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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is currently taking...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is currently taking Sinemet (co-careldopa) prescribed by her neurologist. However, she is experiencing severe nausea as a side effect. What is the best anti-emetic medication to recommend?

      Your Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinsonism and Its Causes

      Parkinsonism is a term used to describe a group of neurological disorders that share similar symptoms with Parkinson’s disease. The causes of Parkinsonism can vary, with some cases being drug-induced, such as the use of antipsychotics or metoclopramide. Other causes include progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, Wilson’s disease, post-encephalitis, and dementia pugilistica, which is often seen in individuals who have suffered from chronic head trauma, such as boxers. Additionally, exposure to toxins like carbon monoxide or MPTP can also lead to Parkinsonism.

      It is important to note that not all medications that cause extra-pyramidal side-effects will lead to Parkinsonism. For example, domperidone does not cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore does not cause these side-effects. Understanding the various causes of Parkinsonism can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as prevention in some cases. By identifying the underlying cause, healthcare professionals can tailor treatment plans to address the specific needs of each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man presents with a recent change in bowel habit and is...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a recent change in bowel habit and is scheduled for outpatient sigmoidoscopy. He reports passing 3 stools daily with some mucus but no blood. The patient is in good overall health, with stable vital signs and normal blood test results. He has no known allergies and is not taking any medications at present.

      During the sigmoidoscopy, the patient is found to have localised proctitis, with no inflammation detected further up the gastrointestinal tract. Based on these findings, the patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis and receives appropriate counselling.

      What would be the most effective drug management approach for this patient's current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rectal aminosalicylates

      Explanation:

      For a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is rectal aminosalicylates. This is particularly effective if the inflammation is limited to the rectum. If rectal aminosalicylates are not effective, oral aminosalicylates may be used in combination with or instead of the topical treatment. However, if the patient has contraindications or intolerances to aminosalicylates, topical or oral steroids may be preferred. Intravenous steroids are typically reserved for severe flares of colitis with symptoms such as frequent bloody stools, systemic upset, anemia, or elevated inflammatory markers.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner with worsening pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner with worsening pain in her right ear. She presented four days ago and was diagnosed with otitis media; she was then discharged with return advice. On examination, she is febrile. She has a normal ear canal and a bulging, red tympanic membrane. Behind the right pinna, there is an area of redness and swelling.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral to Hospital for Mastoiditis: Explanation and Recommendations

      Mastoiditis is a serious complication of otitis media that requires prompt medical attention. In this condition, the infection spreads to the mastoid bone behind the ear, causing pain, swelling, and redness. If left untreated, mastoiditis can lead to life-threatening complications such as meningitis or intracranial abscess. Therefore, it is essential to refer patients with suspected mastoiditis to hospital for further assessment and treatment.

      Diagnosis of mastoiditis is based on clinical examination, which may include a CT scan to evaluate the extent of the infection. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, such as ceftriaxone and metronidazole, administered in hospital. Oral antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin or amoxicillin, are not effective for mastoiditis and should not be prescribed in this condition.

      Patients with mastoiditis may also experience systemic symptoms, such as fever, malaise, or headache. Therefore, it is important to monitor their condition closely and provide appropriate supportive care, such as pain relief or hydration.

      In summary, referral to hospital is the recommended course of action for patients with suspected mastoiditis. This ensures timely and effective treatment, reduces the risk of complications, and improves outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical unit with an infective...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical unit with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) which has failed to improve despite a course of antibiotics and steroids. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and takes aspirin, simvastatin, amlodipine, and metformin. His random blood glucose on admission is 12.3mmol/l and a HbA1c test is ordered, which shows an IFCC-HbA1c of 45 mmol/mol and HbA1c of 6.3%. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Make no changes to diabetes medictions

      Explanation:

      The HbA1c is a reliable indicator of good glycaemic control and should be used to determine any necessary changes to diabetes medications. It reflects average glucose levels over a period of 2-3 months, rather than a single reading. It is possible that the recent use of steroids has temporarily worsened glycaemic control in this case.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion and abnormal behaviour. Her husband says she has been well till today. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medication.
      On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.7 °C. Her heart rate is 125 bpm with a blood pressure of 115/95 mmHg. Chest sounds are clear and heart sounds are normal. She has a soft abdomen with a palpable uterus in keeping with 16 weeks’ gestation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.3 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 7.1 × 109/l 2.5–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 0.9 × 109/l 0.8–5.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 57 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 17.3 mmol/l 1.8–7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 225µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 34 60+
      Bilirubin 20µmol/l 1–22 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 U/l 7–55 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 85 U/l 30–150 U/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 9 mg/l < 10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Blood film

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in a Pregnant Patient with Fever and Confusion

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) should be considered in a pregnant patient presenting with fever, acute kidney injury, cerebral dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood film is needed to show the presence of schistocytes from the destruction of red blood cells. An abdominal ultrasound may be considered, but it will not aid in identifying the underlying diagnosis. Although a blood culture is appropriate, it would not confirm the diagnosis. A CT head or lumbar puncture may be useful in excluding visible organic pathology, but they do not play a role in the diagnosis of TTP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic from her General Practitioner. She wishes to discuss the potential removal of unilateral nasal polyps which have failed to respond to a steroid nasal spray.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with this patient’s pathology?

      Your Answer: Kartagener syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Association with Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are abnormal growths that develop in the lining of the nasal passages or sinuses. While they can occur in anyone, certain medical conditions may increase the likelihood of their development. Here are some medical conditions and their association with nasal polyps:

      Kartagener Syndrome: This rare autosomal recessive condition is characterized by primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus. Patients with this condition tend to develop chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, recurrent chest and ENT infections, and nasal polyps.

      Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia: This condition is characterized by fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and jaundice as a consequence of haemolysis driving high levels of bilirubin. However, it does not affect the nose and is not linked to nasal polyps.

      Crohn’s Disease: This inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and can also cause extraintestinal manifestations such as arthritis, iritis, and rashes. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

      Diabetes Mellitus: While nasal polyps are not associated with diabetes mellitus, other conditions including coeliac disease, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and thyroid dysfunction can all develop in affected individuals.

      Hereditary Spherocytosis: This condition is characterized by abnormally shaped erythrocytes and symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Clinical signs include pallor, jaundice, and splenomegaly. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years ago and is currently utilizing a salbutamol inhaler 100mcg as needed in combination with beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 200 mcg twice daily. However, her asthma remains poorly controlled. Upon examination, her chest is clear and she demonstrates proper inhaler technique. In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Among the following individuals, which one has the highest risk of suicide? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following individuals, which one has the highest risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: A 50-year-old man with alcohol dependence and prior suicide attempts

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Suicide

      Suicide is a complex issue with a variety of risk factors. The strongest indicators of suicide are the presence of a mental disorder, including alcohol-use disorder, and a history of previous suicide attempts. Age and sex also play a role, with the risk increasing with age and men being more likely to complete suicide. Marital status, unemployment, living alone, and chronic illnesses are also associated with an increased risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to identify and prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man is scheduled for elective surgery to repair an umbilical hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is scheduled for elective surgery to repair an umbilical hernia. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and type two diabetes mellitus. He takes paracetamol 1 gram four times daily and metformin 500 mg once daily at breakfast. The surgery is expected to last for an hour and is scheduled for 11am. What is the appropriate management of his metformin on the day of surgery?

      Your Answer: Change metformin to evening instead of morning

      Correct Answer: Continue as normal

      Explanation:

      When a patient is scheduled for surgery, it can be confusing to know how to manage their medications. However, it is important for junior doctors to be knowledgeable in this area. Time-critical medications, such as those used for Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, and diabetes, should be taken up to two hours before surgery with clear fluids. For patients taking metformin, the medication should be continued as normal if taken once or twice daily. If taken three times daily, the lunchtime dose should be skipped. This is because metformin can increase the risk of acute kidney injury if a meal is missed during surgery. If the patient’s eGFR falls below 60, metformin should be avoided for 48 hours after surgery. If the patient has poor diabetes control or a longer surgery, variable rate intravenous insulin infusion may be used. All other medications used for type two diabetes should be stopped.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of bilateral tinnitus....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of bilateral tinnitus. She denies any changes in her hearing or other ear-related symptoms. The PCP conducts ear and cranial nerve examinations, which reveal no abnormalities. The patient's medication list is reviewed.
      Which ONE medication from the following list is most likely responsible for the patient's tinnitus?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Quinine

      Explanation:

      Medication and Tinnitus: Understanding the Association

      Tinnitus, the perception of sounds in the ears or head without an external source, can be distressing and may indicate an underlying condition. While it is often considered a minor symptom, certain medications have been associated with tinnitus. Quinine, commonly used to treat malaria, is one such medication. Other medications that may cause tinnitus include aspirin, aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. However, medications like spironolactone, salbutamol, metformin, and nifedipine are not associated with tinnitus. It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if experiencing tinnitus or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up for type 2 diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up for type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the review, his HbA1c level is found to be 58 mmol/mol. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g twice daily and is fully compliant. He has no allergies and is not taking any other medications. The patient had a transurethral resection for bladder cancer five years ago and is still under urology follow-up with no signs of disease recurrence. He has no other medical history, exercises regularly, and maintains a healthy diet. The patient's BMI is 25kg/m².

