming weeks. He has been given a short supply of medication and would like to add it to his repeat prescriptions.

      During the emergency department visit, he was told by the doctor that he should not drive, but he was not informed for how long. He holds an ordinary car licence and doesn't drive for work.

      What advice should you provide to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must tell the DVLA and must not drive until 12 months seizure free

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has a set of complex rules that drivers should be aware of, including those related to epilepsy. If an individual with epilepsy has experienced more than one seizure resulting in loss of consciousness while awake, they are not permitted to drive until they have been seizure-free for a year. It is crucial that this information is documented clearly.

      If an individual has only experienced one generalized seizure, they are prohibited from driving for six months, and their license will only be reinstated at the discretion of the DVLA.

      If a known epileptic has a seizure due to a reduction in their medication dosage, they may resume driving once they have been back on their previous dose for six months, provided they have not experienced any further seizures during that time.

      There are specific regulations for partial seizures, nocturnal seizures, and those with bus, coach, or lorry licenses. For complete guidance, individuals should refer to the government’s website.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 62 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is localised around the right eye and is associated with tearing and redness of the eye. The patient reported he has had similar episodes over the last year. He also admits that these episodes occurred every day for a few weeks with one to three attacks a day which last for 1-2 hours, frequently at night. After 6 weeks, the attacks stopped. She lost her job 6 months ago and has noticed an increase in the intensity of the pain since. Examination reveals drooping of the eyelid and small pupil on the right side.
      Select the single MOST likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Cluster Headache, Intracranial Neoplasm, Acute Anterior Uveitis, Migraine, and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate between different types to provide appropriate treatment. Cluster headache is a rare condition that affects mostly men and is characterized by intense pain around one eye, accompanied by nasal stuffiness and sometimes Horner syndrome. In contrast, headache is often a late symptom of an intracranial neoplasm, and a new headache or change in pattern may indicate an underlying tumor. Acute anterior uveitis presents with eye pain, redness, photophobia, excessive tearing, and decreased vision. Migraine is a common type of headache that presents with severe, often unilateral pain, accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Tension-type headache is usually mild to moderate and described as pressure or tightness around the head. Understanding the specific features and associated symptoms of each type of headache can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 63 - A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset double vision that came on while he was playing basketball. He had a transient episode of weakness in his right arm 3 months ago that lasted several days. On examination he has a right-sided lateral rectus palsy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is diagnosed based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time. While other conditions may present similar symptoms, MS is the most likely diagnosis in the absence of other symptoms. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include midline meningioma and AION, which tend to cause visual field or other neurological signs. Lyme disease may cause facial and other cranial nerve palsies, but lesions would not be separated by time as they are in MS. Cerebral aneurysms typically present as subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      In summary, a diagnosis of MS is made based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time, and other conditions must be ruled out through differential diagnosis. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 64 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over the past six months. She used to be quite active and had no other medical issues, but now she is unable to maintain her previous exercise routine. It takes her several days to recover from fatigue after exercising. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS).
      What is the most likely additional feature that would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a condition characterized by persistent and unexplained fatigue that significantly reduces activity levels and is accompanied by post-exertional malaise. In addition to fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, such as difficulty thinking, concentrating, and remembering, is a common symptom. Low mood may also indicate depression or another mood disorder, which can cause chronic fatigue. Painful lymph nodes without pathological enlargement may occur, but further investigation is needed to rule out other causes of fatigue. Sleep disturbance is also common, and weight loss may suggest an underlying pathology that requires further investigation. It is important to understand these symptoms to properly diagnose and manage CFS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 65 - What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Onset of migraine over the age of 50 years is unusual and should be investigated

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Risks

      Migraine is a neurological condition that is often characterized by a prodromal aura preceding a severe headache that can last for several hours or even days. While the first attack usually occurs in childhood, over 80% of individuals experience their first migraine by the age of 30. However, if the onset of migraine occurs after the age of 50, other underlying conditions should be investigated.

      While certain foods and additives such as caffeine, chocolate, and aged cheese have been suggested as potential triggers for migraine, large epidemiological studies have failed to confirm these claims. As such, no specific diets have been shown to alleviate migraine symptoms.

      It is important to note that both migraine and the use of combined oral contraceptives are independent risk factors for ischemic stroke. However, the risk is low in the absence of other risk factors, and migraine without aura is not a contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptives. Women with other risk factors for arterial disease should use caution when taking the pill, and those with prothrombotic coagulation disorders should avoid it altogether.

