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Question 1
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back of his right arm that has been getting bigger for the past three months. Recently, the lump has become very painful. The doctor orders a shoulder X-ray, which shows a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right humerus with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is Ewing’s sarcoma, which is a malignant bone tumour that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is commonly found in the pelvis and long bones and can cause severe pain. X-rays may show an onion skin appearance. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed, and the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein is a key finding in cases of Ewing’s sarcoma.
Chondrosarcoma is an incorrect diagnosis as it is a malignant tumour of cartilage that typically affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-aged individuals.
Giant cell tumour is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is a benign tumour of multinucleated giant cells that is commonly found in the epiphysis of long bones and has a double-bubble or soap bubble appearance on x-ray. It is more commonly seen in patients aged 20-40 years old.
Osteochondroma is another incorrect diagnosis as it is the most common benign bone tumour and typically presents as a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. It is most commonly found in males under 20 years old and is therefore unlikely given the presentation.
Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman who has had two Colles fractures in the past three years undergoes a DEXA scan:
T-score
L2-4 -1.4
Femoral neck -2.7
What is the interpretation of the scan results?Your Answer: Osteoporosis in vertebrae, osteopaenia in femoral neck
Correct Answer: Osteopaenia in vertebrae, osteoporosis in femoral neck
Explanation:Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. The clinician employs a scoring system to assist in the patient's treatment plan.
What is the probable scoring system utilized?Your Answer: GAD-7
Correct Answer: DAS28
Explanation:The measurement of disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis is done using the DAS28 score. This score evaluates the level of disease activity by assessing 28 joints, hence the name DAS28, where DAS stands for disease activity score.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old couple, Mr and Mrs Johnson, have been referred to a fertility clinic by their GP due to their inability to conceive after 18 months of regular unprotected sexual intercourse. Mrs Johnson has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions, while Mr Johnson has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, schizophrenia, and hypothyroidism for which he takes sulfasalazine, ibuprofen, omeprazole, olanzapine, and levothyroxine. Mr Johnson's semen analysis reveals a count of 14 million/mL (15-200 million/mL). Which medication is the most likely cause of this result?
Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman complains of feeling generally fatigued and experiencing muscle aches. She reports stiffness and pain in her back, arms, and thighs, especially in the morning. These symptoms have persisted for the past two weeks, despite her previously being in good health. Upon examination, the only notable finding is tenderness in her deltoid and thigh muscles, with normal muscle strength. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that has been bothering him for a week. He experiences stiffness in the morning. He has been experiencing pain while urinating for three weeks and has noticed red and painful eyes this morning. He has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse four weeks ago and has not been tested for a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s history of unprotected sexual intercourse increases the likelihood of Chlamydia trachomatis being the cause of this condition, as it is the most common culprit. Ankylosing spondylitis typically presents with back pain and may be accompanied by iritis/uveitis, but it does not cause urethritis. Disseminated gonococcal disease is associated with tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Although gout is rare in this age group, it should still be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients with swollen and painful joints.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an acutely painful and swollen right knee.
On examination, the knee is tender and has a reduced range of motion. She is unable to weight bear on her right leg.
Her observations are as follows, heart rate 98 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 110/76 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98%, temperature 38.2ºC.
An aspiration of the joint is performed, producing a sample of yellow-looking synovial fluid from the knee joint.
She has no other past medical history but admits that she missed a gynecology appointment recently.
What is the most likely organism to be cultured from the synovial fluid?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:The most frequently identified organism in young adults with septic arthritis is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This is evident in the case of the young woman who presents with acute knee pain, swelling, fever, limited range of motion, and inability to bear weight. While Chlamydia trachomatis can cause joint pain, it typically results in reactive arthritis, which has a more prolonged history, does not cause fever, and produces a sterile joint aspirate. Septic arthritis caused by Escherichia coli is rare, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not a common cause of this condition.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her primary care physician complaining of wrist pain that has been bothering her for the past week. She also reports feeling stiffness in her wrists, particularly in the morning. Although she typically experiences minor joint aches, this pain is more severe than usual.
During the examination, the physician notes tenderness and pain in both of the patient's wrists upon passive movement. There is no apparent swelling or deformity. Additionally, a rash across her cheeks is observed, which she says has also developed over the past week.