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Add gliclazide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with T2DM who is on metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol, the most appropriate choice for a second antidiabetic agent is gliclazide, according to NICE guidelines and the patient’s clinical factors. Pioglitazone is not recommended due to the patient’s history of bladder cancer, and SGLT-2 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists are not appropriate in this case. Modified-release metformin is not recommended for improving HbA1c control. Dual therapy with a sulfonylurea, DPP-4 inhibitor, or pioglitazone is recommended by NICE once HbA1c is 58 mmol/mol or over on metformin, but the choice of agent depends on the individual clinical scenario.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests. All results were within normal limits except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
      TSH 12.5 mU/l
      Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner who has been on peritoneal...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner who has been on peritoneal dialysis for ten years due to end-stage renal failure. He complains of chronic back and shoulder pain and is subsequently diagnosed with renal amyloidosis secondary to long-term dialysis. This is thought to be the explanation for the pain in his shoulder.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Steroid injection to shoulder joint

      Explanation:

      Managing Shoulder Pain in Renal Amyloidosis Patients

      Renal amyloidosis can cause acute pain in the shoulder joint due to scapulohumeral arthritis and infiltration of the rotator cuff by amyloid proteins. While a steroid injection can provide temporary relief, it is not a definitive management option. Switching dialysis types will not improve the condition, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not recommended for patients with compromised renal function. Surgical fixation of the affected joint may provide temporary relief, but it will not halt the progression of the disease. The most effective long-term solution is kidney transplantation, which lowers the blood concentration of the protein and eliminates symptoms of arthritis. However, in cases of acute pain, the priority is to manage the pain while working towards transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills for women?

      Your Answer: Breast feeding a 10-week-old baby

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is classified as UKMEC category 4 if done for less than 6 weeks after giving birth, but it is categorized as UKMEC category 2 if done after this period.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He recalls noticing a bump on the eyelid that was uncomfortable at first, but it gradually grew into a hard lump. He denies any pain at present and has not experienced any vision problems. Upon examination, the eye appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chalazion

      Explanation:

      A painless, firm lump in the eyelid is indicative of a chalazion or Meibomian cyst. This occurs when the Meibomian gland becomes blocked, resulting in the formation of a cyst. It is often a consequence of an internal stye (hordeolum internum). Although cysts may resolve on their own, they may require topical antibiotics if they become infected. The absence of pain and the prolonged history suggest that it is not an internal or external stye. Blepharitis and ectropion are unlikely to cause a lump in the eyelid.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
      Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.

      Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.

      Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

      Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
      On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.

      Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.

      Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.

      Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.

      Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.8
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in her first month of pregnancy and has been experiencing excessive morning sickness. Her routine blood work revealed an ALT level of 64 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l) and a total bilirubin level of 30 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l). Additionally, her potassium level was 3.4 (reference range 3.5–5.0 mEq/l) and her urea level was 7.5 (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, each with its own set of symptoms and potential complications. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy and their distinguishing features:

      1. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This is the most severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, which can lead to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting, and may require hospitalisation.

      2. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy: This is a rare but serious complication that can occur in the third trimester. It is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver, which can lead to liver insufficiency. Symptoms include malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure.

      3. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: This is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, characterised by generalised itching, particularly in the palms and soles, and jaundice. It is caused by hormonal changes and can lead to fetal complications if not treated promptly.

      4. Pre-eclampsia: This is a disorder of widespread vascular malfunction that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is characterised by hypertension and proteinuria, with or without oedema.

      5. Biliary tract disease: This is a broad spectrum of disorders ranging from asymptomatic gallstones to cholecystitis and choledocholithiasis. Symptoms include biliary colic, inflammation of the gall bladder wall, and obstruction of the common bile duct.

      It is important to differentiate between these liver disorders in pregnancy, as each requires a different approach to management and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      72.4
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence of gallstones in her gallbladder, following her recent diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma (RCC). She is interested in discussing the available management options. The patient reports no history of abdominal pain and is in good health otherwise. She is scheduled to undergo a left-sided nephrectomy for her RCC in three weeks. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the left flank, but no palpable masses. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy at the time of nephrectomy

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      If you have been diagnosed with asymptomatic gallbladder stones, there is no need to worry. These stones are often found incidentally during imaging tests that are unrelated to gallstone disease. As long as you have not experienced any symptoms for at least a year before the diagnosis and the stones are located in a normal gallbladder and biliary tree, no intervention is necessary.

      However, if you are experiencing symptoms or if the stones are located in the common bile duct, intervention is required. This can be done through surgical removal during laparoscopic cholecystectomy or through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) before or during the surgery. Rest assured that with proper intervention, you can effectively manage your gallbladder stones and prevent any complications.

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17.9
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  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing a clear liquid, and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
      With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent

      When a comatose patient presents with a distinct scent on their breath, it can be a helpful clue in determining the underlying medical condition. The smell of acetone is strongly indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, alcohol intoxication produces a scent of alcohol rather than a fruity odor. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, does not produce a specific scent as there is no acetone production. Heroin overdose and profound hypoglycemia also do not result in a distinct breath scent. Understanding the different scents associated with various medical conditions can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      10.8
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows that has been getting worse over the past week. Upon examination, you observe multiple flat-topped papular lesions that are polygonal and measure 5mm in diameter on the flexural surface of her elbows bilaterally. There are no other rashes on the rest of her body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.9
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive decline over the past 10 months. His wife reports that he is struggling with basic tasks and becoming increasingly forgetful and confused. She has also noticed a change in his personality, including more frequent swearing and inappropriate behavior such as answering the door naked. Interestingly, his mother had a similar reputation in her later years. The patient reports smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking one glass of wine each evening. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from frontotemporal dementia, which is also known as Pick’s disease. This type of dementia is characterized by a change in personality and social disinhibition, and it often has a positive family history. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically presents with a decline in episodic memory and visuospatial awareness, while Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating confusion and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare condition that causes rapid neurodegeneration and may present with cognitive decline and personality changes, as well as additional symptoms such as abnormal movements and loss of coordination.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia. Common features of frontotemporal lobar dementias include onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems.

      Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease. Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. Microscopic changes include Pick bodies, spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining), gliosis, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques.

      In contrast, CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, with short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.5
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  • Question 24 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema despite...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema despite regular use of emollient creams. On examination, the child has dry, scaly skin on the flexor surfaces of her arms and legs without any signs of infection or weeping. What is the most suitable next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Continue using emollients and use hydrocortisone 1% ointment to be applied thinly twice a day

      Explanation:

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.1
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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      13.9
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  • Question 26 - Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by a lack of which vitamin? ...

    Correct

    • Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by a lack of which vitamin?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Vitamins and their Deficiencies: Understanding the Role of Thiamine, B12, Nicotinic Acid, Folic Acid, and Vitamin D

      Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, plays a crucial role in preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition caused by thiamine deficiency. This deficiency can result from inadequate dietary intake, reduced gastrointestinal absorption, decreased hepatic storage, and impaired utilization. Individuals with alcohol-use disorders are at high risk and should receive thiamine supplementation.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency, on the other hand, causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia and various neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy. However, it is not a cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Nicotinic acid, also known as vitamin B3 or niacin, deficiency causes pellagra, a disease characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

      Folic acid, or vitamin B9, deficiency causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia similar to that caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, but not the peripheral neuropathy caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. It is important to check if a patient with megaloblastic anemia and folic acid deficiency is also lacking vitamin B12, as treating only with folic acid replacement can worsen neurological symptoms.

      Vitamin D is involved in calcium metabolism and mainly affects bone homeostasis. Severe deficiency can cause cognitive impairment in older adults, but it is not a cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Understanding the role of these vitamins and their deficiencies can help in the prevention and treatment of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.9
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  • Question 27 - A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking a detailed medical history and conducting a thorough physical examination, the GP orders an outpatient chest CT scan. The results reveal lung fibrosis as the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. The patient has a medical history of gout and rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most likely responsible for causing lung fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.7
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.