      Hemiplegic migraine is a rare form of migraine that is characterized by unilateral weakness that accompanies a migraine headache attack. This form of migraine with aura may occur either in families or only in one individual. It is important to distinguish between migraine aura and other conditions such as epileptic aura or transient ischemic attack, which have different characteristics.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and risks associated with migraine is crucial for effective management and treatment of this debilitating condition.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 66 - A 20-year-old girl presents with recurrent episodes of loss of consciousness.

    Over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old girl presents with recurrent episodes of loss of consciousness.

      Over the last two years she has had blackouts which last approximately 30 seconds. They typically occur when she is standing. These have occurred more frequently over the last week.

      The latest episode was witnessed by her boyfriend who noted that she collapsed without any abnormal movements. On coming round she was rather drowsy initially but generally fine and recovered relatively quickly.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Features Suggestive of Vasovagal Syncope

      This young girl exhibits features that suggest she may be experiencing vasovagal syncope. The episodes seem to occur only when she is standing, which differentiates it from cardiac syncope that can happen at any time and may be triggered by exercise without warning. Additionally, there are no abnormal movements during the episodes, making epilepsy less likely. Furthermore, the girl seems to recover fully after each episode, which also makes epilepsy less likely. It is important to note that Addison’s disease would likely present with other autoimmune phenomena and symptoms such as muscle weakness or low mood, which are not mentioned in this case. Overall, the features observed in this young girl point towards vasovagal syncope as the likely cause of her episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 67 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining that her vision has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining that her vision has become blurred in her right eye over the course of a few days. She has been rubbing the eye a lot, and now she also mentions that there is a dull ache in the eye. She has previously been fit and well. Her only medication is the oral contraceptive pill, which she has been taking for eight years.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demyelinating optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Subacute Onset of Unilateral Blurred Vision with Aching

      When presented with a patient experiencing subacute onset of unilateral blurred vision with aching, there are several potential diagnoses to consider. Demyelinating optic neuritis is a likely cause, as it can cause reduced acuity, central scotoma, impaired color appreciation, and a relative afferent pupillary defect. Glaucoma may also be a possibility, but it typically presents with halos around bright lights and may affect both eyes in the case of open-angle glaucoma. Ischaemic optic neuritis and occipital lobe infarction are less likely causes, as they would have a more rapid onset of symptoms. Optic nerve compression may also be a consideration, but it would likely be associated with a space-occupying lesion and a history of headaches. Overall, the presence of aching in the affected eye suggests demyelinating optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 68 - A 48-year-old woman who takes hormone replacement therapy complains of severe headaches associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who takes hormone replacement therapy complains of severe headaches associated with photophobia, nausea and occasional vomiting. They typically affect the left side of her head, sometimes with temporary blurring of vision. They persist for up to 12 hours and occur on average once every 6-8 weeks.
      Select the single most appropriate first-line medical treatment.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen and domperidone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Migraine Without Aura

      Migraine without aura is a common type of migraine that can cause severe headaches, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. The first-line treatment for this condition is over-the-counter analgesia with an antiemetic prescribed if necessary. If this doesn’t work, patients can try the triptan group of medications, although some may respond better to one member of this group than another.

      For patients who experience at least two migraines per month, prophylactic treatment is normally used. NICE recommends combination therapy with an oral triptan and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, or an oral triptan and paracetamol. Alternatively, monotherapy with an oral triptan, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, aspirin, or paracetamol may be preferred.

      However, the BASH approach is considered more logical and is the basis for NICE’s guidelines. It is important to note that each case must be judged on an individual basis, and patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 69 - A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with complaints of lower back pain and pain and weakness in his lower limbs. He reports that his symptoms have been getting worse for the past five days. About three weeks ago, he had Campylobacter gastroenteritis.
      During the examination, the doctor observes diminished or absent reflexes in the legs and hypotonia. The patient's pain and light-touch sensations are also reduced.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis, Multiple Sclerosis, Polymyositis, and Spinal Cord Compression

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a neurological disorder that causes demyelination and axonal degeneration, resulting in acute, ascending, and progressive neuropathy. It typically presents with symmetrical weakness starting in the lower extremities and may progress to respiratory failure in severe cases. Treatment involves plasma exchange or immunoglobulins and intravenous methylprednisolone, but approximately 20% of patients may experience residual disability and 10% may die from complications.