What would be an appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: CRP is useful for monitoring her SLE flare – the levels are usually high during active disease
Correct Answer: Complement levels are useful for monitoring her SLE flare – the levels are usually low during active disease
Explanation:During active SLE, complement levels tend to decrease due to the formation of complexes that consume complement. As a result, monitoring complement levels can be useful in tracking SLE flares. In contrast, CRP is not a reliable marker of disease activity as it may remain normal unless there is an infection or serositis. ESR is a better indicator for monitoring disease activity. Additionally, high levels of anti-dsDNA titres are typically observed during active SLE and can also be used for disease monitoring.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old Vietnamese man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided flank pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 weeks. He denies experiencing any urinary symptoms and has already taken nitrofurantoin prescribed by his GP, but it did not alleviate his pain. During the physical examination, he has a fever of 38.4 °C, and his pain worsens when his left hip is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Iliopsoas abscess
Explanation:The combination of fever, back pain, and pain when extending the hip suggests the presence of an iliopsoas abscess. The patient may also exhibit a limp while walking. Iliopsoas abscesses can be caused by primary or secondary factors. While Pott’s disease, a form of tuberculosis affecting the vertebrae, could explain the back pain and fever, the examination findings are more indicative of an iliopsoas abscess. Mechanical back pain would not typically produce constitutional symptoms like fever. Pyelonephritis is a potential differential diagnosis, but the examination findings are more consistent with an iliopsoas abscess. It may be helpful to rule out pyelonephritis with a urine dip and ultrasound. Although kidney stones can cause severe pain and fever if infected, the duration of the patient’s symptoms makes this possibility less likely.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her right hand and left wrist. The affected joints are also stiff, erythematosus, and warm to touch. She denies any recent injury to the joints and is otherwise healthy. Upon joint aspirate, the sample appears turbid and yellow with a WBC count of 25,000/mm³ and 70% neutrophils. Viscosity is reduced and polarised light microscopy is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:The joint aspirate in rheumatoid arthritis typically displays a high count of white blood cells, with a majority being neutrophils. The appearance is usually cloudy and yellow, and there are no crystals present.
In contrast, gout would reveal needle-shaped urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light microscopy. Osteoarthritis would show fewer white blood cells and a lower proportion of neutrophils, with a clear appearance. It is more commonly found in larger weight-bearing joints. Pseudogout would display rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent.
Therefore, the correct answer is rheumatoid arthritis, which is characterised by an elevated white cell count, predominantly neutrophils, and a cloudy appearance.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.
Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with a 3 week history of joint pain, a pink, bumpy rash on her arms, legs, and trunk, and fevers that spike in the evenings. She has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and a palpable spleen on examination. Blood tests reveal a significant leucocytosis (≥ 10,000/µL) and elevated serum ferritin (350 ng/mL) levels, but negative antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor tests. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still’s disease
Explanation:To diagnose adult-onset Still’s disease, it is necessary to exclude other conditions by ensuring that rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests are negative. The presence of joint pain, spiking fevers, and a pink bumpy rash is a characteristic triad of symptoms associated with this disease. High serum ferritin and leucocytosis are also commonly observed. Negative results for rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests help to rule out rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Spiking fevers are not typically associated with Wilson’s disease or haemochromatosis. This information is based on the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties (10th Edition), page 654.
Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.
Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness in his right knee, lower back, and eyes. He reports feeling generally well and is currently taking ciprofloxacin for a UTI. He was treated for Chlamydia and gonococcus co-infection four weeks ago. Blood tests reveal Hb levels of 132 (115 - 160), WBC count of 10.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and CRP levels of 55 mg/L (< 5). On examination, the right knee and ankle are swollen and tender. What auto-antibody is typically associated with this condition?
Your Answer: HLA-B51
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s presentation is reactive arthritis, which is associated with HLA-B27. This condition is characterized by arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s acute onset arthritis and suspected UTI that has not resolved after three days of treatment suggest the presence of urethritis. Additionally, the patient’s history of a Chlamydia infection is a common trigger for reactive arthritis.
It is important to note that HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease, which presents with ulcers of the genitals and oral mucosa, skin lesions, and inflammation of parts of the eye. HLA-DQ2 is associated with Coeliac disease, which causes symptoms of malabsorption. HLA-DR3 is associated with Addison’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Grave’s disease, and myasthenia gravis, none of which would explain the patient’s presentation.
HLA Associations and Disease
HLA antigens are proteins that are encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA-A, B, and C) and class II (HLA-DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens.
For example, HLA-A3 is strongly associated with haemochromatosis, while HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-B27 is associated with several conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-DQ2/DQ8 is associated with coeliac disease, and HLA-DR2 is associated with narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s syndrome. HLA-DR3 is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Finally, HLA-DR4 is associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis.
