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Question 1
Incorrect
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A fifteen-year-old comes in with a swollen, red, and tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. After diagnosis and treatment for gout, he confesses to having experienced three previous episodes. What medical condition is linked to gout?
Your Answer: Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Explanation:Gout is commonly associated with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, an inherited enzyme deficiency also known as ‘juvenile gout’. This condition is also characterized by self-injuring behavior, cognitive impairment, and nervous system impairment. However, juvenile idiopathic arthritis and osteoarthritis, which also cause joint pain and swelling, are not strongly linked to gout. On the other hand, pseudogout is associated with hyperparathyroidism.
Predisposing Factors for Gout
Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.
In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.
It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the primary process of growth that causes benign enlargement of the prostate?
Your Answer: Hyperplasia
Explanation:Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects men as they age. It is characterized by an increase in the number of cells in the prostate gland, which leads to its enlargement. This process is known as hyperplasia and is the main method for age-related prostate enlargement. BPH is caused by an increase in the number of exocrine glands and ducts, which are structurally normal.
Hypertrophy, which is an increase in the size of cells, also plays a role in BPH, but to a lesser extent. It mainly affects the central (periurethral) zone of the prostate, causing urethral compression and the symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction. On the other hand, dysplasia, which is the abnormal growth of cells, is more likely to occur in the peripheral zone of the prostate. This area has the potential to develop into malignancy, making it important to monitor any changes in the prostate gland. the mechanisms behind BPH can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a child's notes in the clinic and see that they have recently been seen by an ophthalmologist. Their ocular examination was normal, although they were noted to have significant hyperopia (farsightedness) and would benefit from spectacles. The child's parent mentioned that they do not fully understand why their child requires glasses. You draw them a diagram to explain the cause of their long-sightedness.
Where is the point that light rays converge in this child?Your Answer: On the crystalline lens capsule
Correct Answer: Behind the retina
Explanation:Hyperopia, also known as hypermetropia, is a condition where the eye’s visual axis is too short, causing the image to be focused behind the retina. This is typically caused by an imbalance between the length of the eye and the power of the cornea and lens system.
In a healthy eye, light is first focused by the cornea and then by the crystalline lens, resulting in a clear image on the retina. However, in hyperopia, the light is refracted to a point of focus behind the retina, leading to blurred vision.
Myopia, on the other hand, is a common refractive error where light rays converge in front of the retina due to the cornea and lens system being too powerful for the length of the eye.
In cases where light rays converge on the crystalline lens capsule, it may indicate severe corneal disruption, such as ocular trauma or keratoconus. This would not be considered a refractive error.
To correct hyperopia, corrective lenses are needed to refract the light before it enters the eye. A convex lens is typically used to correct the refractive error in a hyperopic eye.
A gradual decline in vision is a prevalent issue among the elderly population, leading them to seek guidance from healthcare providers. This condition can be attributed to various causes, including cataracts and age-related macular degeneration. Both of these conditions can cause a gradual loss of vision over time, making it difficult for individuals to perform daily activities such as reading, driving, and recognizing faces. As a result, it is essential for individuals experiencing a decline in vision to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent further deterioration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.
What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?Your Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis
Explanation:Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.
One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.
While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.
Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.
In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Abnormal conduction in the heart can result in arrhythmias, which may be caused by reduced blood flow in the coronary arteries leading to hypoxia. This can slow depolarisation in phase 0, resulting in slower conduction speeds.
What ion movement is responsible for the rapid depolarisation observed in the cardiac action potential?Your Answer: Calcium influx
Correct Answer: Sodium influx
Explanation:Rapid depolarization is caused by a rapid influx of sodium.
During phase 2, the plateau period, calcium influx is responsible.
To maintain the electrical gradient, there is potassium influx in phase 4, which is facilitated by inward rectifying K+ channels and the Na+/K+ ion exchange pump.
Potassium efflux mainly occurs during phases 1 and 3.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A newly born boy appears pink centrally but blue peripherally after ten minutes.
His heart rate is 100 bpm and he is crying, with regular respirations and coughs between. He is moving all four limbs independently.
What is his APGAR score?Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The APGAR score is a method of assessing the well-being of a neonate during the first 10 minutes of life, named after Dr. Virginia Apgar. It measures five domains: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration, with each domain scored as 0, 1, or 2. The minimum score is 0 and the maximum is 10. The score is usually assessed at one minute, five minutes, and 10 minutes of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old male is stabbed in the groin, resulting in injury to multiple structures and a laceration of the adductor longus muscle. Which nerve is responsible for the innervation of the adductor longus?