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is another neurological disorder that causes weakness, but it is characterized by fatigability and doesn’t involve sensory changes. Symptoms range from mild weakness of limited muscle groups to severe weakness of multiple muscle groups.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disorder that classically presents with symptoms and signs separated by time and space. Transverse myelitis can occur, resulting in acute weakness or paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and loss of control of the bowels and bladder.

      Polymyositis is a disorder characterized by muscle weakness that starts proximally and progresses over a period of weeks to months. While it may cause muscle aches, it would not normally cause sensory changes.

      Symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression include back pain, paralysis, decreased sensation below the level of compression, and urinary and fecal incontinence or retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 70 - You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine with aura). At what point is an aura considered atypical and a potential 'red flag' if it lasts longer than what duration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Red Flags for Headaches

      Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 71 - A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at a time) accompanied by a blank facial expression. He stops what he is doing during the attack and remains motionless. Several of these can occur during the day.
      Which statement correctly describes this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperventilation may precipitate an attack

      Explanation:

      Childhood Absence Epilepsy: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Childhood absence epilepsy, also known as petit mal epilepsy, is a type of generalized epilepsy that typically begins between the ages of four and seven. While the seizures associated with this condition are not usually life-threatening, they can have a significant impact on a child’s education, development, and behavior.

      Diagnosis of childhood absence epilepsy is typically made through a combination of clinical history and electroencephalogram (EEG) testing. Hyperventilation can be used to trigger an absence seizure, which is characteristic of this type of epilepsy. Neuroimaging is not typically necessary unless there is a suspicion of structural abnormalities.

      Treatment for childhood absence epilepsy typically involves medication, with sodium valproate, ethosuximide, and lamotrigine being the drugs of choice. In some cases, a combination of medications may be necessary to fully control seizures. The ketogenic diet may also be effective for some children.

      The prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy is generally good, with 80% of patients responding well to medication. However, tonic-clonic seizures may develop in up to 40% of children with this condition, and persistence of seizures is more likely in these cases. Despite the challenges associated with childhood absence epilepsy, educational attainment and behavior are typically not affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 72 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive numbness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive numbness in his feet and weakness in his lower limbs. These symptoms have developed over the past week. He has a broad-based ataxic gait. He has a history of using 'laughing gas' recreationally. His aunt has multiple sclerosis (MS) and he is concerned that he may be experiencing the first signs of the condition. What neurological finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent ankle jerk

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Multiple Sclerosis: Neurological Manifestations

      Neurological manifestations can help distinguish between vitamin B12 deficiency and multiple sclerosis (MS). Vitamin B12 deficiency causes degeneration of the white matter in the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord, peripheral nerves, optic nerves, and cerebral hemispheres. Chronic inhalation of nitrous oxide is an increasingly common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. On the other hand, MS is a demyelinating disease that primarily affects the white matter of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves.

      Sensory peripheral neuropathy, absent distal tendon reflexes, and distal sensory loss are neurological manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency. In contrast, sensory loss consistent with peripheral neuropathy and absent ankle jerks are not features of MS. Ataxia, which is the lack of muscle coordination, is a feature of both subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and MS.

      Barber’s chair sign, an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs, can be elicited by bending the head forward or lapping on the posterior cervical spine while the neck is flexed. It is caused by the involvement of the posterior columns and is most commonly associated with MS. However, it may also occur in other lesions of the cervical cord, such as cord compression, syringomyelia, and vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Bilateral up-going plantar responses signify advanced subacute combined degeneration of the cord and pyramidal signs associated with MS. Optic atrophy, the degeneration of the optic nerve, is a common feature of MS and subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 73 - A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.

      What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations

      Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.

      It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.

      When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.

      Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.