It is important to note that some diseases may be associated with multiple HLA antigens, and that the strength of the association can vary. Understanding these associations can help with diagnosis and treatment of these diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the hospital with acute knee pain, swelling, and stiffness that started last night. He is experiencing systemic symptoms with a temperature of 39.2ºC and is unable to bear weight. A joint aspiration is performed to confirm the diagnosis.
What is the recommended duration of antibiotic treatment for this patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: 4-6 weeks
Explanation:Septic arthritis necessitates a prolonged antibiotic treatment of at least 4-6 weeks. The most probable diagnosis in this scenario is septic arthritis, as the patient is experiencing acute joint swelling and pain, along with systemic distress and a high fever. Joint aspiration is a crucial diagnostic tool that is likely to reveal purulent synovial fluid, which may test positive for the causative organism. Patients with septic arthritis should receive joint aspiration and an initial 2 weeks of intravenous antibiotics, followed by 2-4 weeks of oral antibiotics. Antibiotics are necessary for treating septic arthritis, and joint aspiration alone is insufficient and may lead to joint destruction and sepsis. Current British Society of Rheumatology guidelines (2006) recommend against antibiotic courses of 7 days and 2 weeks, as they are inadequate. However, some evidence suggests that 1 week of intravenous antibiotics followed by oral antibiotics may be as effective as longer intravenous courses in some patients. A lifelong course of antibiotics is not necessary in this case, although it may be used under expert supervision in patients with recurrent septic arthritis.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to her GP with a headache that started a week ago and is different from her usual headaches. She also reports experiencing jaw pain while eating, which has been ongoing for the past week. The GP suspects giant cell arthritis and initiates high-dose prednisolone treatment while referring her to ambulatory emergency care for specialist evaluation. The patient expresses concern about the potential impact of high-dose steroids on her bone health.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Arrange a bone density scan
Correct Answer: Start alendronic acid, vitamin D and calcium supplements
Explanation:Immediate bone protection should be provided to patients who are going to undergo long-term steroid treatment, especially if they are over 65 years old. In the case of this patient with giant cell arthritis, high dose prednisolone is required and therefore, immediate bone protection with alendronic acid is necessary. However, if the patient was under 65 years old, a bone density scan would be required to determine the need for bone protection medication. Merely reassuring the patient would not suffice as long-term steroid use can lead to osteoporosis, which is a significant concern for patients over 65 years old. Additionally, vitamin D and calcium supplements should be started along with bone protection medication. It is important to note that NSAIDs are not a suitable alternative to steroids for treating giant cell arthritis.
Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old intravenous drug user has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis of the right tibia. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents with a football-related injury. He complains of acute pain in his right calf that began with a popping sound during running. You suspect an Achilles tendon rupture and proceed to perform Simmonds' Triad examination. What does this assessment entail?
Your Answer: Calf squeeze test, gait, observation of the angle of declination
Correct Answer: Calf squeeze test, observation of the angle of declination, palpation of the tendon
Explanation:To assess for an Achilles tendon rupture, Simmonds’ triad can be used. This involves three components: palpating the Achilles tendon to check for a gap, observing the angle of declination at rest to see if the affected foot is more dorsiflexed than the other, and performing the calf squeeze test to see if squeezing the calf causes the foot to plantarflex as expected. It’s important to note that struggling to stand on tiptoes or having an abnormal gait are not part of Simmonds’ triad.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 32-year-old cyclist who fell off her bike two days ago and landed on her outstretched hands. She did not hit her head. Today, she visited the emergency department complaining of pain in her right hand. She denies pain in other parts of her body.
Upon examination, her right hand is mildly swollen, but there is no visible deformity. She experiences tenderness when palpated around her wrist dorsally and is particularly sensitive in the anatomical snuffbox area. Although the range of active movement of her wrist is limited due to pain and swelling, she was able to demonstrate thumb and wrist extension.
After undergoing a standard x-ray series of her hand, wrist, and forearm, no fractures were detected. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Extensor pollicis longus tendon rupture
Correct Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old basketball player presents with difficulty moving after an injury during a game. He reports hearing a 'popping' sound when the incident occurred and experienced a sudden onset of severe pain in the back of his right leg.