      The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.

      Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.

      The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.

      Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      25.2
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  • Question 29 - A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-month-old child has a short history of runny nose and fever. She is staying with her grandparents, who believe in sweating out a fever and wrap her up well under several blankets on the sofa between them. She suddenly cries out and then has a single grand mal seizure lasting two minutes, during which she is incontinent of urine. A couple of minutes after the episode she is completely well. Examination reveals no focal neurological signs. Development to date has been normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Seizures in Children: A Case Study

      A child presents with a seizure following a fever. The differential diagnosis includes febrile convulsion, myoclonic epilepsy, bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, and generalised epilepsy syndrome. However, the absence of intracranial infection and other neurological features suggests that febrile convulsion is the most likely diagnosis. Febrile convulsions are common in children aged 3 months to 5 years and are associated with viral illnesses. They are generalised, last less than 15 minutes, and do not recur within 24 hours. Children with febrile seizures have no increased mortality risk but may have a slightly increased risk of epilepsy in later life. Other possible causes of seizures, such as breath-holding attacks or reflex anoxic seizures, should also be considered. Education on managing fevers and keeping the child comfortable during illnesses should be provided to the family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.9
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  • Question 30 - Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.

      She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.

      On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.

      Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
      Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
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  • Question 31 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 3 ml/min/1.73 m2. He is already undergoing renal replacement therapy. He also presents with worsening anaemia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Anaemia in End-Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with end-stage renal failure, primarily due to a decrease in the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Other causes of anaemia can include folate and vitamin B12 deficiency, uraemic inhibitors, and reduced half-life of circulating blood cells. The prevalence of anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) increases as eGFR levels decrease, with a prevalence of 12% in CKD patients. Folate deficiency and iron deficiency can also cause anaemia, but in this case, the anaemia is more likely related to poor kidney function. Deficiencies in granulocyte colony-stimulating factor and pyridoxine are less likely causes of anaemia in end-stage renal failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      7.8
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  • Question 32 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness....

    Correct

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.4
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  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of lethargy and generalised weakness. On examination, she is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
      Routine blood tests show a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, along with a hypernatraemia of 152 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l). Primary aldosteronism is suspected and investigations reveal bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer: Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatremia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, where high levels of aldosterone cause increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss. The recommended treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal disease is a mineralocorticoid antagonist, with spironolactone as the primary agent and eplerenone as an alternative. Losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is an alternative to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. Nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker, is a first-line drug for essential hypertension in patients aged 55 years or older or Afro-Caribbean patients. Perindopril, an ACEi, is a first-line drug for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. However, it is not appropriate for treating hyperaldosteronism, where spironolactone is the preferred option. Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy is recommended for cases of hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal diseases, but not for bilateral adrenal disease like in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      25.7
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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the ear, nose and throat clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the ear, nose and throat clinic with a 4-month history of left-sided hearing loss. She reports occasional ringing in her left ear and feeling unsteady. She has a medical history of well-controlled type 1 diabetes and denies any recent infections.

      During the examination, Rinne's test is positive in both ears, and Weber's test lateralizes to her right ear. There is no evidence of nystagmus, and her coordination is normal. Other than an absent left-sided corneal reflex, her cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with a loss of corneal reflex, an acoustic neuroma should be considered as a possible cause. This is a benign tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve and can lead to symptoms such as vertigo, tinnitus, and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. In some cases, the tumor can also invade the trigeminal nerve, resulting in an absent corneal reflex.

      Other conditions that may cause hearing loss and vertigo include cholesteatoma, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease. However, in this case, the patient’s hearing tests indicate a sensorineural hearing loss, which makes cholesteatoma less likely. Labyrinthitis typically causes acute vertigo that can persist for several days, but it would not be the cause of the loss of the corneal reflex. Meniere’s disease is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including tinnitus, vertigo, and sensorineural hearing loss, but the vertigo tends to be shorter in duration and follow a relapsing and remitting course.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.8
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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pelvic pain and deep...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia that has been ongoing for four days. During the examination, the GP notes a temperature of 37.9 degrees Celsius, lower abdominal tenderness, and cervical motion tenderness. The GP suspects that the woman may have pelvic inflammatory disease. What criteria should the GP use to determine whether antibiotics should be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Clinical evidence - history and examination

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, clinicians should diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease based on clinical symptoms and start antibiotic treatment promptly. While investigations such as endocervical and high vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture should be performed, they should not delay treatment. Negative swab results do not exclude the possibility of the disease. Blood cultures are not necessary unless the patient shows signs of systemic illness. Transvaginal ultrasound is not the first choice but may be necessary if an abscess is suspected.
      (NICE CKS – Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)

      Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      15.2
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  • Question 36 - You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a trial of treatment with nicorandil may be appropriate.
      Which of the following statements is true about the anti-anginal drug nicorandil?

      Your Answer: It inhibits ATP-dependent potassium channels

      Correct Answer: Oral ulceration is an unwanted effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects and Side Effects of Nicorandil

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina pectoris, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. While it is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the less common side effects of nicorandil is stomatitis and oral ulceration. This can be uncomfortable and may require medical attention. However, most patients do not experience this side effect.

      Nicorandil works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which reduces ventricular filling pressure and myocardial workload. This can be beneficial for patients with angina, but it can also cause hypotension (low blood pressure) in some cases.

      Another mechanism of action for nicorandil is its ability to activate ATP-dependent potassium channels in the mitochondria of the myocardium. This can help to improve cardiac function and reduce the risk of ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

      The most common side effect of nicorandil therapy is headache, which affects up to 48% of patients. This side effect is usually transient and can be managed by starting with a lower initial dose. Patients who are susceptible to headaches should be monitored closely.

      Finally, it is important to note that concomitant use of sildenafil (Viagra) with nicorandil should be avoided. This is because sildenafil can significantly enhance the hypotensive effect of nicorandil, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      In summary, nicorandil is a useful medication for treating angina, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and should always follow their doctor’s instructions for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.4
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  • Question 37 - Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Emphysema: Imbalance between Proteases and Anti-Proteases in the Lungs

      Emphysema is a lung disease that results from an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases within the lung. This imbalance is often caused by a1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is associated with the development of emphysema in young people with no history of smoking and a positive family history. The interplay between environmental and genetic factors determines the onset of emphysema. Patients typically present with worsening dyspnoea, and weight loss, cor pulmonale, and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. Chest radiographs show bilateral basal emphysema with paucity and pruning of the basal pulmonary vessels. Early onset of liver cirrhosis, often in combination with emphysema, is also associated with a1-antitrypsin deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The parents of a 15-month-old boy visit their GP with concerns about his...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 15-month-old boy visit their GP with concerns about his eyes. They have noticed that in some photos there is no 'red eye' on the right side. Upon examination, the boy is found to have an esotropic strabismus and a loss of the red-reflex in the right eye. There is a family history of a grandparent who had an enucleation as a child.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      The absence of the red-reflex may be a symptom of a congenital cataract, but this condition is typically identified at birth or during routine infant screenings. Additionally, a congenital cataract would not account for the familial history of enucleation.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.9
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  • Question 39 - The physician is analyzing the routine blood test results for a 65-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • The physician is analyzing the routine blood test results for a 65-year-old woman who has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and giant cell arteritis. The following are some of the findings:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 133 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L; males: 135-180 g/L)
      - Mean cell volume (MCV) of 88 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
      - Platelet count of 390 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 10.7 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Neutrophil count of 8.4 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
      - Lymphocyte count of 1.4 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.0 * 109/L)

      What could be the possible cause of these abnormal results?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The slightly high neutrophil count of 8.4 could be attributed to the use of prednisolone, a corticosteroid commonly used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis. This medication is known to induce neutrophilia. On the other hand, amlodipine, an antihypertensive drug, is not associated with neutrophilia but may cause leucopenia as a rare side effect. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, does not affect white cell count, but it may cause frequent urinary tract infections, dizziness, and rash. Similarly, exenatide, a subcutaneous injection used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, is not known to cause changes in white cell count, but it may cause nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      33.1
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  • Question 40 - At what age should a woman be offered her initial cervical smear as...

    Correct

    • At what age should a woman be offered her initial cervical smear as a part of the cervical cancer screening program in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      Screening for cervical cancer

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14.2
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  • Question 41 - An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia two years ago and has recently moved in with her daughter for care. Lately, she has become increasingly isolated and has reported seeing animals in the house that are not actually there. She denies any other symptoms. All vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable.