      While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 74 - A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in clinic. His most recent MMSE score is 18 out of 30, indicating 'moderate' dementia. As per NICE guidelines, what additional steps should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive care + donepezil

      Explanation:

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 75 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and right-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain began, he noted that his left eyelid was drooping and that he had developed weakness and altered sensation in his right arm and leg.
      He had recently visited a chiropractor for neck pain after a road traffic accident. Examination reveals a left Horner syndrome and weakness and sensory disturbance on the right-hand side with an extensor right plantar.
      What is the single most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Sudden-Onset Symptoms and Signs with Horner Syndrome: Carotid Artery Dissection

      The sudden onset of symptoms and signs, along with Horner syndrome, suggests a possible left carotid artery dissection leading to left hemispheric ischaemia and subsequent right-sided signs. While chiropractic manipulation and neck trauma can cause carotid and vertebral artery dissections, they often occur spontaneously. Dissection should be considered when neck pain is associated with an ischaemic stroke syndrome. Horner syndrome is a common symptom of carotid artery dissection due to the close relationship between sympathetic nerve fibres and the carotid artery.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, and venous sinus thrombosis, do not fully explain the constellation of symptoms and signs, particularly the presence of Horner syndrome. Therefore, carotid artery dissection remains a likely diagnosis.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 76 - A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times a month, which are severe and located on the right side of his head. The headaches are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. Based on the patient’s history, prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but can be used for acute treatment of migraine.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 77 - A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting tremor in his arms and legs. Upon examination, it is slightly more pronounced on his left side. There is also a slight stiffness and slowness of movement in his arms. His blood pressure measures 150/85 mmHg.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Stiffness and Tremor

      When presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of this patient, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD), as the tremor is asymmetric and worsens at rest, and the patient displays slowness of movement and rigidity.

      Cervical myelopathy is less likely, as it is characterized by neck pain with upper motor neuron signs in the legs and lower motor neuron signs in the arms, which are not present in this patient. Essential tremor, which is worse on movement, is also less likely, as the tremor described here is a resting tremor.

      Hyperthyroidism could cause fine tremor and proximal muscle weakness, but no other specific features are seen in this patient. Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD) can be associated with Parkinsonism, but the unilateral symptoms and lack of other neurological signs make IPD a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, when presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, but in this case, IPD is the most likely diagnosis.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 78 - A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches for the past year. These headaches occur around 5-6 times per month and last all day. There is no associated aura. He describes the headache as a severe throbbing on both sides of his head with nausea and lethargy. He typically goes to bed when he gets a headache as activity makes it worse. He takes one of his father's diclofenac tablets before bed, which seems to help. Neurological examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that this headache is indicative of a migraine. The symptoms described align with the typical presentation, although it is worth noting that most patients experience symptoms on only one side of the head. Additionally, there is no indication of medication overuse, which can lead to frequent headaches.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 79 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor of the hands. There are no other neurological abnormalities.
      Select the most appropriate initial treatment.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Essential Tremor: A Common Movement Disorder

      Essential tremor is the most prevalent movement disorder, characterized by a postural tremor that can occur between the ages of 20 and 60. It is a slowly progressive condition that can last for years. The exact cause of essential tremor is unknown, but it can be inherited or occur sporadically. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4-11 Hz, depending on the affected body segment. Essential tremor most commonly affects the hands, but it can also affect the head, voice, tongue, and legs. In severe cases, the tremor may occur at rest. Interestingly, small amounts of alcohol can alleviate the tremor, which is not the case for Parkinson’s disease. The most commonly used drugs for essential tremor are propranolol and primidone, but other medications such as alprazolam, atenolol, gabapentin, and topiramate may also be effective. Understanding essential tremor is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 80 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the curb and landing on his right arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes bisoprolol and warfarin, with a recent INR of 2.2. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient to hospital for a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for investigating head injuries in adults. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine which patients need further CT head imaging and which patients can be safely discharged.

      The guidelines divide patients into two groups: those who require an immediate CT head scan and those who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. Patients who require an immediate CT head scan include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, a suspected open or depressed skull fracture, or any sign of basal skull fracture. Other indications for an immediate CT head scan include post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      Patients who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury include those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, or have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury. Patients with more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury also require a CT head scan within 8 hours.

      It is important to note that patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate course of action for investigating head injuries in adults, ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of colour vision. Examination the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Optic Nerve Lesions: A Guide

      When a patient presents with impaired colour appreciation and a relative afferent pupillary defect, an acute optic nerve lesion is likely. In younger patients, optic neuritis due to demyelination is the most common cause. Fundoscopy may reveal a swollen optic nerve head in the acute stage. Hemianopic visual disturbance is more commonly seen in cerebral infarction, while optic nerve glioma typically presents over a longer period with proptosis. Migraine can cause transient monocular visual disturbances, often accompanied by headache. Temporal arteritis is rare in patients under 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 82 - For which one of the following indications is carbamazepine least likely to be...