Clinical examination showed swelling of the right calf and no movement of his right foot whilst squeezing the corresponding calf, whilst lying face down on the examining bench.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation to request for this patient?Your Answer: X-ray
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms and a positive Thompson’s test indicating a possible Achilles tendon rupture, ultrasound is the recommended initial imaging test. However, ultrasound may not be able to distinguish between a partial rupture and tendonitis. CRP is not useful in managing Achilles tendon ruptures as it only shows the level of inflammation in the blood. US Doppler is not necessary in this case as it is primarily used to assess peripheral arterial supply. If ultrasound is not available, MRI can be used as a confirmatory test and can differentiate between a partial rupture and tendonitis.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning pain on the outer part of her left knee. The pain is felt during movement and she has not observed any swelling of the knee. There is no history of injury and no locking of the knee joint. Samantha is a long-distance runner and is preparing for a marathon. During examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. She has a good range of motion of her knee joint. However, a snapping sensation is noticed on the lateral aspect of the knee when her joint is repeatedly flexed and extended. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meniscal tear
Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome
Explanation:Lateral knee pain in runners is often caused by iliotibial band syndrome. This condition can result in a sharp or burning sensation around the knee joint line. Meniscal tears, on the other hand, can cause joint locking, pain, and swelling. Patellofemoral syndrome may lead to knee cap pain that worsens with stair climbing and prolonged use. Meanwhile, rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the small joints in the hands and feet initially, causing stiffness, pain, and swelling in other joints as well.
Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome
Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.
To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.
In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He has a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine
Explanation:Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary in the absence of septic joint or red flag features. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Correct
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An 80-year-old female visits her GP complaining of muscle weakness that has been gradually worsening for the past year. She is unable to stand or walk for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has a purple rash on her eyelids, red nodules on her knees and elbows, and painful cracked skin on her fingers. Which autoantibody is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Antinuclear (ANA)
Explanation:AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the deficiency associated with Marfan's syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that affects multiple systems including musculoskeletal, visual, and cardiovascular, in individuals of all ages?
Your Answer: Elastin
Correct Answer: Fibrillin
Explanation:A mutation in the fibrillin-1 protein is responsible for causing Marfan’s syndrome. This protein is coded by the Marfan syndrome gene (MSF1) located on chromosome 15. Connective tissue contains fibrillin, which is a glycoprotein. Synovial fluid contains hyaluronic acid, while elastin is an extracellular matrix protein found in connective tissue. Laminin is another extracellular matrix protein that forms part of the basement membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, gout and hypercholesterolemia experiences an abrupt onset of diarrhea. Which medication is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Colchicine is known to induce diarrhoea as a side effect.
One of the common side effects of colchicine, a medication utilized for treating acute gout attacks, is diarrhoea. Due to this, some physicians opt for naproxen or prednisolone instead of prescribing colchicine. The remaining drugs on the list are not typically associated with diarrhoea.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of swelling in the joints of her hands for the past 4 months. She reports stiffness in the morning that lasts for an hour before improving throughout the day. There is no pain or swelling in any other part of her body. Upon examination, there is tenderness and swelling in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands. An x-ray of her hands and feet is taken, and she is given a dose of intramuscular methylprednisolone and started on methotrexate.
What is the most crucial additional treatment she should be offered?Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Correct Answer: Folate to reduce the risk of bone marrow suppression
Explanation:Prescribing folate alongside methotrexate is an effective way to decrease the risk of myelosuppression. This patient’s symptoms suggest that she may have rheumatoid arthritis, which is often treated with methotrexate as a first-line option. However, methotrexate can inhibit dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme involved in folate metabolism, which can lead to bone marrow suppression. To prevent this, folate is prescribed alongside methotrexate to ensure that the patient’s red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are not reduced to dangerous levels.
B12 supplementation is not necessary in this case, as methotrexate is not known to cause deficiencies in B12. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be considered if blood tests or symptoms indicate a deficiency, but they are not necessary at this time. Similarly, bisphosphonates are not needed as the patient is not at significant risk of osteoporosis due to her short-term use of corticosteroids.
Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.
The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.
When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.
In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of bilateral hip pain that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. The pain is now preventing her from taking her usual evening walks and worsens throughout the day, especially during exercise. She is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks half a bottle of red wine every night. Her medical history includes recurrent gout and Sjogren syndrome. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis is characterized by pain that worsens with exercise and throughout the day, particularly in the hip joints. This is in contrast to inflammatory arthritis, which typically presents with pain that is worse in the mornings and accompanied by stiffness. While Sjogren syndrome may suggest rheumatoid arthritis, the patient’s symptoms strongly suggest osteoarthritis, which is a common condition. Gout is unlikely to affect the hip joints bilaterally and insidiously.