      What is the probable cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Delirium

      Explanation:

      Cognitively impaired patients can experience delirium when placed in new surroundings. Even minor changes in environment can trigger delirium in individuals with dementia, leading to visual hallucinations. While community-acquired pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common causes of delirium in the elderly, they seem unlikely in this case as there are no other clues in the history or examination. Depression is a common differential for dementia in the elderly, but the acute onset of symptoms in this woman suggests delirium. It is important to note that symptoms of depression in the elderly can be non-specific. While psychosis could explain the visual hallucinations, the absence of other symptoms and the acute onset of the condition suggest delirium.

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.

      Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.4
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  • Question 42 - A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful eye that has been bothering her for a few hours. Upon examination, the doctor notices a dilated pupil and a significant decrease in vision.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, Conjunctivitis, Foreign body, Optic neuritis, and Uveitis are some of the most common eye conditions that individuals may experience. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and characteristics that can help in identifying the underlying cause.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden onset symptoms such as blurred vision, seeing haloes around lights, red eye, pain, headache, and nausea and vomiting. It is an ophthalmic emergency that requires urgent specialist assessment to prevent blindness.

      Conjunctivitis is one of the most common non-traumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to A&E. It is characterized by redness, profuse discharge, irritation, and rarely photophobia. Most causes are benign, with a self-limited process.

      Foreign body in the cornea is characterized by pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, tearing, and red eye. A visible foreign body may be present on physical examination.

      Optic neuritis is characterized by rapidly developing impairment of vision in one eye, dyschromatopsia, retro-orbital or ocular pain, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and Pulfrich’s phenomenon. It often occurs in association with multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO).

      Uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the uveal tract or adjacent ocular structures. It is often autoimmune in nature, and the aetiology remains elusive in most cases. Symptoms vary depending on the location of the inflammation, with acute anterior uveitis being the most common form of intraocular inflammation, causing a painful red eye.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these common eye conditions can help in identifying the underlying cause and seeking appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.6
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  • Question 43 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent swallowing difficulties for...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent swallowing difficulties for the past two years. His wife has noticed that he has bad breath and coughs at night. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus but reports that he is generally healthy. Despite having a good appetite, his weight has remained stable. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      Esophageal cancer is unlikely due to the individual’s good health and two-year history.

      Understanding Pharyngeal Pouch or Zenker’s Diverticulum

      A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. This triangular area is found in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is five times more common in men.

      The symptoms of pharyngeal pouch include dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling that gurgles on palpation, and halitosis. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually done.

      Surgery is the most common management for pharyngeal pouch. It is important to address this condition promptly to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Understanding the symptoms and seeking medical attention early can help in the proper management of pharyngeal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      6.5
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  • Question 44 - A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in using sildenafil to treat his erectile dysfunction. Is there any medication that could potentially prohibit its use?

      Your Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nitrates and nicorandil are contraindicated with PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil due to the nitrate component in nicorandil and its additional function as a potassium channel activator.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      12.1
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  • Question 45 - A 13-year-old boy is presented to the emergency department following an episode of...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy is presented to the emergency department following an episode of syncope. According to his friends, he was laughing at a joke and suddenly collapsed to the ground. The school teacher called for an ambulance, and he recovered within 15 minutes. His school reports indicate that he often dozes off during classes and was recently disciplined for this behavior. What could be the probable reason for his condition?

      Your Answer: Cataplexy

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient experienced cataplexy, as indicated by their laughter and history of excessive sleepiness during classes, which suggests a potential diagnosis of narcolepsy. While cardiac syncope is a possibility, further investigations such as an ECG and transthoracic echocardiogram would be necessary to rule it out. Absence seizures are unlikely due to the absence of blank staring, and generalized epilepsy is also improbable as it typically involves longer-lasting tonic-clonic seizures with a slower recovery time.

      Understanding Cataplexy

      Cataplexy is a condition characterized by a sudden and temporary loss of muscle control triggered by intense emotions such as laughter or fear. It is commonly associated with narcolepsy, with around two-thirds of patients experiencing cataplexy. The symptoms of cataplexy can vary from mild buckling of the knees to complete collapse.

      This condition can be debilitating and can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. It can also be challenging to diagnose, as the symptoms can be mistaken for other conditions such as seizures or fainting spells. Treatment options for cataplexy include medication and lifestyle changes, such as avoiding triggers that can cause emotional responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.9
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  • Question 46 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Clinic for failure to thrive....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 72 mmol/l.
      Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Examples of Associated Conditions

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. The affected individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of an autosomal recessive condition.

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when an individual inherits one copy of a mutated gene from one parent. The affected individual only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia are examples of autosomal dominant conditions.

      Chromosomal Non-Disjunction:
      Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or when chromatids fail to separate during mitosis. This results in daughter cells having either two chromosomes/chromatids or none. Down syndrome is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal non-disjunction.

      Chromosomal Translocation:
      Chromosomal translocation occurs when two non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, causing fusion chromosomes. Chronic myelogenous leukaemia is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal translocation.

      Sex-Linked:
      Sex-linked inheritance occurs when a mutated gene is located on the X or Y chromosome. As a result, the condition is more common in one sex than the other. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, red-green colour blindness, and haemophilia are examples of sex-linked conditions.

      Conclusion:
      Understanding genetic inheritance patterns is important in diagnosing and managing genetic conditions. Genetic counselling can also be helpful in providing information about the risk of passing on a genetic condition to offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.9
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  • Question 47 - A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind her breastbone. The pain is not spreading to any other part of her body, and she denies feeling sweaty or experiencing nausea and vomiting. She reports that the pain worsens at night when she lies flat in bed and improves slightly when she sits up. She reveals that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for it. During auscultation, you hear scratchy, rubbing sounds that are most audible during systole. You decide to order an ECG to confirm the diagnosis. What ECG findings are you most likely to observe?

      Your Answer: Saddle-shaped ST elevation

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes classic symptoms of pericarditis, including a sharp central chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, but worsened by lying flat or taking deep breaths. The patient’s past medical history of systemic lupus also increases the likelihood of pericarditis. On auscultation, scratchy, rubbing S1 and S2 sounds can be heard. The most likely ECG finding in this case is saddle shaped ST elevation, which is a hallmark of pericarditis. Other potential causes of ST elevation include STEMI and left bundle branch block, but these can be ruled out based on the symptoms and examination findings. Narrow peaking T waves are often seen in hyperkalaemia, but this is not the most likely ECG finding in this case.

      Understanding Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.

      To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.

      Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.

      Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old female presents to her GP after a missed period and a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents to her GP after a missed period and a positive pregnancy test. She is thrilled to be pregnant but is worried about her epilepsy medication. What medications are safe for epileptics during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      The use of anti-epileptic medication during pregnancy is a complex issue due to the risk of severe congenital defects. Therefore, it is important to provide good contraceptive advice and planning to women of childbearing age who are taking these medications. However, in cases where a woman becomes pregnant while on anti-epileptic medication, it is crucial to seek medical advice as soon as possible.

      According to recent guidelines from MBRRACE-UK and NICE, lamotrigine is the preferred medication for most women with epilepsy who are of childbearing age. In some cases, a dose increase may be necessary during pregnancy. Other medications such as phenytoin, phenobarbitone, and sodium valproate are known to have adverse effects on cognitive abilities and are generally avoided unless absolutely necessary.

      For pregnant women with epilepsy, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, and levetiracetam are considered to have the least impact on the developing fetus. However, it is important for all pregnant women with epilepsy to receive specialist care and guidance throughout their pregnancy.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.6
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  • Question 49 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. He works as a software engineer and has no other medical conditions. What should be his initial target for HbA1c?

      Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines

      The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. It is crucial to monitor the condition regularly as it can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and lead to micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide valuable information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.

      One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be considered. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also essential, with a minimum of four tests per day, including before meals and bedtime. Blood glucose targets should be between 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.

      NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens as the preferred choice for adults with type 1 diabetes, rather than twice-daily mixed insulin regimens. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins. Metformin may also be considered if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher.

      In summary, managing type 1 diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors. NICE guidelines provide a useful framework for clinicians to ensure optimal care for their patients with type 1 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with community-acquired pneumonia. She has developed...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with community-acquired pneumonia. She has developed acute kidney injury. Her blood results show the following:
      Test Result Reference range
      Potassium (K) (mmol/l) 6.0 3.5-5.3
      Creatine (Cr) (μmol/l) 220
      Male: 80-110
      Female: 70-100
      Which of the following of her medications should be stopped immediately?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Medication and Renal Impairment: Considerations and Dose Adjustments

      When prescribing medication for patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential for inducing or worsening kidney damage. Here are some considerations and dose adjustments for commonly prescribed medications:

      Ramipril: This ACE inhibitor has the potential to cause hypotension, which can lead to impaired kidney function. In patients with stable renal impairment, a maximum daily dose of 5 mg can be considered. The initial dose should not exceed 1.25 mg daily if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Bisoprolol: This medication is not associated with inducing or worsening kidney damage. However, the dose should be reduced if eGFR is lower than 20 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (maximum 10 mg daily). Paracetamol: At therapeutic doses, paracetamol is not associated with kidney damage. However, in overdose, it can cause renal damage. The minimum interval between doses should be six hours if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Fluticasone with salmeterol: Neither component of this inhaler is associated with kidney damage and does not require dose adjustment in patients with renal disease. Simvastatin: Statins should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment, as the likelihood of muscle toxicity increases with higher doses. Doses >10 mg daily should be used with caution if eGFR is lower than 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2.