    Incorrect

    • For which one of the following indications is carbamazepine least likely to be a useful management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence seizures

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures are typically not responsive to carbamazepine.

      Understanding Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, and Adverse Effects

      Carbamazepine is a medication that is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used to treat trigeminal neuralgia and bipolar disorder. Chemically similar to tricyclic antidepressant drugs, carbamazepine works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, there are some adverse effects associated with carbamazepine use. It is known to be a P450 enzyme inducer, which can affect the metabolism of other medications. Patients may also experience dizziness, ataxia, drowsiness, headache, and visual disturbances, especially diplopia. In rare cases, carbamazepine can cause Steven-Johnson syndrome, leucopenia, agranulocytosis, and hyponatremia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.

      It is important to note that carbamazepine exhibits autoinduction, which means that when patients start taking the medication, they may experience a return of seizures after 3-4 weeks of treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to be closely monitored by their healthcare provider when starting carbamazepine.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 83 - A 32-year-old woman comes to her general practice clinic to discuss contraception. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to her general practice clinic to discuss contraception. Her father recently had a stroke, and she is worried about the risk of stroke associated with hormonal contraception. She has a history of migraine with aura, but she hasn't had one in almost ten years. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day.

      Upon examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her body mass index is 23 kg/m2.

      What is the most appropriate advice you can give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) use is contraindicated when there is a history of migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Contraceptive Pills, Migraine, and Stroke Risk

      Migraine with aura is a significant risk factor for stroke, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) can further increase this risk. Smoking also triples the risk of stroke, and the triple combination of migraine, COCP use, and smoking can quadruple the risk. Therefore, COCP use is contraindicated for those with a history of migraine with aura. Additionally, COCPs themselves increase the risk of stroke, so other risk factors such as smoking and arterial risk factors must be taken into account before prescribing them. On the other hand, there is no significant increase in stroke risk for smokers alone. However, for those over 35 who smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, COCP use is also contraindicated. Women under 45 with migraine, especially with aura, have a statistically significant relationship with ischemic stroke. Finally, it is important to note that progesterone-only contraceptive pills (POPs) do not increase the risk of stroke and may be a better option for those with arterial risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 84 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain in her right cheek that causes her to wince. The pain lasts for about 20 seconds and then gradually subsides over a few minutes. It is often triggered by hot food or drinks. She has experienced several episodes recently, but is otherwise healthy. She recalls having similar episodes two years ago that resolved after a few weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Facial Pain Syndromes: Types and Characteristics

      Facial pain syndromes are a group of conditions that cause pain in the face and head. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: This syndrome causes recurrent and chronic pain that is usually unilateral and follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often accompanied by a brief facial spasm or tic and is triggered by activities such as eating, brushing teeth, or exposure to cold air. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for treatment.

      Atypical Facial Pain: This syndrome is more common than trigeminal neuralgia and is characterized by mild-to-moderate throbbing dull pain that can last for hours or days. It is precipitated by stress or cold and tends to occur along the territory of the trigeminal nerve. Patients are often misdiagnosed or attribute the pain to a prior event such as a dental procedure. Depression and anxiety are common.

      Cluster Headaches: These headaches are usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by conjunctival injection and a watering eye.

      Migraine: Migraines are also usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by photophobia and gastrointestinal symptoms.

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction: This syndrome is relatively common and is characterized by facial pain, restricted jaw function, and joint noise. Pain located in front of the tragus, projecting to the ear, temple, cheek, and along the mandible is highly diagnostic for TMJ dysfunction. Pain is chronic rather than spasmodic.

      In conclusion, facial pain syndromes can be difficult to diagnose and treat. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing any type of facial pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 85 - A 50-year-old man presents with restlessness and drowsiness. He is known to drink...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with restlessness and drowsiness. He is known to drink in excess of fifty units of alcohol per week.

      On examination he has a broad-based gait. There is nystagmus and bilateral lateral rectus muscle palsy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Serious Condition Linked to Alcoholism and Malnutrition

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological condition characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. It is commonly seen in patients with a history of alcohol excess, malnutrition, and can even occur during pregnancy. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient for the brain.