Causes of Hip Pain in Adults
Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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As an FY2 in the Emergency Department, you have assessed a 65-year-old female patient who is experiencing urticaria and breathing difficulties following a recent change in medication. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, and refractory rheumatoid arthritis. She is also known to have allergies to pollen, aspirin, and plaster adhesives. Which medication is the most likely cause of her current presentation?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Patients who have a hypersensitivity to aspirin may also experience an allergic reaction to sulfasalazine. This is important to note as sulfasalazine is a DMARD used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, particularly in cases where other treatments have not been effective. The patient in this case has refractory rheumatoid arthritis, indicating that the recent medication change is likely a rheumatic agent.
While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can cause angioedema and difficulty breathing, it is not typically associated with urticaria. This is because drug-induced angioedema is usually caused by bradykinin, not histamine.
Cetirizine is an antihistamine that can provide relief for symptoms such as urticaria, histamine-mediated angioedema, and anaphylactic reactions.
Omeprazole is a PPI that is used to treat conditions like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease by suppressing acidic gastric secretions. While skin reactions can occur with the use of omeprazole, bronchospasm is considered rare or very rare according to the BNF. In this case, the most likely culprit for the patient’s allergic reaction is sulfasalazine due to their known aspirin allergy.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left knee that is aggravated by his routine basketball practices. The boy also experiences a sensation of the left knee joint getting stuck and a painful 'click' when bending or straightening the left knee. Physical examination of the knee joint reveals a slight accumulation of fluid and a detectable loose body. Furthermore, tenderness is noticeable upon palpating the femoral condyles while the knee is flexed. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this condition?
Your Answer: Baker's cyst
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:Osteochondritis dissecans is commonly seen in the knee joint and is characterized by knee pain after exercise, locking, and ‘clunking’. This condition is often caused by overuse of joints due to sports activities and can lead to secondary effects on joint cartilage, including pain, swelling, and possible formation of free bodies. Baker’s cyst, Osgood-Schlatter disease, and osteoarthritis are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.
Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.
To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.
Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.
His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ºC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.
What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Measure synovial fluid urate level 2 weeks after inflammation settles
Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles
Explanation:Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.
To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A 28-year-old mother of a three-month-old baby visits the clinic with a concern of experiencing wrist pain for a week. The pain is located on the radial side of her wrist, and she feels tenderness over the radial styloid process. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing pain on the radial side of the wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process, which is indicative of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is caused by inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons and is commonly seen in women aged 30-50 years old. Finkelstein’s test is positive, which involves grasping the patient’s thumb and abducting the hand to the ulnar side, resulting in pain over the radial styloid process. Carpal tunnel syndrome, osteoarthritis, radial nerve entrapment, and scaphoid fracture are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What factors are linked to a favorable outcome in rheumatoid arthritis prognosis, particularly in younger patients?
Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor negative
Explanation:Prognostic Features of Rheumatoid Arthritis
A number of factors have been identified as predictors of a poor prognosis in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These include being rheumatoid factor positive, having anti-CCP antibodies, presenting with poor functional status, showing early erosions on X-rays, having extra-articular features such as nodules, possessing the HLA DR4 gene, and experiencing an insidious onset. While there is some discrepancy regarding the association between gender and prognosis, both the American College of Rheumatology and the recent NICE guidelines suggest that female gender is linked to a poorer prognosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these prognostic features in order to provide appropriate management and support for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hand pains that have been bothering her for several years. She reports that the pains started in both wrists a few years ago and have since spread to several joints in her fingers. The pain tends to worsen after use and improves with rest. Although the affected joints feel stiff upon waking, this only lasts for a few minutes. The patient reports that she can still complete tasks without any difficulty.
During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness in the carpometacarpal joints and several distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) on both sides. There are also painless nodes that can be felt over several DIPs. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, as well as the presence of painless swellings known as Heberden’s nodes. Gout, pseudogout, and psoriatic arthritis are less likely diagnoses due to their acute presentation, involvement of different joints, and/or lack of a psoriasis history.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 32
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone to discuss her back pain that has been ongoing for three months. She reports that the pain is most severe in the morning and is accompanied by stiffness, which gradually improves throughout the day with physical activity. The pain is primarily located in her lumbar spine, and she has been struggling to complete her daily tasks. Despite not having examined the patient, the GP suspects an inflammatory cause, specifically ankylosing spondylitis. What aspect of this history would raise the GP's suspicion the most?
Your Answer: Pain improves with exercise
Explanation:Exercise is known to improve inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. This type of pain is typically worse in the morning or with rest, but eases with physical activity. Other causes of inflammatory back pain include rheumatoid arthritis. Difficulty with activities of daily living and insidious onset are non-specific and may be seen in other types of back pain. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in men, but can still occur in women.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided flank pain radiating to the back which had developed over the past 10 days. There is no history of trauma or injury to the area.