      In summary, medication dosing and selection should be carefully considered in patients with renal impairment to avoid potential kidney damage and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending the weekend painting her house. During examination, there is noticeable pain around the lateral epicondyle, leading to a possible diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?

      Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - You are reviewing an elderly patient's blood results:

    K+ 6.2 mmol/l

    Which medication is the...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an elderly patient's blood results:

      K+ 6.2 mmol/l

      Which medication is the most probable cause of this outcome?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.

      Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her right breast that she discovered a few days ago. Upon examination, the lump is painless, smooth, soft, and easily movable. There is no history of breast cancer in her family. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      Breast masses are a common concern among women, and it is important to understand the possible causes to determine the appropriate course of action. Here are some of the most common causes of breast masses and their characteristics:

      Fibroadenoma: This is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years old. It appears as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass ranging in size from 1 cm to 5 cm. Ultrasonography reveals a well-defined, hypoechoic, homogeneous mass 1–20 cm in diameter.

      Fat Necrosis: This is a benign inflammatory process that occurs when there is saponification of local fat. It can result from direct trauma or nodular panniculitis. The breast mass is usually firm, round, and painless, and there may be a single mass or multiple masses. It may be tender or painful in some people.

      Breast Abscess: This usually presents with localised breast oedema, erythema, warmth, and pain. There may be associated symptoms of fever, nausea, vomiting, spontaneous drainage from the mass or nipple, and a history of previous breast infection.

      Breast Cancer: Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, and pain and discomfort are typically not present. It is often first detected as an abnormality on a mammogram before it is felt by the patient or healthcare professional. If a lump is discovered, there may be a change in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or skin changes, recent nipple inversion or skin change, or nipple abnormalities.

      Lipoma: Lipomas are common benign tumors composed of mature adipocytes that typically present clinically as well-circumscribed, soft, mobile, nontender masses. The classic mammographic appearance of lipoma is a circumscribed fat-containing mass.

      It is important to note that the physical examination findings may not always be enough to determine the cause of the breast mass, and further testing may be necessary. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely unwell and has a high temperature, runny nose and inflamed eyes. The mother explains that her daughter has not had her vaccinations as she is worried about the long-term effects of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) jab.
      Which of the following best reflects the current understanding of measles infection?

      Your Answer: It is more dangerous in overcrowded households

      Explanation:

      Measles: Symptoms, Complications, and Prevention

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to serious respiratory complications such as pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and bronchiectasis. While it does not cause recurrent pneumothoraces, severe infection from prolonged exposure to infected siblings in overcrowded households can be fatal.

      Koplik’s spots, small red spots with bluish-white centers, are a characteristic late sign of measles infection that may appear on the mucous membranes of the mouth 1-2 days before the rash appears.

      Contrary to popular belief, lifelong immunity is often established after natural infection with measles. This is also the mechanism by which the MMR vaccine prevents measles infection in later life.

      Measles can also lead to corneal ulceration, especially in cases of vitamin A deficiency. High-dose oral vitamin A supplementation is recommended for all children with measles in developing countries to prevent this complication.

      Overall, prevention through vaccination is the best way to avoid the serious complications of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Offer gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Offer dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports that the pain started after he slipped and fell in his home. The pain is rated at 7/10 but increases to 9/10 when he takes a deep breath.
      The doctor suspects a possible pulmonary embolism (PE) based on the patient's medical history. The doctor calculates a 2-level PE Wells score of 1.0 (for recent surgery) and orders a D-dimer test. The patient is started on anticoagulation while waiting for the test results, which are expected to take over 4 hours to return.
      The patient's chest x-ray appears normal, and the D-dimer test comes back negative.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis but keep the interim anticoagulation

      Correct Answer: Stop the anticoagulation and consider an alternative diagnosis

      Explanation:

      When investigating a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), a low Wells score of ≤ 4 and a negative D-dimer result suggest that an alternative diagnosis should be considered and anticoagulation should be stopped. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and history of trauma suggest a musculoskeletal injury may be the cause of their chest pain and shortness of breath. An urgent CTPA would only be necessary if the Wells score was 4 or higher or if the D-dimer test was positive. As neither of these occurred, repeating the D-dimer test is unnecessary. Continuing anticoagulation without a confirmed PE would increase the risk of bleeding. If a PE is confirmed, anticoagulation with warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant would be appropriate.

      Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.

      If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.

      Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles are heard in the lungs. Which of the following result sets would be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis?

      Your Answer: FVC - reduced, FEV1/FVC - normal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.

      Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?

      Your Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and admits to a high-sugar diet and minimal exercise.
      Which of the following non-pharmacological interventions will be most helpful in reducing her risk for a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of Vascular Events: Lifestyle Interventions

      Smoking, high salt intake, poor diet, lack of exercise, and obesity are all risk factors for vascular events such as heart attacks and strokes. However, making lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of these events.

      Stopping smoking is the most effective non-pharmacological intervention, as it reduces the risk of heart disease by 2-3 times compared to those who continue to smoke.

      Reducing salt intake to 3-6 g/day can also help, as both high and low salt intake can increase the risk of vascular events.

      Improving diet by controlling calorie intake can lead to weight loss, improved blood sugar control, and better lipid profiles.

      Regular exercise, such as 30 minutes of activity five times a week, can lower the risk of vascular events by 30%.

      Finally, weight reduction is important, as obesity increases the risk of heart attacks and strokes at a younger age and can lead to higher mortality rates.

      Overall, making these lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of vascular events and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      160.4
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue. During the physical examination, a soft diastolic...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue. During the physical examination, a soft diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible in the second intercostal space on the right. His blood pressure is measured at 162/65 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the murmur?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits a diastolic murmur that is most pronounced over the aortic valve, along with a wide pulse pressure, indicating a diagnosis of aortic regurgitation. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, would manifest as a systolic murmur with a narrow pulse pressure. Meanwhile, mitral regurgitation would present as a systolic murmur that is most audible over the mitral valve, while mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic murmur that is loudest over the mitral valve and would not result in a wide pulse pressure.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These occur approximately once a month and are not associated with her menstrual cycle. Prior to the onset of the headache, she occasionally experiences momentary 'zig-zags' in her vision. She has no specific preference for treatment and seeks your guidance on the most effective approach to managing acute episodes. Which of the following options would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral paracetamol + oral NSAID

      Correct Answer: Oral triptan + oral NSAID

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. He denies chest pain, weight loss, or hemoptysis. In the past, he was prescribed bronchodilators for COPD, but they did not alleviate his symptoms.

      During the examination, the physician detects fine crackles at the lung bases bilaterally, and the patient has significant finger clubbing. The physician orders a chest X-ray, pulmonary function tests, and refers him urgently to a respiratory clinic.

      What pulmonary function test pattern would you expect to see based on the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1:FVC normal or increased, TLCO reduced

      Explanation:

      In cases of IPF, the TLCO (gas transfer test) is reduced, indicating a restrictive lung disease that results in a reduced FEV1 and reduced FVC. This leads to a normal or increased FEV1:FVC ratio, which is a distinguishing factor from obstructive lung diseases like COPD or asthma. Therefore, the correct statement is that in IPF, the FEV1:FVC ratio is normal or increased, while the TLCO is reduced.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes and night sweats. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes and night sweats. Upon investigation, her blood work reveals a significantly elevated FSH level, indicating menopause. After discussing her options, she chooses to undergo hormone replacement therapy. What is the primary risk associated with prescribing an estrogen-only treatment instead of a combination estrogen-progestogen treatment?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progestogen can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has a photograph and is worried about the different appearances of her eyes. One eye shows a normal red reflex while the other appears white. He wants to know if this is normal.

      What is your advice for him?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If a newborn lacks red reflex, it is important to consider the possibility of retinoblastoma. Other causes should also be evaluated, but urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive, dilated eye examination is necessary.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7.3
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  • Question 66 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed a number of small 'spots' and 'bruises' on his legs that have developed over the past 2-3 days. He initially thought this was due to an allergy but it has not gone away. His son is described as being well apart from a cough he's had for the past 2 weeks.

