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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Early Pregnancy Unit with vaginal bleeding and an unknown gestational age. She reports no pain and is stable. This is her first pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a tubal pregnancy with a visible fetal heartbeat and an unruptured adnexal mass measuring 40mm. Her beta-hCG level is 5,200 IU/L. What is the initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Medical
Correct Answer: Surgical - laparoscopic salpingectomy
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse in charge to assess a patient who is experiencing acute shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 8 days after undergoing total knee replacement surgery. The patient is a 66-year-old builder with a medical history of COPD and high cholesterol. He has a BMI of 35 and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. His vital signs are as follows: regular heart rate of 115 beats per minute, blood pressure of 135/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. What is the most effective diagnostic test to perform on this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram
Explanation:Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism in Postoperative Patients
In postoperative patients who become acutely unwell, pulmonary embolism (PE) must be considered and excluded as a crucial diagnosis. After initial resuscitation, diagnostic tests such as arterial blood gas sampling, full blood count, and C-reactive protein count are likely to be performed. However, these tests cannot confirm a specific diagnosis and may be abnormal in various conditions such as PE, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumothorax, or cardiac events.
D-dimer is often used to assess the risk of PE, but in patients with major risk factors such as surgery and minor risk factors such as obesity, a negative D-dimer cannot rule out PE. Chest X-ray can reveal underlying chest pathology, but it is rarely diagnostic for PE. The wedge-shaped infarcts that are often associated with PE are not common. However, a chest X-ray can determine whether a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is possible or whether a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is required.
In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is already an underlying V/Q mismatch, making it difficult to diagnose PE with a low probability result. Therefore, a CTPA is necessary to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of PE. Patients with suspected PE should be placed on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) until a definitive diagnosis is made. In conclusion, clinicians must have a high degree of suspicion for PE in postoperative patients and use a diagnostic rationale to exclude other potential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has been referred through the 2 week-wait colorectal cancer referral scheme due to a change in bowel habit. He reports experiencing tenesmus, weight loss, and a change in bowel habit for the past 3 months. A colonoscopy has been scheduled for him. What advice should be given to prepare him for the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laxatives required the day before the examination
Explanation:Bowel prep is necessary for a colonoscopy.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been experiencing daily temperatures up to 40°C, malaise, and occasional aches in the hands and knees. She also noticed a transient pink rash on her abdomen. Her GP prescribed a one-week course of ampicillin, but it had little effect. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.9°C, a pulse of 110 per minute, and a faint systolic ejection murmur. Her spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her haemoglobin level is 115 g/L, and her white cell count is 12.8 ×109/L. Her ASO titre is 250 units, and her rheumatoid factor and ANF are negative. Blood cultures have been requested but are not yet available. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adult onset Still's disease
Explanation:Adult Onset Still’s Disease
Adult onset Still’s disease is a type of inflammatory disorder that affects young adults. Its exact cause and development are still unknown, but it is characterized by various symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ enlargement. The disease can have systemic exacerbations and chronic arthritis, with periods of remission in between. To diagnose adult onset Still’s disease, a person must have at least five criteria, including two major criteria such as high fever lasting for a week or longer, joint pain lasting for two weeks or longer, rash, and abnormal white blood cell count. Minor criteria include sore throat, lymph node or spleen swelling, liver problems, and the absence of rheumatoid arthritis.
It is important to note that mildly raised ASO titres may be present in inflammatory or infective conditions, but an ASO titre of at least 500-1000 is expected in active acute rheumatic fever. Additionally, an ejection systolic murmur may be caused by the hyperdynamic circulation in adult onset Still’s disease, unlike acute rheumatic fever or acute bacterial endocarditis, which cause acute valvular regurgitation and result in pan-systolic or early-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, bacterial endocarditis does not cause the pink rash associated with adult onset Still’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is negative for HBV surface antigens is considering having unprotected sexual intercourse with a man who is positive for HBV.