      If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize and treat this condition as an emergency with thiamine replacement. The therapeutic window for treatment is short-lived, making early diagnosis and intervention essential.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have devastating consequences if left untreated. It is important to consider this diagnosis in confused patients, especially those with a history of alcoholism or malnutrition. Early recognition and treatment with thiamine replacement can prevent irreversible damage to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 86 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
      On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis

      Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 87 - A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her life and has rarely had to see the doctor. She smokes 10 cigarettes a week. Examination is unremarkable other than a left-sided ptosis and some slight thinning of the muscles of her left hand, which she thinks might be long-standing.
      What is the most probable reason for her left-sided ptosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes and Characteristics of Unilateral Ptosis and Lid Lag in Thyrotoxicosis

      Unilateral ptosis, or drooping of one eyelid, can be caused by disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris, Horner syndrome, or a third nerve palsy. Local inflammation of the conjunctiva can also lead to ptosis. Myasthenia gravis typically results in bilateral ptosis, but it may be asymmetrical.

      Disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris is characterized by the loss of the crease normally seen on the upper eyelid and is often due to dysfunction of the superior rectus and levator muscles. It may be iatrogenic or degenerative due to senility.

      Lid lag, where the upper eyelid lags behind the upper edge of the iris as the eye moves downward, is a common characteristic of thyrotoxicosis. A similar phenomenon can occur with the lower edge when the eye moves upwards.

      In cases where weakness of hand muscles is present, a T1 root lesion is likely, indicating Horner syndrome. Miosis, or constriction of the pupil, can be subtle and easily missed. In smokers, a high suspicion of a Pancoast’s tumor (apical pulmonary tumor) should be considered in patients with such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 88 - You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect may be experiencing migraines. What feature is more prevalent in younger patients with migraines compared to older ones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral symptoms

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of migraine in children are frequently experienced on both sides of the head.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 90 - A 37-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was previously seen by a neurologist three months ago due to regular and debilitating headaches. The pain was short-lasting (lasting only a few minutes) and located behind her right eye. She experienced right-sided tearing and nasal congestion, but no sensitivity to light. The attacks occurred over thirty times and could happen up to eight times a day. The neurologist prescribed indomethacin, which has successfully stopped the attacks. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal hemicrania can be effectively treated with indomethacin, with complete responsiveness.

      The symptoms of paroxysmal hemicrania are typical, and it is more prevalent in women. However, idiopathic intracranial hypertension is more common in overweight women and usually causes bilateral symptoms that worsen when lying flat. Treatment for this condition typically involves lumbar puncture or acetazolamide, rather than indomethacin.

      Migraines typically last for several hours and are accompanied by photophobia and nausea.

      Sinus-related headaches cause pain around the sinuses and are usually associated with a history of sinusitis. These headaches tend to persist while the sinusitis is present, rather than occurring as multiple discrete episodes throughout the day.

      Tension headaches cause pressure symptoms on both sides of the forehead and are often triggered by stress, fatigue, and dehydration.

      Understanding Paroxysmal Hemicrania

      Paroxysmal hemicrania (PH) is a type of headache that is characterized by severe, one-sided pain in the orbital, supraorbital, or temporal region. These attacks are often accompanied by autonomic symptoms and typically last for less than 30 minutes. PH can occur multiple times a day and is classified as a trigeminal autonomic cephalgia, a group of disorders that also includes cluster headaches. However, unlike cluster headaches, PH can be effectively treated with indomethacin.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PH is important for individuals who experience frequent headaches. By seeking medical attention and receiving a proper diagnosis, individuals with PH can receive the appropriate treatment and find relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 91 - A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.

      Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications

      When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.

      The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

      It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 92 - A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches.

      He reports experiencing excruciating unilateral headache around his right eye and over the right temporal area. The headaches last anywhere from a couple of minutes to half an hour. He also experiences lacrimation, nasal epiphora, and a slightly red eye on the affected side during a headache episode.

      He reports having about 20 attacks of the headache a day, which tend to occur during the daytime rather than the night. During attacks, he tends to go and 'curl up in bed' to try and let things settle.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this headache?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Episodic Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Cluster Headache

      Episodic paroxysmal hemicrania (EPH) and cluster headache (CH) share similar characteristics, making it difficult to differentiate between the two. However, there are key elements in their history that can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis. EPH is characterized by frequent attacks of unilateral pain focused around the eye or temporal region, lasting from 2-30 minutes and occurring during the day. In contrast, CH attacks typically last between 15 and 180 minutes, start one to two hours after falling asleep, and occur in clusters ranging from one every other day to eight a day.