Your Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:Adductor Longus Muscle
The adductor longus muscle originates from the anterior body of the pubis and inserts into the middle third of the linea aspera. Its main function is to adduct and flex the thigh, as well as medially rotate the hip. This muscle is innervated by the anterior division of the obturator nerve, which originates from the spinal nerves L2, L3, and L4. The adductor longus is one of the adductor muscles, which are a group of muscles located in the thigh that work together to bring the legs towards the midline of the body. The schematic image below illustrates the relationship of the adductor muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You have designed a new study tool for anxiety symptoms in the form of a questionnaire and would like to measure its construct validity. What is the correct definition of construct validity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A test has good construct validity if it has a high correlation with another test that measures the same construct
Explanation:Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes is admitted to the ICU due to septic shock caused by COVID-19 infection. Despite receiving intravenous fluids, his blood pressure remains low, and he is given noradrenaline (norepinephrine) to correct it.
What is the function of this neurotransmitter in the body?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:Noradrenaline is the correct postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. It is used as a vasopressor to increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction. Acetylcholine is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, not noradrenaline. There is no one neurotransmitter that serves as a postganglionic neurotransmitter for both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Finally, acetylcholine, not noradrenaline, is the preganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.
In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.
It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What role does clavulanic acid play in co-amoxiclav?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes
Explanation:Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action
Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that belongs to the penicillin family. It has some resistance against penicillinase enzymes, but it is susceptible to beta-lactamase enzymes, which is a common bacterial resistance mechanism. To increase its resistance to breakdown and broaden its spectrum of activity, clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin, particularly against Gram-negative organisms. Compared to penicillin V, amoxicillin has better oral bioavailability. However, it has relatively poor bone penetration, which requires long courses of IV antibiotics for bone infections. Some oral antibiotics, such as linezolid and clindamycin, have slightly better bone penetration.
DNA gyrase, also known as topoisomerase II, is an enzyme that helps to hold DNA in place during replication. Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, target DNA gyrase as their mechanism of action. There are several antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis, including penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In response to cigarette smoke, does the respiratory epithelium undergo metaplasia and if so, what type of epithelial cell does it form?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stratified squamous
Explanation:Epithelial Tissue and its Metaplasia
Epithelial tissue is a type of tissue that lines the surfaces of organs and structures in the body. Respiratory epithelium, which is made up of pseudostratified, ciliated columnar cells, can undergo a process called metaplasia. This is when the tissue transforms into a different type of tissue. In the case of respiratory epithelium, it can transform into stratified squamous epithelium. This transformation occurs when the cilia on the columnar cells are lost, and the cells become squamous in shape.
This transformation can be problematic, as the squamous cells can become dysplastic and lead to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in the lungs. Small cell carcinoma is another type of cancer that affects epithelial tissue, but its exact origin is not clear.
Different types of epithelial tissue can be found in various parts of the body. Simple columnar epithelium, for example, is commonly found in the stomach. Simple cuboidal epithelium lines the reproductive organs, such as the ovaries and testes. Small cell epithelium lines the large and small intestines, while transitional epithelium can be found in the bladder.
the different types of epithelial tissue and their potential for metaplasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man, with a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension and stable angina visits his family physician for a routine check-up. He is currently taking metoprolol, daily aspirin and insulin glargine. He lives alone and is able to manage his daily activities. He used to work as a teacher and his wife passed away from a stroke 5 years ago. During the examination, his heart rate is 60 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute and blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg. What is the direct effect of the metoprolol medication on this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in renin secretion
Explanation:During the patient’s regular follow-up for diabetes and hypertension management, it was noted that both conditions increase the risk of cardiovascular complications and other related complications such as kidney and eye problems. To manage hypertension, the patient was prescribed metoprolol, a beta-blocker that reduces blood pressure by decreasing heart rate and cardiac output. Additionally, metoprolol blocks beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys, leading to a decrease in renin secretion. Renin is responsible for converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II, a hormone that increases blood pressure through vasoconstriction and sodium retention. By blocking renin secretion, metoprolol causes a decrease in blood pressure. Other antihypertensive medications work through different mechanisms, such as calcium channel blockers that dilate arterioles, ACE inhibitors that decrease angiotensin II secretion, and beta-blockers that decrease renin secretion.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which is least likely to cause hyperuricaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:The drugs that cause hyperuricaemia due to reduced urate excretion can be remembered using the mnemonic Can’t leap, which stands for Ciclosporin, Alcohol, Nicotinic acid, Thiazides, Loop diuretics, Ethambutol, Aspirin, and Pyrazinamide. Additionally, decreased tubular secretion of urate can occur in patients with acidosis, such as those with diabetic ketoacidosis, ethanol or salicylate intoxication, or starvation ketosis, as the organic acids that accumulate in these conditions compete with urate for tubular secretion.