He is a known intravenous drug user who has been commenced on a methadone rehabilitation programme around 2 weeks previously. He has no fixed abode and spends his night between various hostels.
He has no significant past medical history. Although has previous admissions following various injuries such as stabbings.
His observations are: heart rate 99/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 98/75 mmHg, temperature 37.7º, Sats 99% on air.
On examination, he appears to be in pain and is lying flat on his back with his knees flexed. He is very tender over his back at L1 and L2 levels. He actively resists passive movement from his position of comfort and is unable to weight bear due to pain.
Blood tests show raised inflammatory markers, lumbar spine and pelvic x-ray show no abnormality.
He is requesting analgesia for his pain.
What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?Your Answer: Psoas abscess
Explanation:An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical ward with a deep ulcer over the inferior aspect of his heel which reaches the bone. He had not noticed it and seems unconcerned. His son, who brought him into hospital, says that he has poor sensation in his feet and rarely takes off his socks and shoes. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, for which he is on a biphasic insulin regimen.
His temperature is 37.9ºC, and his heart rate is 101/min.
What is the most effective way to confirm the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ultrasound
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:The patient in question presents with a deep foot ulcer and signs of systemic inflammation, including fever and tachycardia, which suggest an infection. Given his history of diabetic neuropathy and a diabetic foot ulcer that has penetrated the bone, osteomyelitis is a likely diagnosis. It is important to note that patients with reduced sensation may not be aware of the ulcer’s presence, so the patient’s apparent lack of concern should not be taken as a sign that the condition is not serious.
To determine the surgical anatomy and the depth of the infection, MRI is the preferred imaging modality. A biopsy is not recommended as it may cause further damage to the area and will not provide information on the depth of the infection. While a CT scan may be used if MRI is not available, it is not as effective in this scenario.
Repeat clinical examination would not provide any additional information, so urgent imaging is necessary. Blood cultures should also be taken, and the patient should be started on empirical IV antibiotics while awaiting the results. Treatment will likely involve a prolonged course of antibiotics, and repeat scans will be compared to the initial MRI to monitor progress.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with recurrent chest infections over the past 6 months. During examination, splenomegaly is observed. She is currently taking methotrexate and sulphasalazine. Blood tests reveal:
- Hb: 96 g/l
- WBC: 3.6 * 109/l
- Neuts: 0.8 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 1.6 * 109/l
- Eosin: 0.6 * 109/l
What is the probable cause of the neutropenia?Your Answer: Methotrexate use
Correct Answer: Felty's syndrome
Explanation:Felty’s syndrome is a medical condition where a patient with rheumatoid arthritis experiences splenomegaly and neutropenia. This is caused by hypersplenism, which destroys blood cells and leads to neutropenia or pancytopenia. While methotrexate use can cause neutropenia, it is not typically associated with splenomegaly.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that can lead to various complications beyond joint pain and inflammation. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and immune system. Some of the respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, and bronchiolitis obliterans. Eye-related complications may include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, scleritis, and corneal ulceration. RA can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, infections, and depression. Less common complications may include Felty’s syndrome and amyloidosis.
It is important to note that these complications may not affect all individuals with RA and the severity of the complications can vary. However, it is essential for individuals with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or address any complications that may arise. Regular check-ups and monitoring of symptoms can help detect and manage any complications early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 36
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and sharp pain on the right side of her chest that worsens during inspiration. She also reports experiencing occasional joint pain in her hands for the past four months. During the physical examination, mild erythema is observed over her cheeks. What is the most sensitive investigation for this condition?
Your Answer: ANA
Explanation:Raised titre levels of Antistreptolysin O may indicate recent streptococcal infection or rheumatic fever.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance after falling in her nursing home room. She is experiencing severe pain and is unable to bear weight on her leg, which appears shortened and externally rotated. An X-ray reveals a displaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture, and the orthopaedic team is contacted. The patient has a history of heart failure, mild Alzheimer's disease, and kidney stones. What is the most suitable form of pain relief for this patient?
Your Answer: 1g oral paracetamol
Correct Answer: Iliofascial nerve block
Explanation:An iliofascial nerve block is a widely used and effective method of pain relief for patients with a fracture of the neck of the femur. By injecting local anaesthetic into the potential space between the fascia iliaca and the iliacus and psoas major muscles, the femoral, obturator, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves can be affected, reducing the need for opioid analgesics like morphine. This is particularly beneficial for elderly patients who are more susceptible to the side effects of opioids. As most patients with neck of femur fractures are elderly, iliofascial nerve blocks are now the recommended first-line method of pain relief in many UK hospitals.