What should she do in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaccine
Explanation:Hepatitis B Vaccine in the UK
Although the risk of hepatitis B is low in the UK, certain individuals are considered to be at high risk and are offered the vaccine. These high-risk groups include individuals who inject drugs or have a partner who injects drugs, those who receive regular blood transfusions, people with chronic liver disease, close family or sexual partners of someone with hepatitis B, and individuals traveling to high-risk countries.
In the case of a patient whose partner has tested positive for the surface antigen (HBsAg), indicating that they are infected with hepatitis B, the patient may not require post-exposure treatment if they plan on having regular unprotected sexual intercourse. In this situation, the best course of action would be to receive the hepatitis B vaccine alone. It is important for individuals in high-risk groups to consider getting vaccinated to protect themselves against this potentially serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent cough, haemoptysis, and copious amounts of mucopurulent sputum for the past 10 years. Sputum analysis shows mixed flora with anaerobes present. During childhood, she experienced multiple episodes of pneumonia.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Recognizing Bronchiectasis: Symptoms and Indicators
Bronchiectasis is a respiratory condition that can be identified through several symptoms and indicators. One of the most common signs is the production of large amounts of sputum, which can be thick and difficult to cough up. Additionally, crackles may be heard when listening to the chest with a stethoscope. In some cases, finger clubbing may also be present. This occurs when the fingertips become enlarged and rounded, resembling drumsticks.
It is important to note that bronchiectasis can be caused by a variety of factors, including childhood pneumonia or previous tuberculosis. These conditions can lead to damage in the airways, which can result in bronchiectasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe headache that started six hours ago. She also reports feeling nauseous and has vomited three times. Upon examination, she has neck stiffness and photophobia, but her GCS is 15 and she has no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Diagnosing Severe Headaches: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage and Differential Diagnosis
The sudden onset of a severe headache is a strong indication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which can be confirmed through a head CT scan. If the scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed to check for red blood cells and xanthochromia. Bacterial meningitis is also a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with other symptoms of sepsis such as fever. Migraines, on the other hand, are usually preceded by an aura and visual disturbances, and are often associated with prior history and risk factors. Sinusitis and cluster headaches are not suggested by the patient’s history.
Overall, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses when evaluating severe headaches, as prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling in both legs extending from the groin area and dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Causes of Bilateral Lower Limb Edema: Differential Diagnosis
Bilateral lower limb edema can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with inferior vena cava obstruction, which is caused by extrinsic compression from a renal mass. This obstruction prevents venous drainage of the lower limbs and leads to bilateral edema and distended superficial abdominal veins. Other causes of bilateral lower limb edema include hyponatremia, hypoalbuminemia, deep venous thrombosis, and heart failure. However, each of these conditions presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Hyponatremia and hypoalbuminemia cause generalized edema, while deep venous thrombosis presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected limb. Heart failure also causes bilateral dependent edema but does not lead to venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is crucial to establish the correct diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic woman who complains of numbness and tingling in some of her fingers in her right hand. During examination, you observe that she has reduced sensation in her thumb, index and middle fingers in this hand. She also has some weakness in these fingers when she tries to flex them and make a fist, and there is some thenar muscle wasting. Her pulse is 80 bpm with a normal volume, and otherwise her skin, joints and bones appear totally normal.
What is the most likely condition that she is suffering from?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Hand and Wrist Conditions: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Possibilities
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve is compressed, leading to symptoms such as tingling, numbness, altered sensation, and pain in the thumb, index finger, and half of the middle finger. This condition can be caused by various risk factors, including obesity, overuse of hand and wrist, wrist trauma, and pregnancy. Diagnosis can be made through tests such as Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests, and treatment options range from conservative measures to surgical intervention.