Understanding Hyperuricaemia
Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by an increase in cell turnover or a decrease in the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. While some individuals with hyperuricaemia may not experience any symptoms, it can be associated with other health conditions such as hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.
There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia. Increased synthesis of uric acid can occur in conditions such as Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, and with a diet rich in purines. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs like low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.
It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. Regular monitoring of uric acid levels and addressing any contributing factors can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Roughly what percentage of saliva production comes from the submandibular glands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland
The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.
The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A child with severe hydrocephalus is exhibiting a lack of upward gaze. What specific area of the brain is responsible for this impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior colliculi
Explanation:The superior colliculi play a crucial role in upward gaze and are located on both sides of the tectal or quadrigeminal plate. Damage or compression of the superior colliculi, such as in severe hydrocephalus, can result in the inability to look up, known as sunsetting of the eyes.
The optic chiasm serves as the connection between the anterior and posterior optic pathways. The nasal fibers of the optic nerves cross over at the chiasm, leading to monocular visual field deficits with anterior pathway lesions and binocular visual field deficits with posterior pathway lesions.
The lateral geniculate body in the thalamus is where the optic tract connects with the optic radiations, while the inferior colliculi and medial geniculate bodies are responsible for processing auditory stimuli.
Understanding the Diencephalon: An Overview of Brain Anatomy
The diencephalon is a part of the brain that is located between the cerebral hemispheres and the brainstem. It is composed of several structures, including the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and subthalamus. Each of these structures plays a unique role in regulating various bodily functions and behaviors.
The thalamus is responsible for relaying sensory information from the body to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting this information. The hypothalamus, on the other hand, is involved in regulating a wide range of bodily functions, including hunger, thirst, body temperature, and sleep. It also plays a role in regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
The epithalamus is a small structure that is involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and the production of melatonin, a hormone that helps to regulate sleep. The subthalamus is involved in regulating movement and is part of the basal ganglia, a group of structures that are involved in motor control.
Overall, the diencephalon plays a crucial role in regulating many of the body’s essential functions and behaviors. Understanding its anatomy and function can help us better understand how the brain works and how we can maintain optimal health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What structures are found alongside the median nerve in the carpal tunnel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundis
Explanation:The Carpal Tunnel: A Passage for Nerves and Tendons
The carpal tunnel is a narrow passage located in the wrist that is made up of the flexor retinaculum, a band of connective tissue. This tunnel serves as a pathway for the median nerve and the tendons of the long flexor muscles of the fingers. These structures pass through the tunnel to reach the hand and fingers. However, all other structures, such as blood vessels and other nerves, are located outside of the carpal tunnel.
In summary, the carpal tunnel is a crucial passage for the median nerve and tendons of the long flexor muscles of the digits. It is formed by the flexor retinaculum and is located in the wrist. the anatomy of the carpal tunnel is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the hand and wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents to the GP with back pain. He tells you the pain started three weeks ago after helping a friend move where he was lifting lots of heavy boxes. He says the pain radiates down the lateral aspect of his right thigh and often feels a tingling sensation in this area. On clinical examination you find reduced sensation below the right knee but the knee reflex is intact. You suspect he may have damaged his sciatic nerve.
Which other feature are you most likely to find?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absent plantar reflex
Explanation:When a patient experiences a loss of ankle and plantar reflexes but retains their knee jerk reflex, it may indicate a sciatic nerve lesion. The sciatic nerve is responsible for innervating the hamstring and adductor muscles and is supplied by L4-5 and S1-3. Other symptoms of sciatic nerve damage include paralysis of knee flexion and sensory loss below the knee.
If a patient presents with a Trendelenburg sign, it may indicate an injury to the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for thigh abduction by gluteus medius, and damage to it can cause weakness and a compensatory tilt of the body to the weakened gluteal side.