While rectal diclofenac is an effective form of pain relief for kidney stones, it is not the preferred method for a fractured neck of femur. Oral paracetamol is unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief for this type of injury. Intravenous propofol is an anaesthetic agent and not appropriate for initial pain relief in the emergency department. Spinal anaesthesia is commonly used during surgery for neck of femur fractures, but it is less suitable than an iliofascial nerve block in the emergency department.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Ms. Johnson, a 25-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of abdominal pain and changes in her bowel movements. She has been experiencing loose stools with occasional blood. She also experiences lower abdominal cramps and urgency. She denies having joint pain but has previously had a red eye. Her mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis.
After undergoing a rheumatological screening, Ms. Johnson's results show a positive pANCA. No other antibodies were found to be above normal levels. What is the most likely condition responsible for this positive result?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:ANCA is not a specific marker for vasculitis as other inflammatory conditions can also cause a positive ANCA, particularly pANCA. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are consistent with ulcerative colitis, which is known to cause a raised pANCA. While microscopic polyangiitis and Churg-Strauss syndrome can also result in elevated pANCA levels, their typical presentations differ from the patient’s symptoms. Microscopic polyangiitis usually affects middle-aged individuals and presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, and joint and muscle pain, while Churg-Strauss syndrome typically manifests with respiratory symptoms.
ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing four consecutive miscarriages. Her GP ordered routine blood tests which revealed a prolonged APTT and the presence of lupus anticoagulant immunoglobulins. The patient is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and you recommend long-term pharmacological thromboprophylaxis. However, she has no history of venous or arterial clots. What would be the most appropriate form of thromboprophylaxis for this patient?
Your Answer: A direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:For patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have not experienced a thrombosis before, the recommended thromboprophylaxis is low-dose aspirin. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is not advised as studies have shown a higher incidence of clots in antiphospholipid patients on DOACs compared to warfarin. Low-molecular-weight heparin is not recommended for long-term use as it is administered subcutaneously. Warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is appropriate only for patients who have previously suffered from venous or arterial clots.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has persisted for two weeks. The pain is situated between the shoulder blades and happens frequently throughout the day. He expresses concern that this might be a severe issue and has been avoiding physical activity as a result.
What aspects of this patient's medical history are cause for concern?Your Answer: Lack of trauma
Correct Answer: Location of pain
Explanation:When a patient presents with back pain in the thoracic area, it is considered a red flag and requires further investigation to rule out potential serious underlying causes such as skeletal disorders, degenerative disc disease, vertebral fractures, vascular malformations, or metastasis. Additionally, if the patient exhibits fear-avoidance behavior and reduced activity, it may indicate psychosocial factors that could lead to chronic back pain. Patients under 20 or over 50 years old, those with a history of trauma, and those whose pain is worse at night are also considered red flags.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is currently admitted to orthopaedics after breaking her femur in a road traffic accident. Two days later, she develops a fever of 38.3ºC and becomes breathless. She is also confused and has retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. After conducting an A-E assessment and ruling out any rashes, a chest X-ray is performed and comes back normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: Fat embolism
Explanation:Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment
Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.
Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 42
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for a month. She mentions having difficulty standing up after sitting down. She also reports noticing a red rash on her chest, but denies any itching. Her medical history is unremarkable except for hypertension that is well-controlled.
During the physical examination, the doctor observes dry hands with linear cracks and violaceous papules on both knuckles. The patient also has a distinct purple rash around each eyelid. What is the most specific antibody for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo-1 antibody
Explanation:The most specific autoantibody associated with dermatomyositis is anti-Jo-1. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms, which include proximal myopathy, Gottron’s papules, mechanic’s hands, and a heliotrope rash. Anti-Ro antibody, anti-Smith antibody, and antinuclear antibody are not specific to dermatomyositis and are associated with other rheumatological conditions.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of widespread pain, stiffness, and subjective weakness to her shoulders bilaterally. Getting dressed in the morning is taking longer, sometimes up to 45 minutes due to her symptoms. She denies any scalp tenderness or jaw claudication.
Upon examination, there is no objective weakness identified in her upper and lower limbs. No erythema or swelling is visible in her shoulders. Passive motion of her shoulders bilaterally improves her pain.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Fibromyalgia
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Upon examination, there is no actual weakness observed in the limb girdles of individuals with polymyalgia rheumatica. Any perceived weakness is likely due to myalgia, which is pain-induced inhibition.