Other possible hand and wrist conditions include radial nerve palsy, peripheral neuropathy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop and an inability to extend the wrist, while peripheral neuropathy typically affects both upper and lower limbs in a glove and stocking distribution of anesthesia. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the ulnar nerve and affects the ring and fifth finger, while rheumatoid arthritis tends to be symmetrical and affects the small joints of the hand. Understanding these conditions and their unique features can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her GP takes liver function tests (LFTs): bilirubin 41 μmol/l, AST 46 iu/l, ALT 56 iu/l, GGT 241 iu/l, ALP 198 iu/l. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. What is the next best investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen
Explanation:Investigations for Obstructive Jaundice
Obstructive jaundice can be caused by various conditions, including gallstones, pancreatic cancer, and autoimmune liver diseases like PSC or PBC. An obstructive/cholestatic picture is indicated by raised ALP and GGT levels compared to AST or ALT. The first-line investigation for obstruction is an ultrasound of the abdomen, which is cheap, simple, non-invasive, and readily available. It can detect intra- or extrahepatic duct dilation, liver size, shape, consistency, gallstones, and neoplasia in the pancreas. An autoantibody screen may help narrow down potential diagnoses, but an ultrasound provides more information. A CT scan may be requested after ultrasound to provide a more detailed anatomical picture. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for biliary obstruction, but it has complications and risks associated with sedation. The PABA test is used to diagnose pancreatic insufficiency, which can cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, or diabetes mellitus.
Investigating Obstructive Jaundice
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort and bloating. She also reports having episodes of diarrhea with mucous in her stool, but no blood. The pain tends to worsen after meals and improve after having a bowel movement. Despite her symptoms, she has not experienced any weight loss and maintains a healthy appetite. She has undergone surgery for osteoarthritis in her hip, but has no other significant medical history.
Upon investigation, the patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease. What is the most likely complication this patient may develop?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colovesical fistulae
Explanation:Complications and Associations of Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a condition that can lead to various complications. One of the most common complications is the formation of fistulae, which are abnormal connections between different organs. The most frequent type of fistula associated with diverticular disease is the colovesical fistula, which connects the colon and the bladder. Other types of fistulae include colovaginal, colouterine, and coloenteric. Colocutaneous fistulae, which connect the colon and the skin, are less common.
Diverticular disease does not increase the risk of developing colorectal carcinoma, a type of cancer that affects the bowel. However, it can cause other symptoms such as haemorrhoids, which are not directly related to the condition. Anal fissure, another medical condition that affects the anus, is not associated with diverticular disease either. Instead, it is linked to other conditions such as HIV, tuberculosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and syphilis.
In summary, diverticular disease can lead to various complications and associations, but it is not a pre-malignant condition and does not directly cause haemorrhoids or anal fissure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you both agree that the implant would be the most suitable option. You believe that she has the ability to make this decision and give her consent for the insertion. However, during previous consultations, you have found her to lack capacity for certain decisions and have involved her parents. According to the GMC, what is necessary to proceed with the implant insertion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Just the patient's consent.
Explanation:Capacity to make decisions is dependent on both time and the individual’s ability to make decisions. If the patient did not have the capacity to make a decision in the past, but currently has the capacity to do so, their consent is the only one required. It is advisable to involve parents in the decision-making process for pediatric patients, especially in cases involving contraception. However, if the patient is not convinced, the treatment can still proceed as long as they have the capacity to make the decision. If there are doubts, it is good practice to involve another healthcare team member, but if the patient is deemed capable of making the decision, their capacitous consent is sufficient according to the GMC. There is no requirement for a time gap between consultations to allow for decision-making.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness while grocery shopping. Upon examination, she is fully alert and appears to be in good health.
Her vital signs are normal, with a CBG of 5.8 mmol/l. However, her cardiovascular system shows an irregular, low volume heart rate of 90-110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying down and standing up. Her JVP is raised by 5 cm, and her apex beat is displaced to the mid-axillary line, with diffuse heart sounds. A loud pansystolic murmur is heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla and at the lower left sternal edge, along with a mid-diastolic rumble best heard at the apex. There are occasional bibasal crackles in her chest, which clear up with coughing. Additionally, she has mild peripheral edema up to the mid-calf.
Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mixed mitral valve disease
Explanation:This patient exhibits features of mixed mitral valve disease, which can be challenging to diagnose due to contradictory signs. She has a mid-diastolic rumble, low-volume pulse, and atrial fibrillation, indicating mitral stenosis. However, she also has a displaced apex beat and a pan-systolic murmur, indicating mitral regurgitation. Mixed aortic valve disease is also common in these patients. Aortic stenosis and mixed aortic valve disease are unlikely diagnoses based on the clinical findings, while mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation alone do not fully explain the examination results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been referred to a rheumatologist by her GP due to complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and is known to have an allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests revealed a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, methotrexate, and sarilumab are not contraindicated for this patient. These drugs may be considered as first-line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis, depending on the patient’s disease activity and response to other medications. It is important to note that sulfasalazine should be avoided in patients with a sulfa drug allergy.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male smoker arrived in the Emergency Department by ambulance. He had become increasingly breathless at home, and despite receiving high-flow oxygen in the ambulance he is no better. He has a flapping tremor of his hands, a bounding pulse and palmar erythema.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:Understanding Hypercapnia: A Possible Cause of Breathlessness and Flapping Tremor in COPD Patients
Hypercapnia is a condition that can occur in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and respiratory failure. It is caused by the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to a relative loss of surface area for gas exchange within the lungs. This can lead to bronchospasm and inflammation, which can further exacerbate the problem. In some cases, patients with chronic hypoxia and hypercapnia may become dependent on hypoxia to drive respiration. If high concentrations of oxygen are given, this drive may be reduced or lost completely, leading to hypoventilation, reduced minute ventilation, accumulation of CO2, and subsequent respiratory acidosis (type 2 respiratory failure).
External signs of hypercapnia include reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, flapping tremor (asterixis), palmar erythema, and bounding pulses (due to CO2-induced vasodilation). While other conditions such as hepatic encephalopathy, Parkinson’s disease, delirium tremens, and hyperthyroidism can also cause tremors and other symptoms, they do not typically cause breathlessness or the specific type of tremor seen in hypercapnia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypercapnia in COPD patients, as prompt intervention can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old basketball player collapsed during a game and died from a ruptured aortic aneurysm. The athlete died from the consequences of a genetic defect called Marfan’s syndrome.
Which extracellular matrix protein is altered in this disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1
Explanation:Fibrillin-1 is a glycoprotein that forms microfibrils in the extracellular matrix. These microfibrils can create elastic fibers, providing support for tissues like vessels, ligaments, and skin. Mutations in the FIB-1 gene can cause Marfan’s syndrome, which is characterized by inelastic connective tissue and increased risk of aortic dissection. Integrins are transmembrane proteins that anchor the cell cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. Mutations in integrin genes can lead to leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I. Mutations in type I collagen can cause osteogenesis imperfecta and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Fibronectin mutations can cause fibronectin glomerulopathy, a kidney disease. Laminins are proteins in the basement membrane of epithelial cells, and mutations in some types can cause muscular dystrophy and junctional epidermolysis bullosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment
Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.
Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.
Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.
It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.
In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant with twins comes to you complaining of intense pruritus that has been affecting her sleep for the past 4 days. She has multiple excoriations but no visible skin rash. The pregnancy has been uneventful, and foetal movements are normal.
Her blood tests show:
- Bilirubin 38 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 205 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 180 u/L (3 - 40)
An abdominal ultrasound shows no abnormalities.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what management plan would you recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plan to induce labour at 37 weeks
Explanation:This patient has intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which is characterized by abnormal liver function tests and severe itching in the third trimester. This condition increases the risk of stillbirth and maternal complications, particularly after 37 weeks of gestation. Therefore, induction of labor is typically recommended at this point, especially for patients with elevated transaminases and bile acids. While increased fetal monitoring is advised, hospitalization is not necessary unless there are signs of immediate concern for the fetus. A vaginal birth is usually appropriate, and a cesarean section is rarely required unless there are indications of non-reassuring fetal status. Although antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they are not sufficient on their own due to the risks associated with this condition. Other options for symptom relief include ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine, and topical emollients. There is no indication for immediate delivery, as fetal movements and ultrasound results are normal.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old victim of a high-speed car collision had a right sided pneumothorax, along with fracture of the pelvis and right humerus. A chest drain was inserted, which kept on bubbling over the next few days. The air leak got worse when the drain was connected to low-grade suction and the lung failed to expand fully.