Tinel’s sign is a feature of carpel tunnel syndrome and occurs when the median nerve is tapped at the wrist, causing tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.
Damage to the obturator nerve can result in sensory loss at the medial thigh. This nerve is typically damaged in an anterior hip dislocation.
Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion
The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae and divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. It is responsible for supplying the hamstring and adductor muscles. When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in a range of symptoms that affect both motor and sensory functions.
Motor symptoms of sciatic nerve lesion include paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee. Sensory symptoms include loss of sensation below the knee. Reflexes may also be affected, with ankle and plantar reflexes lost while the knee jerk reflex remains intact.
There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesion, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman is seeking advice at the family planning clinic as she plans to start a family soon. She has been researching medications that may harm her baby's growth during pregnancy, especially those that can cause cleft palate and heart defects. Her concerns stem from her friend's experience with her baby being born with these conditions. Can you identify the drug that is linked to cleft palate and congenital heart disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is linked to the development of cleft palate and congenital heart disease, making it a known teratogenic substance.
Insulin and acetaminophen are considered safe for use during pregnancy and are not known to have any harmful effects on the developing fetus.
Warfarin, on the other hand, is known to be teratogenic and may cause defects in the hands, nose, and eyes, as well as growth retardation. However, it is not associated with cleft palate or congenital heart disease.
Tetracyclines can cause discoloration of the teeth and bone defects due to their deposition in these tissues.
Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.
Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.
Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.
It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female complains of fatigue and occasional palpitations. During one of these episodes, an ECG shows atrial fibrillation that resolves within half an hour. What would be the most suitable subsequent investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Diagnosis and Potential Causes of Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate the function of the left ventricle and valves, which would typically be performed by a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be necessary.
Conversely, a full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid profile would not be useful in determining the nature of AF or its potential treatment. It is essential to consider the various causes of AF to determine the most effective course of treatment. The sources cited in this article provide further information on the diagnosis and management of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of weight loss and night sweats. He reports feeling fatigued more easily than usual. During the physical examination, the doctor observes significant splenomegaly. The patient's lab results show an elevated white blood cell count and a translocation between two chromosomes. Which two chromosomes are likely to be translocated in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: (9;22)
Explanation:Based on his symptoms of night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, and splenomegaly, the patient is likely suffering from chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). This type of leukemia is characterized by a specific translocation between chromosome 9 and 22, known as the Philadelphia chromosome. Other translocations are associated with different types of blood cancers, such as t(15;17) in acute promyelocytic leukemia, t(8;14) in Burkitt’s lymphoma, and t(11;14) in mantle cell lymphoma.
Genetics of Haematological Malignancies
Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:
– Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
– t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.
– t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.
– t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.
– t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.
Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl complains of fainting on exertion and her teacher noticed a bluish tinge to her skin before one episode. She says she can prevent fainting by squatting down. During examination, a mid-systolic murmur is heard and her fingernails are clubbed. What is a possible cardiac reason for her clubbing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.
Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.
Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of persistent headaches. During a cranial nerve examination, the GP observes normal direct and consensual reflexes when shining light into the left eye. However, when shining light into the right eye, direct and consensual reflexes are present, but both pupils do not constrict as much. The GP then swings a pen torch from one eye to the other and notes that both pupils constrict when swung to the left eye. However, when swung from the left eye to the right eye, both pupils appear to dilate slightly, although not back to normal. Based on these findings, where is the probable lesion located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:A relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is indicative of an optic nerve lesion or severe retinal disease. During the swinging light test, if less light is detected in the affected eye, both pupils appear to dilate. The optic nerve is responsible for this condition.
The options ‘Lateral geniculate nucleus’, ‘Oculomotor nucleus’, and ‘Optic chiasm’ are incorrect. Lesions in the lateral geniculate nucleus are not associated with RAPD. A lesion in the oculomotor nucleus would cause ophthalmoplegia, mydriasis, and ptosis. Lesions in the optic chiasm usually result in bitemporal hemianopia and are not associated with RAPD.
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.
The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:During the third month of development, the spinal cord of the foetus extends throughout the entire vertebral canal. However, as the vertebral column continues to grow, it surpasses the growth rate of the spinal cord. As a result, at birth, the spinal cord is located at the level of L3, but by adulthood, it shifts up to L1-2.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A person in their 60s is prescribed clopidogrel following a transient ischaemic attack. What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel as an antiplatelet medication?