      Furthermore, EPH is associated with autonomic symptoms and responds well to treatment with indomethacin (25-75 mg TDS), while CH doesn’t. Indomethacin is a useful differentiator, as it is not commonly prescribed in practice but can have a significant impact on the patient’s symptoms if the diagnosis is correct. By understanding the duration, frequency, and timing of the headaches, clinicians can accurately differentiate between EPH and CH and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 93 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dizziness when she moves, particularly when she turns...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dizziness when she moves, particularly when she turns her head to the side. She has a past history of numbness affecting both hands and around her peri-oral paraesthesia, which caused her to attend the Emergency Department one year ago, but nil else of note. On examination, her BP is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 65/min and regular. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and her BMI is 22. There are no cranial nerve palsies. Dix Hallpike test is positive to the left.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign positional vertigo

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Benign Positional Vertigo: Differential Diagnosis

      Benign positional vertigo (BPV) is a common cause of vertigo, which occurs when otoliths become detached from the macula and continue to move within the semi-circular canals even when the head has stopped moving. The Dix Hallpike test is used to diagnose posterior canal BPV, which accounts for approximately 90% of cases. Epley’s manoeuvre is an effective treatment for BPV, with a low recurrence rate over a 5-year period.

      When considering a differential diagnosis for vertigo, it is important to rule out other conditions. Multiple sclerosis is unlikely in this case, as the Dix Hallpike test is consistent with BPV and the previous history of numbness may represent a panic attack. Acoustic neuroma is also unlikely, as there are no cranial nerve palsies or tinnitus. Labyrinthitis is not a likely diagnosis, as it is associated with vertigo with any movement rather than a movement to one side. Ménière’s disease is also unlikely, as it is characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and a sensation of aural pressure, which occur in clusters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his left eye spreading across his forehead. During the headache, he has difficulty speaking. Three minutes later he has developed clumsiness in his right hand, and two minutes after that he describes his right leg as ‘feeling heavy’. His speech and limb symptoms have disappeared after 20 minutes, but his headache persists for six hours. He suffered from migraines as a teenager but has not had an attack in over 15 years. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurological Symptoms: Differential Diagnosis

      When presented with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of transient symptoms accompanied by a prolonged headache history, migraine with aura is a likely possibility. The aura may be visual, sensory, motor, or a combination of these and typically lasts less than 60 minutes.

      While a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) could explain the neurological symptoms, it is unlikely to account for the prolonged headache history. A berry aneurysm, on the other hand, would not cause transient symptoms and would more likely result in a sudden-onset severe headache if ruptured.

      Cluster headaches, which are accompanied by autonomic symptoms on the same side of the head as the pain, are more common in smokers but would not explain the transient neurological symptoms.

      Finally, a subarachnoid haemorrhage typically presents as a sudden-onset severe headache, which is not consistent with the rapid resolution of the neurological symptoms in this case.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 95 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced since her teenage years. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the frequency of her headaches. She attributes this to her stressful job, which has caused her to feel more anxious. She reports a bilateral frontal headache that is moderate in intensity and feels like a tightening sensation. She denies any prodrome, visual symptoms, or vomiting. On examination, she appears well and has a blood pressure of 118/68 mmHg. Her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there are no focal neurological deficits. Which of the following treatments should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      Managing Tension Headaches

      Tension headaches are a common type of headache that can be episodic or chronic. Episodic tension headaches can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as paracetamol, aspirin, or NSAIDs. However, chronic tension headaches may require a regular prescription of amitriptyline or nortriptyline. Acupuncture may also be a treatment option for some patients.

      It is important to note that codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided in the treatment of tension headaches due to the risk of medication overuse headache. Patients who respond to amitriptyline should continue treatment for at least 2 months before slowly reducing the dose to stop. Those who cannot tolerate amitriptyline may be prescribed nortriptyline instead. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage tension headaches and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 96 - You see a 36-year-old male who has a past history of alcohol abuse....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 36-year-old male who has a past history of alcohol abuse. He is brought in by a friend because he has been more confused over the last few days.