What is the most likely cause of this complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Injury to a major bronchus
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of persistent air leak after chest trauma
Injury to a major bronchus: a possible cause of persistent air leak after chest trauma
When a patient presents with a history of chest trauma and a persistent air leak from a chest drain, one possible explanation is injury to a major bronchus. This type of injury can occur when a forceful blow to the chest happens while the glottis is closed, leading to a tear or rupture of the bronchial wall. The presence of surgical emphysema, which is the abnormal accumulation of air in the tissues due to a communication between the airways and the pleural space, can be a clue to this diagnosis. However, if the injury is not recognized initially, the air leak may worsen or persist despite suction applied to the chest drain, and the affected lung may fail to re-expand.
The management of major air leaks from bronchial injuries typically involves pleurodesis, which is a procedure that aims to create adhesions between the two layers of the pleura, thus obliterating the pleural space and preventing further air leakage. This can be achieved by different methods, such as video-assisted thoracoscopy or the application of blood and fibrin patches.
Other possible causes of persistent air leak after chest trauma include tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate decompression of the pleural space, and fat embolism, which can occur in patients with multiple injuries and may cause respiratory and neurological symptoms as well as skin petechiae. However, these conditions can usually be distinguished from bronchial injury based on the clinical features and imaging findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol
Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.
For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.
Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.
Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.
High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.
Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
What is the most effective treatment option at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs
Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.
Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.
In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which nerve (and corresponding nerve root) are you assessing when eliciting the triceps reflex during a neurological examination of the upper limb by striking the triceps tendon with a tendon hammer while the patient's arm is flexed at 90° across their chest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7
Explanation:The Radial Nerve and Triceps Muscle
The radial nerve is responsible for innervating the triceps muscle, which is the primary extensor of the forearm. This nerve is mainly derived from the C7 nerve root and provides motor supply to the upper limb extensor compartments. The triceps muscle gets its name from its three heads of origin, namely the long, lateral, and medial heads. It attaches to the olecranon of the ulna bone.
In summary, the radial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement of the upper limb extensor compartments, particularly the triceps muscle. Its origin from the C7 nerve root and its innervation of the triceps muscle make it an essential component of the upper limb motor system. The triceps muscle three heads of origin and attachment to the olecranon of the ulna bone further highlight its importance in the movement of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman complains of dyspareunia and abnormal vaginal discharge that looks like 'cottage cheese'. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and had her last period 5 days ago. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:For non-pregnant women with vaginal thrush, the recommended first-line treatment is a single-dose of oral fluconazole. This is based on NICE guidelines for the diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis. The use of clotrimazole intravaginal pessary is only recommended if the patient is unable to take oral treatment due to safety concerns. Oral nystatin is not appropriate for this condition as it is used for oral candidiasis. While topical clotrimazole can be used to treat vaginal candidiasis, it is not the preferred first-line treatment and should only be used if fluconazole is not effective or contraindicated.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion
Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:
Trophoblastic Disease
This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.Ectopic Pregnancy
This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.Threatened Miscarriage
This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.Confirmed Miscarriage
After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.Septic Abortion
This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient with diabetes who is 60 years old is admitted with confusion and is found to have a blood glucose level of 1.2 mmol/L.
Which injectable diabetes therapy is a mixed insulin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Humulin M3
Explanation:Insulin Types and Mixtures
Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels in the body. Premix or mixed insulin is a combination of short and long-acting insulin. It is identified by a number that represents the percentage of rapid-acting insulin it contains. For instance, Novomix 30 has 30% rapid-acting insulin and 70% long-acting insulin. Mixed insulin is usually taken twice daily and must be administered with meals as it contains rapid-acting insulin.