      On examination, he is apyrexial with a heart rate of 98/min. Examination of his ears, throat and chest is normal. There is no neck stiffness or abdominal masses. A number of petechiae are seen around his chest area as well as purpura on his lower legs and arms.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Admit immediately to paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a child develops purpura suddenly, it is crucial to refer them for urgent investigations to rule out meningococcal disease and ALL. Although petechiae may occur in viral infections or due to increased pressure in the superior vena cava, purpura is never a normal finding in children. Therefore, immediate admission is necessary to exclude any serious underlying condition. In case of suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, antibiotics should be administered parenterally without delaying transfer.

      Understanding Purpura: Causes and Symptoms

      Purpura is a medical condition characterized by bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels, resulting in a non-blanching rash. It is often caused by low platelets, but it can also be associated with bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease. In addition to the rash, smaller petechiae may also be present, which are tiny red or purple spots on the skin.

      It is crucial to recognize purpura as it can indicate the presence of serious underlying diseases. In children, a new purpuric rash should be treated as an emergency and investigated immediately, as it may be a sign of meningococcal septicaemia or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, parenteral antibiotics should be given before transfer.

      The causes of purpura can vary depending on the age group. In children, it can be caused by meningococcal septicaemia, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, congenital bleeding disorders, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, or non-accidental injury. In adults, it can be caused by immune thrombocytopenic purpura, bone marrow failure (secondary to leukaemias, myelodysplasia, or bone metastases), senile purpura, drugs (quinine, antiepileptics, antithrombotics), or nutritional deficiencies (vitamins B12, C, and folate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of a lesion on his shin. During the examination, the dermatologist observes shiny, painless areas of yellow skin with numerous telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide

      Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.

      Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.

      Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.

      Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.

      A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.

      Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.

      Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been experiencing pain in his distal right thigh for the past two weeks, which worsens when he runs. Upon examination, he is found to be overweight and has full mobility in his right knee. He can fully flex his right hip, but internal rotation causes discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children

      Hip problems in children can be caused by a variety of conditions. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examinations and can be identified through positive Barlow’s and Ortolani’s tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain and viral infections.

      Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can cause hip pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is another condition that typically affects children aged 10-15 years, particularly those who are obese or male. It can cause knee or thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which affects four or fewer joints, is the most common type and can cause joint pain and swelling, as well as a limp. Finally, septic arthritis is an acute condition that causes hip pain and systemic upset, such as fever and severe limitation of the affected joint.

      Overall, hip problems in children can have a variety of causes and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a history of chlamydia,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a history of chlamydia, low-grade fever, and worsening abdominal pain over the past 6 hours. She reports that the pain is most severe on the right side and radiates into her shoulder. The patient is a smoker with no known medical conditions and is currently taking Microgynon for contraception. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and on palpation of the abdomen, she experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound scan, urine dip, and beta-hCG test all come back normal. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a condition that arises as a result of pelvic inflammatory disease. It causes inflammation of the liver capsule, leading to pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. Scar tissue formation and peri-hepatic adhesions may also occur. This condition is more common in women who have contracted chlamydia or gonorrhoea. Treatment involves eliminating the responsible organism, and in some cases, laparoscopy may be necessary to remove adhesions that have formed.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?

      Your Answer: Phalen's sign

      Explanation:

      The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
      What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis

      Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 340 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myeloma

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of weight loss and a painless, growing penile sore that has been present for more than two months. The patient has a history of genital warts. What tests would be suitable for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immunoassay for Human Immunodeficiency Virus

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is strongly linked to sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV infection. Therefore, it would be advisable to conduct an HIV test in cases where penile cancer is suspected. Liver function tests may not be as relevant as an HIV test since penile cancer is unlikely to spread to the liver. Instead, it can spread locally to lymph nodes, bones, and even the brain. Herpes is not a likely cause of penile cancer as it typically causes painful lesions that disappear within a week. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, can cause painful lesions, while syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can cause a painless ulcer known as a chancre. However, a chancre would not cause weight loss, and the lesion typically resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.

      Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.

      When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      10.2
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  • Question 75 - A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic accompanied by his daughter. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic accompanied by his daughter. He reports having painless swelling in his fingers that has been persistent. When inquiring about his medical history, he denies any issues except for a nagging cough. During the examination of his hands, you observe an increased curvature of the nails and a loss of the angle between the nail and nail bed. Considering the potential diagnoses, what would be the most crucial step to take?

      Your Answer: Urgent chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for suspected lung cancers, individuals over the age of 40 with finger clubbing should undergo a chest X-ray. Given that this patient is 70 years old and has a persistent cough and finger clubbing, an urgent chest X-ray is necessary to investigate the possibility of lung cancer or mesothelioma. Pain relief medication such as oral analgesia or ibuprofen gel is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing any pain, which would be indicative of osteoarthritis. Reassurance is not appropriate in this case as finger clubbing in individuals over the age of 40 requires immediate investigation.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for further assessment. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or if they are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have two or more unexplained symptoms, or who have ever smoked and have one or more unexplained symptoms, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within two weeks to assess for lung cancer. These symptoms include cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, and appetite loss.

      In addition, an urgent chest x-ray should be considered within two weeks for patients aged 40 and over who have persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific criteria for when to refer patients for further assessment for lung cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 26-year-old female contact lens wearer arrives at the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female contact lens wearer arrives at the emergency department complaining of eye pain. She reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in her left eye. Upon examination, her left eye appears red, but her pupil seems normal. After applying fluorescein dye, you observe a distinct area of green fluorescence under a blue light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal ulcer

      Explanation:

      If there is corneal uptake of fluorescein, along with symptoms of ocular pain, tearing, and photophobia, it is likely that the individual has a corneal ulcer. Fluorescein, an orange dye, is applied to the surface of the eye and will appear green/yellow under a blue light if it is taken up by the corneal epithelium. While dry eye can also cause fluorescence, it typically appears as a diffuse, speckled pattern known as superficial punctate staining.

      Understanding Corneal Ulcers

      A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks following his recent admission to the Paediatric Ward where he was treated for Kawasaki disease. He responded well to his treatment in the hospital.
      His mother asks if her son still needs to be taking the treatment prescribed by the Paediatric Team.
      Which of the following treatments is the patient likely to still be taking?

      Your Answer: Oral aspirin daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Kawasaki Disease: Understanding the Use of Aspirin

      Kawasaki disease is a condition that affects children and causes inflammation in the blood vessels throughout the body. When diagnosed, treatment typically involves intravenous immunoglobulin and aspirin. In this article, we will discuss the use of aspirin in the treatment of Kawasaki disease and why it is important.

      Oral aspirin is given to patients with Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. It helps to reduce the chances of blood clots if there are developing problems in the heart, such as coronary artery aneurysms that can occur in Kawasaki disease. The dosage of aspirin is usually higher (30 mg/kg per day) for up to two weeks and then continued at lower doses (3-5 mg/kg per day) until a review of echocardiogram, which is usually 6-8 weeks after the onset of illness.

      If the review echocardiogram at 6-8 weeks shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms, then aspirin is usually stopped. However, until that time, patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily.

      It is important to note that other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications such as ibuprofen should be avoided while taking aspirin. Additionally, oral steroids are a second-line treatment that are considered when there is failure to respond to initial intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.

      In conclusion, aspirin is an important part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. Patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily until a review echocardiogram shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to follow the treatment plan prescribed by a specialist to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.4
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  • Question 78 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia

      Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.

      Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.

      Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.

      Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.

      Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - As a foundation year two doctor in general practice, you encounter a thirty-four-year-old...

    Correct

    • As a foundation year two doctor in general practice, you encounter a thirty-four-year-old priest who reports knee pain without any history of trauma. Upon examination, you note stable observations and slight swelling with pain and tenderness overlying the knee. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infrapatellar bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this gentleman’s condition is infrapatellar bursitis, which is often associated with kneeling, particularly in clergymen. Although prepatellar bursitis may also be a possible cause, it is more commonly observed in housemaids who kneel in a more upright position. Osteoarthritis, which is characterized by knee pain and a feeling of instability, is more prevalent in individuals over the age of forty-five, making it less likely for this patient. Cruciate ligament damage, meniscal tear, and ruptured bursa are also potential causes, but they are typically associated with a history of trauma.

      Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patient’s mother suffers from Christmas disease.
      What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Factor IX activity level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.

      Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.

      Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.

      Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.

      von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable...