The most probable diagnosis for this case is polymyalgia rheumatica due to several factors. The patient’s gradual onset of symmetrical symptoms and demographic align with this condition. The subjective weakness reported is most likely due to pain rather than objective weakness, which is typical of polymyalgia rheumatica. If there were any visible deformities or true weakness, it would suggest a different diagnosis.
Rotator cuff tendinopathy would not typically present with symmetrical features or significant morning stiffness. Cervical myelopathy would likely reveal objective weakness and other symptoms such as clumsiness, numbness, or paraesthesia. Fibromyalgia is an unlikely diagnosis as it does not usually present with morning stiffness and is less common as a first presentation in this age group.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman is admitted from her nursing home after experiencing a fall resulting in a displaced intracapsular hip fracture. She has a history of hypertension, mild cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. Typically, she requires a zimmer frame for mobility and appears frail. What is the appropriate surgical approach for her condition?
Your Answer: Conservative management only as surgery is not indicated
Correct Answer: Cement hemiarthroplasty
Explanation:The patient’s decreased mobility, cognitive impairment, and general frailty make her unsuitable for a total hip replacement. Instead, a cement hemiarthroplasty is the recommended treatment for her fractured hip, with the goal of restoring her normal function. The appropriate surgical management for a hip fracture depends on both the location of the fracture and the patient’s normal function.
For an intracapsular fracture, which involves the femoral head and insertion of the capsule into the joint, replacement arthroplasty is recommended for patients with a displaced fracture who are clinically eligible. Eligibility criteria include the ability to walk independently, no cognitive impairment, and medical fitness for both anesthesia and the procedure. If a patient does not meet these criteria, a cemented hemiarthroplasty is preferred.
For extracapsular fractures, such as trochanteric or subtrochanteric fractures, different treatments are recommended. A sliding hip screw is appropriate for trochanteric fractures, while subtrochanteric fractures should be fixed using an intramedullary nail.
The ultimate goal of hip replacement after a fracture is to allow the patient to return to their normal function by enabling them to fully weight bear postoperatively.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Correct
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The existence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody indicates which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.
Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.
In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department following a fall from his skateboard, where he landed on his outstretched right hand. On examination, the patient reports experiencing considerable pain and tenderness between the extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons of his right hand. An X-ray is conducted, but no abnormalities are detected.
What is the best initial approach to managing this injury?Your Answer: Immobilise using standard above-elbow backslab before specialist review
Correct Answer: Immobilise using Futuro splint or standard below-elbow backslab before specialist review
Explanation:For non-displaced or minimally displaced scaphoid fractures (less than 0.5mm), immobilization for 6 weeks is sufficient for union. However, since these fractures can lead to avascular necrosis and other long-term complications, it is crucial to seek specialized medical attention. It is unnecessary to immobilize the elbow with a standard above-elbow backslab for suspected scaphoid fractures.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her left hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer. During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good power throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced when forced wrist flexion is performed.
What is the best initial course of action?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Wrist splinting
Explanation:For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without steroid injection, should be attempted first. This woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative measures before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be appropriate for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation does not suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may eventually be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms, and conservative management is more appropriate initially. While a steroid injection may be appropriate as a first-line treatment when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, steroid treatment alone is generally not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Correct
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A 28-year-old male patient visits the rheumatology clinic with complaints of a dull ache in his lower back that typically starts in the morning and improves throughout the day. He also reports limited movement of his entire spine, particularly in the lumbar region. Additionally, he has been diagnosed with anterior uveitis. What test would be the most suitable to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pelvic x-ray to identify sacroiliitis
Explanation:The finding is not specific or sensitive as it pertains to the general population.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that does not affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities. What is the most precise diagnostic test for this patient's probable condition?
Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA
Explanation:A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in her left hand. She reports that the pain is located at the base of her left thumb and is a constant ache that worsens with movement. The patient states that the pain has been progressively worsening over the past year. She has a medical history of gout in her big toe, which is managed with allopurinol. Her mother was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis five years ago, and she is concerned that she may also have this condition. On examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the left thumb base, and unilateral squaring of the left thumb is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this history and clinical examination?
Your Answer: De Quervain's tendinosis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by squaring of the thumbs. This is due to bony outgrowths at the basilar joint of the thumb. Additionally, the pain experienced is typically unilateral and worsens with movement. De Quervain’s tendinosis may cause pain at the base of the thumb but does not result in thumb squaring. Gout is unlikely to present with thumb squaring and typically affects joints in the lower limb. Psoriatic arthritis typically affects distal joints and may present with skin and nail signs. Rheumatoid arthritis, despite a positive family history and similar pain history, does not explain the squaring of the thumb.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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