Insulin detemir, also known as Levemir, is a long-acting analogue that lasts for about 12-20 hours and is usually given twice a day. Insulin glargine, also known as Lantus, is another long-acting analogue that lasts for about 20-24 hours and is usually given once a day. Novorapid is a fast-acting insulin that is often used to cover the increase in blood glucose levels following a meal. Patients taking Novorapid will usually require treatment with a long-acting insulin.
Exenatide is an injectable therapy for type 2 diabetes that is based on the hormone glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) and is not insulin. It is important to note that lipohypertrophy can occur in all insulin treatments. This refers to the accumulation of fatty deposits at injection sites, which can affect the rate of insulin absorption and, in turn, affect the patient’s glycaemic control. Therefore, it is crucial to rotate injection sites regularly to avoid lipohypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful vaginal bleeding. She had been feeling unwell for a few days, experiencing lightheadedness upon standing. Despite being pregnant, she has not sought antenatal care, except for her initial booking visit. Upon examination, her heart rate is 130 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 21 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 96/65 mmHg. Her abdomen is tense, with a firm and fixed uterus. What is the most likely risk factor for this complication in this pregnant woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Older age
Explanation:Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.
The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman is admitted to hospital after a fall from standing. She is experiencing intense pain in her left hip and cannot bear weight. An initial X-ray reveals a neck of femur fracture, and she undergoes hemiarthroplasty. As she begins to weight bear and recover, her consultant advises that her fracture is likely due to osteoporosis and that she would benefit from long-term treatment. What is the most suitable ongoing management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy immediately
Explanation:A DEXA scan is not necessary to diagnose osteoporosis in women over 75 years who have experienced a fragility fracture. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately commence bisphosphonate therapy. In this case, the patient can be started on treatment without the need for a DEXA scan, as her consultant believes she would benefit from it.
The options of a DEXA scan with bisphosphonates if indicated, FRAX score with bisphosphonates if indicated, and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are all incorrect. While a DEXA scan and FRAX score can be useful in determining fracture risk and guiding management in certain cases, they are not necessary in this patient group. HRT is also not indicated for older postmenopausal women.
The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) on an emergency appointment due to her worsening anxiety state. She reveals to the GP that she has been experiencing this for several years and is now seeking treatment. What is the most effective approach for long-term management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Medications for Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder can severely impact a patient’s daily life. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is the recommended first-line treatment. However, caution must be taken when prescribing to young adults, those over 65, and patients on other medications due to potential side effects. Zopiclone, Haloperidol, and Diazepam are not appropriate treatments for this disorder and should be avoided. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not considered the best management for generalised anxiety disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What do T waves represent on an ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The Electrical Activity of the Heart and the ECG
The ECG (electrocardiogram) is a medical test that records the electrical activity of the heart. This activity is responsible for different parts of the ECG. The first part is the atrial depolarisation, which is represented by the P wave. This wave conducts down the bundle of His to the ventricles, causing the ventricular depolarisation. This is shown on the ECG as the QRS complex. Finally, the ventricular repolarisation is represented by the T wave.
It is important to note that atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG. This is because it is of lower amplitude compared to the QRS complex. the different parts of the ECG and their corresponding electrical activity can help medical professionals diagnose and treat various heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she is spontaneously opening her eyes and localising to painful stimuli, but is disoriented. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be diagnosed with a high degree of accuracy through an urgent CT scan, which can confirm the condition in 95% of patients. In most cases, a lumbar puncture is not necessary unless the patient’s medical history suggests the need for one and the CT scan results are normal. If a bloody tap is suspected, the number of red blood cells should decrease with each successive sample. If an LP is performed six hours after the onset of symptoms, the supernatant fluid should be examined for xanthochromia after centrifugation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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