    Incorrect

    • In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable initial oral treatment option?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatments for Seizures: A Guide to Medications

      When it comes to treating seizures, there are several medications available. However, not all medications are suitable for every type of seizure. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used medications and their recommended uses:

      Valproate: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for children, young people, and adults with newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures. However, it is important to be aware of the teratogenic and developmental risks associated with valproate.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for new-onset focal seizures, but not for generalized seizures.

      Topiramate: While topiramate is not routinely used as a first-line treatment for any type of seizure, it can be used as an adjunct.

      Phenytoin: This medication is useful as a rescue medication in status epilepticus, but should not be considered first-line for any seizure type due to troublesome long-term side effects.

      Phenobarbital: This medication is now rarely used for seizures due to its unacceptable side effects when compared to more modern alternatives.

      Overall, the first-choice treatments for primary generalized epilepsy are lamotrigine and valproate. For partial (localization-related) epilepsy, carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, and oxcarbazepine are all reasonable first choices.

      In summary, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for an individual’s specific type of seizure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.5
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  • Question 82 - A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph confirms mild osteoarthritis. What is the best initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Topical ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoarthritis: A Guide to Medications and Lifestyle Changes

      When it comes to managing osteoarthritis (OA), there are a variety of treatment options available. However, not all treatments are created equal. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for OA to hands and knees is with a topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or oral paracetamol. Oral NSAIDs are considered the second-line treatment choice, to be used only after inadequate response to oral paracetamol or topical NSAIDs.

      It’s important to note that nutraceuticals, including oral glucosamine and chondroitin, should not be offered for OA management. Instead, other treatment options initially include weight loss and exercise encouragement.

      If medication is necessary, topical ibuprofen and paracetamol should be considered first line, ahead of oral NSAIDs or opioids. Oral NSAIDs, such as diclofenac with omeprazole, ibuprofen, and naproxen, are second line and should be given at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) cover may be indicated for oral NSAIDs.

      In summary, managing OA requires a multifaceted approach that includes lifestyle changes and medication when necessary. By following NICE guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals with OA can find relief and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 67-year-old male on the high dependency unit has just undergone a complex...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male on the high dependency unit has just undergone a complex hip arthroplasty 12 hours ago. They are now complaining of feeling their heart pounding out of their chest and has become short of breath 30 minutes ago. An electrocardiogram (ECG) showed supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The patient attempted blowing into a syringe with the guidance of a doctor and this terminated the SVT.

      Shortly after, the patient experiences another episode of palpitations and breathlessness, with visible SVT on an ECG. The patient's vital signs include a temperature of 37.2 ºC, oxygen saturations of 98% on air, a heart rate of 180 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 85/65 mmHg.

      What is the immediate and appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat vagal manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      If a patient with tachyarrhythmia has a systolic BP below 90 mmHg, immediate DC cardioversion is necessary. This is because hypotension indicates an unstable tachyarrhythmia that can lead to shock, heart failure, syncope, or myocardial ischemia. Vagal maneuvers and adenosine are not recommended in cases of severe hypotension, and amiodarone is used for pharmacological cardioversion in broad complex tachycardia.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was...

    Correct

    • You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was born at term. As part of health promotion, you are discussing ways to minimize the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) with the mother. She is already aware of the significance of placing the baby on its back while sleeping and does not smoke. What is the most crucial additional risk factor for SIDS?

      Your Answer: Sleeping in the same bed as the baby

      Explanation:

      Studies have indicated that bed sharing is the most prominent risk factor for SIDS, followed by prone sleeping, parental smoking, hyperthermia and head covering, and prematurity.

      Understanding Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, maternal drug use, and an increased incidence during winter.

      However, there are also protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers have been shown to be protective. In the event of a SIDS occurrence, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective factors associated with SIDS can help parents and caregivers take steps to reduce the likelihood of this tragic event. By following safe sleep practices and promoting healthy habits, we can work towards reducing the incidence of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.7
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  • Question 85 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed without any apparent cause and is mainly felt on the outer side of the hip. It is particularly severe at night when she lies on her right side. Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain. An x-ray of the right hip reveals a normal appearance with only minor joint space narrowing. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is no longer the preferred term and has been replaced by greater trochanteric pain syndrome. The x-ray reveals joint space narrowing, which is a common occurrence. Osteoarthritis is unlikely due to the palpable pain and short duration of symptoms.

      Causes of Hip Pain in Adults

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.8
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  • Question 86 - A 50-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools. He recently started a new medication after being hospitalized for an upper gastrointestinal bleed and spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Despite not reporting any blood loss, he has noticed a gradual worsening of his symptoms since his hospital discharge. The patient has a medical history of gout, type-2 diabetes, hypertension, alcoholism, and ischaemic heart disease. He quit smoking 10 years ago. Which medication is the most likely culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Liraglutide

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Taking Omeprazole may heighten the possibility of experiencing severe diarrhoea, specifically Clostridium difficile infections. Omeprazole is a type of proton pump inhibitor that can lead to side effects like abdominal pain, flatulence, nausea/vomiting, and diarrhoea. The risk of contracting severe infections like clostridium difficile is higher, especially if the patient has received antibiotics, particularly broad-spectrum agents, for their spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.
      Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can cause side effects such as a slow heart rate, dry eyes, tiredness, and nausea, but it may also result in abdominal discomfort with altered bowel habit.
      Allopurinol is known to cause a rash or nausea and vomiting.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors and Their Adverse Effects

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that block the H+/K+ ATPase of the gastric parietal cell, leading to irreversible effects. Common examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole. While these medications are effective in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, they can also have adverse effects on the body.

      One of the potential adverse effects of PPIs is hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. PPIs can also lead to hypomagnesemia, which is a deficiency of magnesium in the blood. Additionally, long-term use of PPIs has been linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures. Another potential adverse effect is microscopic colitis, which is inflammation of the colon that can cause diarrhea and abdominal pain. Finally, PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of C. difficile infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      119.4
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  • Question 87 - A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The...

    Correct

    • A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The mother is concerned about potential complications besides fluid loss.

      Your Answer: Heat loss

      Explanation:

      Exposed bowel in babies with gastroschisis leads to a considerable loss of fluid and heat, which can pose a serious risk to their lives. Unlike exomphalos, gastroschisis is not associated with cardiac and renal issues. Additionally, there is no correlation between gastroschisis and microcephaly or macrocephaly.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17
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  • Question 88 - A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic....

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?

      Your Answer: Trial of Gaviscon

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.

      Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.6
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  • Question 89 - A 28-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for six...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for six weeks. She reports passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She feels lethargic but has no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy reveals inflammatory changes in the ascending, transverse, and descending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Her blood work shows Hb of 142 g/L, platelets of 323 * 109/L, WBC of 8.1 * 109/L, and CRP of 22 mg/L. What is the most appropriate first-line medication for inducing remission?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate + rectal aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      For a patient experiencing a mild to moderate flare-up of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to supplement rectal aminosalicylates with oral aminosalicylates. This is because enemas have limited reach and may not effectively treat the disease outside of their range.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      23.6
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  • Question 90 - A 52-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus during a routine check-up six months ago. Despite being advised about a low-energy, weight-reducing diet and exercise, she has not followed through with these recommendations and her postprandial blood glucose concentration is 13.8 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l). What would be the drug of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Type 2 Diabetes

      Metformin: The Initial Drug Treatment of Choice
      For adults with type 2 diabetes, standard-release metformin is the recommended initial drug treatment. The dose should be gradually increased to avoid gastrointestinal side effects. If significant GI side effects occur, modified-release metformin can be tried. Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity, leading to an increase in peripheral glucose uptake. However, caution should be exercised when using metformin in patients with renal failure, and it should be stopped if the estimated glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 ml/min per 1.73m2.

      Tolbutamide and Chlorpropamide: First-Generation Sulfonylureas
      Tolbutamide and chlorpropamide are first-generation sulfonylureas that are no longer routinely used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes due to a higher incidence of side effects compared to newer, second-generation sulfonylureas. Chlorpropamide is not available in the UK.

      Insulin: Considered for Dual Therapy
      Insulin-based treatment should be considered in type 2 diabetes patients who have not achieved optimal glycated haemoglobin control with dual therapy using metformin and another oral drug. Metformin should continue to be offered to patients without contraindications or intolerance.

