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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower. Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint. There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes. Investigations: His CRP and white count are of normal values. Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charcot’s ankle

      Explanation:

      Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
      Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      552.6
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  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months. She was noted to have a blood sugar of 0.9 mmol/l on finger-prick testing and responded well to intravenous glucose therapy. Venous blood taken at the same showed a markedly raised insulin level, but her C-peptide levels were normal. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Self-administration of a short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycaemia, but her C-peptide levels are normal. This is strongly suggestive of the fact that she is self-administering insulin.
      In Insulinoma, common diagnostic criteria include:
      – blood glucose level < 50 mg/dl with hypoglycaemic symptoms,
      – relief of symptoms after eating
      – absence of sulfonylurea on plasma assays.
      The classic diagnostic criteria include the demonstration of the following during a supervised fast:
      Increased plasma insulin level
      Increased C peptide level
      Increased proinsulin level
      However, the patient has normal C-peptide levels.
      In type-1 diabetes mellitus, insulin and C-peptide levels are low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg. She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 650 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (655 mOsm/kg). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Explanation:

      In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI.

      In primary polydipsia, water deprivation results in an increase in urine osmolality, anywhere between 300 – 800 mOsm/Kg (usually up to 600 – 700 mOsm/Kg), without a substantial increase in plasma osmolality, but the increase in urine osmolality is not as substantial as in a normal response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg. On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 – 17.7), White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 – 11), Platelets 180 x109/l (150 – 400), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 – 146), Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 – 5), Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 – 118), HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0). He would like to start sitagliptin. Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
      In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?

      Your Answer: Hypohydrosis

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
      It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
      1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
      Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
      2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
      – Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
      – Arthritis
      – Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: It contains an area known as white pulp

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
      DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?

      Your Answer: Increased serum urate

      Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
      All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
      While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      152.5
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  • Question 10 - Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Concordance between identical twins is higher in type 2 diabetes mellitus than type 1

      Explanation:

      Type 1 diabetes is a chronic illness characterized by the body’s inability to produce insulin due to the autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas. Approximately 95% of patients with type 1 DM have either HLA-DR3 or HLA-DR4. Although the genetic aspect of type 1 DM is complex, with multiple genes involved, there is a high sibling relative risk. Whereas dizygotic twins have a 5-6% concordance rate for type 1 DM, monozygotic twins will share this diagnosis more than 50% of the time by the age of 40 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      176.5
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer: Reduces cardiovascular mortality

      Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen. Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to...

    Correct

    • In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?

      Your Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review. He has had diabetes for eight years and he is also being treated for hypertension. He is on the following medications: metformin 500 mg tds, gliclazide 80 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg/d, Ramipril 10 mg/d and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d. He is noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Investigations reveal: HbA1c 8.1% (3.8-6.4), Fasting glucose 9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), 24hr Urine free cortisol 354 mmol/d (<250), 9am Plasma ACTH 4 ng/dL (10-50). CT abdomen 3cm right adrenal mass. Which of the following is most likely to be the adrenal mass?

      Your Answer: Cortisol secreting adenoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has Cushing syndrome suggested by the elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. Hence, the mass is most probably a cortisol secreting adenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      82.2
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by buffalo hump, striae and central obesity

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery

      Explanation:

      Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.

      High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show: fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6), sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144), potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia. What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure (CRF)

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.
      Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.

      Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years. Investigations reveal: Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110), Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4). Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?

      Your Answer: Hypophosphataemia

      Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy. 15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week. On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation. Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender. Results of blood tests show: Na 140 mmol/L, K 4.8 mmol/L, Glucose 9.8 mmol/L, Albumin 41 g/l, ALT 94 U/l, ALP 61 U/l, Bilirubin 18 mmol/L, Ca 2.47 mmol/L, WCC 10.1 × 109/L, Hb 12.2 g/dL, MCV 90.5 fl, Platelets 234 × 109 /l, PT 13 s. Chest X-ray is normal. Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
      Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
      The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
      – Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
      – Weight gain
      – Decreased appetite
      – Cold intolerance
      – Dry skin
      – Hair loss
      – Sleepiness
      – Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
      – Depression
      – Emotional lability, mental impairment
      – Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
      – Constipation
      – Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
      – Decreased perspiration
      – Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
      – Blurred vision
      – Decreased hearing
      – Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
      Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
      – Weight gain
      – Slowed speech and movements
      – Dry skin
      – Jaundice
      – Pallor
      – Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
      – Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
      – Dull facial expression
      – Coarse facial features
      – Periorbital puffiness
      – Macroglossia
      – Goitre (simple or nodular)
      – Hoarseness
      – Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
      – Bradycardia
      – Pericardial effusion
      – Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
      – Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
      – Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
      – Pitting oedema of lower extremities
      – Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteoporosis in...