      On examination the patient has nystagmus, an abducens nerve palsy and walks with an ataxic gait.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient ischaemic attack

      Explanation:

      Neuropsychiatric Consequences of Heavy Alcohol Intake

      Sustained heavy alcohol intake can lead to several neuropsychiatric consequences. One of these is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the classic triad may not always be present, and patients may experience other symptoms such as headache, anorexia, vomiting, and confusion. This condition is caused by thiamine deficiency and requires prompt treatment with parenteral thiamine to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a progression from Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Patients with this condition develop memory problems but have good preservation of other cognitive functions. They are unable to consolidate new information and tend to confabulate rather than acknowledge their poor memory. Although treatment with thiamine is necessary, the response is often poor. Therefore, it is important to address alcohol intake and prevent the development of these debilitating conditions.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 97 - A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks. Despite using adequate triptans and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, these attacks can incapacitate her for up to three days. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Migraine Prophylactic Drugs: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Migraine is a common neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Prophylactic drugs are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks. In this article, we will discuss the guidelines and recommendations for the use of prophylactic drugs in the management of migraines.

      Beta-blockers, topiramate, and valproate are considered first-line prophylactic drugs for migraines, according to the British Association for the Study of Headache guidelines. Amitriptyline is regarded as adequate, while other prophylactic drugs are considered poor. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends propranolol as the first-line preventative therapy for migraines.

      Amitriptyline is the first-line treatment when migraine co-exists with other chronic pain conditions, disturbed sleep, and depression. It is often used in combination with beta-blockers as a second-line treatment for chronic migraines. However, there is no formal evidence of a synergistic effect.

      Pizotifen and clonidine have been widely used for many years, but there is little clinical trial evidence of their efficacy. Sodium valproate is a second-line prophylactic drug that is contraindicated during pregnancy. Topiramate is also a second-line prophylactic agent for migraines, but it has a significant side-effect profile and should be avoided during pregnancy.

      In conclusion, the choice of prophylactic drug for migraines should be based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. The guidelines and recommendations discussed in this article can serve as a starting point for healthcare professionals in the management of migraines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 98 - What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerves are not involved

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome: A Brief Overview

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a polyneuropathy that can affect cranial nerves, particularly the facial nerves. It is a lower motor neurone lesion that is often preceded by lumbar or intracapsular pain. While full recovery is possible, some residual weakness is common. In the acute phase, muscle wasting doesn’t occur, but it may develop in the long term. Respiratory muscle involvement can cause reduced peak flow, which may require ventilation. Additionally, sensory disturbance is typically present. Overall, Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 99 - As a GP registrar, you arrive at the surgery and notice a 32-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP registrar, you arrive at the surgery and notice a 32-year-old patient with epilepsy parking in the patient's car park. He has an appointment with you later in the day. You recall from previous consultations that his last seizure was 6 months ago. During the consultation, the patient denies driving. What should be your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform him of the DVLA rules and your duty to inform the DVLA if he refuses to stop

      Explanation:

      It is not appropriate to ignore the situation when you have witnessed the patient driving. Instead, you should inform the patient about the DVLA regulations and your obligation to report them if they refuse to stop driving. Reporting the patient to the DVLA immediately may harm your relationship with them, and it is better to give them a chance to rectify the situation themselves. It is always best to be transparent with patients about your actions.

      Confiscating the patient’s keys is not a practical solution and may lead to conflict.

      It is important to note that the new ‘6 month rule’ only applies to patients who have experienced their first seizure and have undergone an investigation, rather than those with pre-existing epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 100 - A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his recent memory loss and overall decline in cognitive function. His daughter reports that he has been noticeably slower and has difficulty keeping up with conversations. Additionally, he has experienced frequent urinary incontinence over the past month and one episode of fecal incontinence in the past week. Upon examination, he exhibits brisk reflexes and a shuffling gait, but no cerebellar signs are present. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus may be the cause of urinary incontinence and gait abnormality in the presence of dementia, while the absence of cerebellar signs suggests that multiple system atrophy is unlikely.

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of dementia that is reversible and commonly seen in elderly patients. It is believed to be caused by a reduction in the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the arachnoid villi, which may be due to head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or meningitis. The condition is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including urinary incontinence, dementia and bradyphrenia, and gait abnormality that may resemble Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually develop over a few months, and around 60% of patients will have all three features at the time of diagnosis.

      Imaging studies typically show hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly, which is an enlargement of the ventricles in the brain, in the absence of or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement. The management of normal pressure hydrocephalus involves ventriculoperitoneal shunting, which can help alleviate symptoms. However, around 10% of patients who undergo shunting may experience significant complications such as seizures, infection, and intracerebral hemorrhages. Therefore, careful consideration and monitoring are necessary when deciding on treatment options for patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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