      Pioglitazone: An Alternative Second-Line Agent
      Pioglitazone can be considered as an alternative second-line agent for patients with type 2 diabetes who cannot take metformin or have not tolerated it well. It can also be used in dual therapy for first intensification of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      14.3
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  • Question 91 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being sent home from school. She is complaining of a headache and feeling tired since this morning.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C. Her pulse is of 96 bpm, while her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds. There are no rashes, she is alert, she has enlarged red tonsils without pustules and demonstrates tender cervical lymphadenopathy. She does not have a runny nose.
      What is her FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Understanding the FeverPAIN Score for Antibiotic Prescribing in Sore Throat Cases

      The FeverPAIN score is a tool used to aid decisions on antibiotic prescribing for acute sore throat cases. It involves scoring one point for each of the following criteria: fever, purulence, rapid attendance (<3 days duration), severely inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. A score of 5/5 indicates a high likelihood of a streptococcal infection and antibiotics would be indicated for treatment. However, for scores of 1 or 2, antibiotics may not be necessary as the chance of a bacterial infection is low. Patients should be advised to seek further medical attention if symptoms worsen and simple measures such as fluids and analgesia should be recommended. For scores of 3 or 4, delayed antibiotic prescribing or watchful waiting may be considered as other causes, such as viral infections, are more likely than bacterial infections. It is important to note that the FeverPAIN score is just one tool and should be used in conjunction with clinical judgement. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends its use, along with the Centor criteria, to predict the likelihood of a streptococcal infection. By understanding and utilizing these tools, healthcare providers can make informed decisions on antibiotic prescribing for sore throat cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.9
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  • Question 92 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse after she has taken a bath, tingling and burning sensations in her hands and feet, and headaches. She has felt fatigued over the past year and a half, however, the symptoms of itching and tingling peripheries have only been present for the past 3 months. On examination, she is noted to have a palpable spleen which is 3 cm below the costal angle. She has a full blood count which shows:
      Hb 184 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Phlebotomy

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for polycythaemia vera is venesection, which is used to maintain normal levels of haemoglobin. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with the condition, including pruritis, numbness and tingling in the extremities, headaches, lethargy, and splenomegaly. Venesection involves removing blood from the patient to reduce haemoglobin levels, and may need to be performed weekly initially, but can be spaced out to every 6-12 weeks once the condition is under control. Ibuprofen is not a recommended treatment for polycythaemia vera, but aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of clotting. Paroxetine has been studied as a treatment for pruritis associated with polycythaemia vera, but should not be used as a replacement for venesection. Ruxolitinib is a medication used to prevent thrombus formation in patients who are resistant or intolerant to hydroxyurea, but is not a first-line treatment for the condition.

      Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.

      The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.

      The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      37.7
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  • Question 93 - At what age would a typical infant develop the capability to sit upright...

    Correct

    • At what age would a typical infant develop the capability to sit upright without assistance?

      Your Answer: 6-8 months

      Explanation:

      The answer, which is typically 7-8 months, differs slightly from the 6 months stated in the MRCPCH Development Guide.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.8
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  • Question 94 - A 45-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fatigue. He is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fatigue. He is currently taking metformin and gliclazide, but may need to discontinue the latter due to his obesity. After conducting several blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      - HbA1c: 66 mmol/mol (< 48)
      - Ferritin: 204 ng/mL (25 - 350)
      - Bilirubin: 23 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 162 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 120 u/L (3 - 40)
      - AST: 109 u/L (3 - 40)

      Upon further discussion, the patient denies consuming alcohol. What is the most likely explanation for these abnormal findings?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      When a patient with type 2 diabetes and obesity presents with abnormal liver function tests, the most probable diagnosis is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. To confirm this diagnosis, the patient will need to undergo a liver screen, ultrasound, and liver biopsy. While haemochromatosis should be considered in patients with both abnormal LFTs and diabetes, a normal ferritin level makes this diagnosis less likely.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.1
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  • Question 95 - A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.2
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  • Question 96 - A 65-year-old woman with diabetes undergoes routine blood work and evaluation. Her estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with diabetes undergoes routine blood work and evaluation. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is reported as 52 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2). How would you classify her kidney function?

      Your Answer: CKD stage 2

      Correct Answer: CKD stage 3a

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys gradually lose their function over time. To help diagnose and manage CKD, doctors use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.

      There are five stages of CKD, each with a different GFR range and level of kidney function.

      – Stage 1: GFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (normal or high)
      – Stage 2: GFR 60–89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
      – Stage 3a: GFR 45–59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
      – Stage 3b: GFR 30–44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
      – Stage 4: GFR 15–29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
      – Stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) The 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b, and adding the suffix ‘P’ to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the stage of CKD can help doctors determine the appropriate treatment and management plan for their patients. It’s important for individuals with CKD to work closely with their healthcare team to monitor their kidney function and manage any related health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      21.6
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  • Question 97 - A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, polymyalgia rheumatica, osteoarthritis and a hiatus hernia. Her current medications include bisoprolol, digoxin, amlodipine, omeprazole, prednisolone and as required paracetamol. She lives independently and is usually mentally alert. She has been increasingly unwell for the past week, complaining of increased pain in her shoulders, so her GP has increased the dose of prednisolone from 5mg to 30mg daily and added codeine 30mg four times a day. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Polypharmacy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Delirium in the Elderly: A Case Study

      This patient is most likely experiencing delirium, which is a common condition among the elderly. One of the leading causes of delirium in this population is polypharmacy, which refers to taking multiple medications. In this case, the patient’s unremarkable physical examination and blood tests suggest that polypharmacy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms. Steroids and opioids, which she recently started taking, are known to cause delirium, especially in older adults. Patients with dementia or mild cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable to the effects of polypharmacy.

      Accidental poisoning is also a possibility, but the patient’s usual independence and mental alertness make this less likely. Additionally, her symptoms have been present for a week, which suggests a longer process than accidental poisoning. A chest infection could also cause delirium, but the patient’s examination and blood tests do not support this diagnosis.

      Alcohol withdrawal is another potential cause of disorientation and restlessness, but there is no indication in the patient’s history that she is misusing alcohol. Finally, Alzheimer’s disease is unlikely given the short duration of the patient’s symptoms and her usual mental alertness. Overall, polypharmacy is the most probable cause of this patient’s delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.4
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  • Question 98 - A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both solids and liquids, accompanied by heartburn symptoms. What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest achalasia, as they have experienced difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids from the beginning.

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-age and is equally common in men and women.

      The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant change in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus with a fluid level and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may reveal a wide mediastinum and fluid level.

      The treatment of achalasia involves pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is increasingly becoming the preferred first-line option. It is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, an intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin may be used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 20-year-old runner has approached you for advice after being diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old runner has approached you for advice after being diagnosed with a stress fracture in her left tibia. She is seeking guidance on how to reduce her risk of future stress fractures. What are the risk factors that athletic females are most susceptible to when it comes to developing stress fractures?

      Your Answer: Inadequate calorie intake, menstrual irregularities and increased or new exercise intensity

      Explanation:

      Women with low calorie intake or menstrual irregularities who increase their exercise are at risk of stress fractures due to the female athlete triad, which includes excessive exercise, reduced bone mineral density, and eating disorders or inadequate calorie intake. It is important to discuss eating habits and menstrual cycles when treating women with a history of stress fractures.

      Stress fractures are small hairline fractures that can occur due to repetitive activity and loading of normal bone. Although they can be painful, they are typically not displaced and do not cause surrounding soft tissue injury. In some cases, stress fractures may present late, and callus formation may be visible on radiographs. Treatment for stress fractures may vary depending on the severity of the injury. In cases where the injury is associated with severe pain and presents at an earlier stage, immobilization may be necessary. However, injuries that present later may not require formal immobilization and can be treated with tailored immobilization specific to the site of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.9
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  • Question 100 - You are an F2 treating an 8 year-old patient with acute epiglottitis in...

    Incorrect

    • You are an F2 treating an 8 year-old patient with acute epiglottitis in the emergency department. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Administer nebulised salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Call for an anaesthetist

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent airway obstruction. It is caused by inflammation of the epiglottis and is most common in children. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and respiratory distress. The most severe cases can lead to complete airway obstruction, which can be fatal.

      The most important initial step in management is to call for an anaesthetist to intubate the child. Attempting to administer treatment via a facemask or examining the child’s throat can cause distress and increase the risk of complete airway obstruction. The anaesthetist should be present during any examination or treatment to ensure the safety of the child.

      In summary, acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent airway obstruction. Calling for an anaesthetist to intubate the child is the most important initial step in management. Any examination or treatment should be done with the anaesthetist present to ensure the safety of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (5/9) 56%
Paediatrics (9/10) 90%
Dermatology (3/5) 60%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (7/10) 70%
Haematology/Oncology (6/6) 100%
ENT (2/4) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (4/6) 67%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/3) 67%
Reproductive Medicine (5/6) 83%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/6) 67%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Neurology (7/10) 70%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (3/5) 60%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (10/11) 91%
Passmed