    Correct

    • Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteoporosis in the measured site?

      Your Answer: A T score of -2.6

      Explanation:

      Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
      The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
      DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
      Z-score values of –2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above –2.0 SD as within the expected range for age.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5). On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck. Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer: Free T3

      Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan

      Explanation:

      Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma. On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Investigations show: Hb 12.6 g/dL, WCC 5.4 x109/L, PLT 299 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.4 mmol/L, Creatinine 121 ىmol/L, Albumin 37 g/l, Ca++ 2.95 mmol/L, PTH 18 (normal<10). Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?

      Your Answer: MEN 2a

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
      Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20–25 years.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain. Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation. Other investigations show: Blood glucose: 35 mmol/L, Na+: 132 mmol/L, K+: 5.5 mmol/L, urea: 8.0 mmol/L, creatinine: 120 μmol/L, pH: 7.15, HCO3: 12 mmol/L, p(CO2): 4.6 kPa, chloride: 106 mmol/l. Urinary ketones are positive (+++). The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma. Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?

      Your Answer: Carbergoline

      Explanation:

      Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure. Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l. A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology. Which diagnosis fits best with this woman’s clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Correct Answer: Profound hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
      Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.

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  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis. On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin. It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.

      Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.

      High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.

      Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer: Pre-proliferative retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
      Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 32 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed. What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer: Immediate normal saline infusion

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25–0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 33 - A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed. Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves’ disease?

      Your Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
      – Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
      – Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
      – Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
      – Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti–sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
      The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
      – The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 34 - A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she was a medical student, as she now no longer finds time to exercise. She decides to try various weight loss tablets temporarily. After 2 months, she is successfully losing weight but also has trouble with increased stool frequency, difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up out of chairs. However, she has no problems walking on the flat. She also has difficulty in sleeping at the moment but puts that down to the increased frequency of headaches for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her weakness?

      Your Answer: She is abusing laxatives

      Correct Answer: She is abusing thyroxine tablets

      Explanation:

      Exogenous thyroid hormone use has been associated with episodes of thyroid storm as well as thyrotoxic periodic paralysis.
      It presents with marked proximal muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, hypokalaemia and signs of hyperthyroidism.
      Hyperthyroidism generally presents with tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias

      Laxatives and diuretics can result in electrolyte abnormalities.
      Medical complications associated with laxatives include chronic diarrhoea which disrupts the normal stool electrolyte concentrations that then leads to serum electrolyte shifts; acutely, hypokalaemia is most typically seen. The large intestine suffers nerve damage from the chronic laxative use that renders it unable to function properly. The normal peristalsis and conduction are affected; the disorder is thought to be secondary to a degeneration of Auerbach’s Plexi. However, it does not cause muscle weakness.

      Insulin tends to cause weight gain, not weight loss.
      Metformin does not cause muscle weakness but can cause headaches.

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  • Question 35 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked, drowsy and confused. He is known to be type-2 diabetic maintained on metformin. Blood tests reveal a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 24 mmol/l. Ketones are not significantly elevated and random blood glucose was 8.7 mmol/l. What is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Rehydration

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is occasionally responsible for metabolic acidosis in diabetics. It may occur in the presence of normal blood levels of the ketone bodies, and such cases are often described as having “non-ketotic diabetic acidosis.
      It is most commonly associated with tissue hypoperfusion and states of acute circulatory failure.
      Appropriate measures include treatment of shock, restoration of circulating fluid volume, improved cardiac function, identification of sepsis source, early antimicrobial intervention, and resection of any potential ischemic regions. Reassessment of lactate levels for clearance assists ongoing medical management.

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  • Question 36 - A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised parathyroid hormone levels. Her blood tests are highly suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism. She has type 2 diabetes controlled by metformin alone. Her albumin-adjusted serum calcium level is 3.5 mmol/litre. Which of the following is the most important reason for her referral?

      Your Answer: Albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 3.5 mmol/litre

      Explanation:

      Indications for surgery for the treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism:
      1. Symptoms of hypercalcaemia such as thirst, frequent or excessive urination, or constipation
      2. End-organ disease (renal stones, fragility fractures or osteoporosis)
      3. An albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/litre or above.

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  • Question 37 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone. On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects. From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg. Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A post-operative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

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  • Question 38 - A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8%...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regime. He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning. Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Reduce his nocturnal dose of mixed insulin

      Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime

      Explanation:

      The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
      Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help.

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  • Question 39 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

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  • Question 40 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
      The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

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  • Question 41 - A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for advice. He is about to start fasting for Ramadan and he is not sure how to modify the administration of his diabetes medications. He is currently on metformin 500mg tds. What is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: Switch to subcutaneous biphasic insulin for the duration of Ramadan

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      Biguanides (Metformin):
      People who take metformin alone should be able to fast safely given that the possibility of hypoglycaemia is minimal. However, patients should modify its dose and administration timing to provide two-thirds of the total daily dose, which should be taken immediately with the sunset meal, while the other third is taken before the predawn meal.

      Thiazolidinediones: No change needed.

      Sulfonylurea:
      Once-daily sulfonylurea (such as glimepiride or gliclazide MR): the total daily dose should be taken with the sunset meal.
      Shorter-acting sulfonylurea (such as gliclazide twice daily): the same daily dose remains unchanged, and one dose should be taken at the sunset meal and the other at the predawn meal.
      Long-acting sulfonylurea (such as glibenclamide): these agents should be avoided.

      It is important that diabetic patients to eat a healthy balanced diet and choose foods with a low glycaemic index (such as complex carbohydrates), which can help to maintain blood glucose levels during fasting. Moreover, it is crucial to consume adequate fluids to prevent dehydration. Physical activity is encouraged, especially during non-fasting periods.

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  • Question 42 - A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had type-1 diabetes for 30 years. Recently, he has suffered several falls, which he describes as attacks where he feels ‘faint’ and loses his footing. He has suffered from impotence for several years and takes anti-reflux medication. On examination, he has a postural drop of 35 mmHg in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy may involve the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, genitourinary systems and the sweat glands.
      Patients with generalized autonomic neuropathies may report ataxia, gait instability, or near syncope/syncope. In addition, autonomic neuropathies have further symptoms that relate to the anatomic site of nerve damage—gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, bladder, or sudomotor.
      – Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Dysphagia, abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, malabsorption, faecal incontinence, diarrhoea, constipation.
      – Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms :
      Persistent sinus tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, sinus arrhythmia, decreased heart variability in response to deep breathing, near syncope upon changing positions from recumbent to standing.
      – Bladder neuropathy (which must be differentiated from prostate or spine disorders) may produce the following symptoms:
      Poor urinary stream
      Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying
      Straining to void
      – Sudomotor neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Heat intolerance
      Heavy sweating of head, neck, and trunk with anhidrosis of lower trunk and extremities
      Gustatory sweating

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  • Question 43 - Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes

      1. A1C ≥6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
      OR
      2. Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
      OR
      3. 2-h plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
      OR
      4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
      *In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1–3 should be confirmed by repeat testing.

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  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma. Investigations were done and the results are as shown below: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 4.9 x109/L, PLT 199 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 ىmol/L, Prolactin 1150 mU/l. MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma. Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?

      Your Answer: GH

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
      Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
      Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary.

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  • Question 45 - A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
      In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.

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  • Question 46 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Correct

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

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  • Question 47 - A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne....

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy. On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0), White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11), Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400), Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118), Total testosterone normal, Free androgen index elevated, LH / FSH ratio 2.2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
      Two of the following three criteria are required:
      1. Oligo/anovulation
      2. Hyperandrogenism
      – Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
      – Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
      Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
      Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 48 - Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?

      Your Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
      In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 49 - Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?

      Your Answer: A rise in plasma osmolality to 302 mmol/kg during water deprivation

      Correct Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.

      In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.

      In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
      A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
      Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
      Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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