Clopidogrel is prescribed to prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. It works by irreversibly binding to the P2Y12 receptor on the platelet surface, which prevents the activation of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex. This complex is responsible for the final common pathway of platelet aggregation, so by inhibiting its activation, clopidogrel reduces the risk of thrombotic events such as stroke or myocardial infarction.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ADP receptor antagonist
Explanation:Clopidogrel works by blocking ADP receptors, which prevents platelet activation and the formation of blood clots.
Aspirin and other NSAIDs inhibit the COX-1 enzyme, leading to a decrease in prostaglandins and thromboxane, which helps to prevent blood clots.
Antiplatelet medications like abciximab and eptifibatide work by blocking glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets, which prevents platelet adhesion and activation.
Increasing thrombomodulin expression and prostacyclin levels would have the opposite effect and increase blood coagulability and platelet production.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male patient is referred to an oncologist by his GP due to a 2-month history of fever, malaise, and weight loss. Upon reviewing the patient's blood results and bone marrow biopsy report, the doctor diagnoses chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML) and prescribes hydroxycarbamide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase
Explanation:Hydroxyurea is a medication that is used to treat various diseases, including sickle cell disease and chronic myelogenous leukaemia. It works by inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase, which reduces the production of deoxyribonucleotides. This, in turn, inhibits cell synthesis by decreasing DNA synthesis. It is important to note that hydroxyurea does not work by causing the cross-linking of DNA, which is a mechanism used by other drugs such as Cisplatin. Methotrexate works through the inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase, while Irinotecan inhibits topoisomerase I, and Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist. These drugs work through different mechanisms and are not related to hydroxyurea.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with complaints of chronic fatigue. He also reports experiencing decreased sensation and pins and needles in his arms and legs. During the physical examination, you notice that he appears very pale. The patient has difficulty sensing vibrations from a tuning fork and has reduced proprioception in his joints. Upon further inquiry, he reveals a history of coeliac disease but admits to poor adherence to the gluten-free diet.
What is the location of the spinal cord lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsal cord lesion
Explanation:Lesions in the dorsal cord result in sensory deficits because the dorsal (posterior) horns contain the sensory input. The dorsal columns, responsible for fine touch sensation, proprioception, and vibration, are located in the dorsal/posterior horns. Therefore, a dorsal cord lesion would cause a pattern of sensory deficits. In this case, the patient’s B12 deficiency is due to malabsorption caused by poor adherence to a gluten-free diet. Long-term B12 deficiency leads to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and eventually the lateral columns, resulting in distal paraesthesia and upper motor neuron signs in the legs.
In contrast, an anterior cord lesion affects the anterolateral pathways (spinothalamic tract, spinoreticular tract, and spinomesencephalic tract), resulting in a loss of pain and temperature below the lesion, but vibration and proprioception are maintained. If the lesion is large, the corticospinal tracts are also affected, resulting in upper motor neuron signs below the lesion.
A central cord lesion involves damage to the spinothalamic tracts and the cervical cord, resulting in sensory and motor deficits that affect the upper limbs more than the lower limbs. A hemisection of the cord typically presents as Brown-Sequard syndrome.
A transverse cord lesion damages all motor and sensory pathways in the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral and contralateral sensory and motor deficits below the lesion.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical assessment unit by her family physician due to persistent pelvic pain and discomfort with radiation to her lower back, hips and groin. This has significantly impacted her day-to-day activities, family and social life. She has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and type II diabetes. She is currently 34 weeks into her second pregnancy, and ultrasound scans have reported a fairly large baby. Despite her symptoms, her bladder and bowel function remain normal. Upon assessment, her pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 123/78 mmHg, temperature is 37.5ÂșC, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and CRP is less than 5 mg/L. What is the most likely cause of her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pubic symphysis dysfunction
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is common to experience pubic symphysis dysfunction due to increased ligament laxity caused by hormonal changes. This can result in pain over the pubic symphysis that may radiate to the groins and inner thighs. It is important to differentiate this from more serious conditions such as cauda equina syndrome, which is a surgical emergency and presents with low back pain, leg pain, numbness around the anus, and loss of bowel or bladder control. While slipped lumbar vertebrae can also cause similar symptoms, it is less common than pubic symphysis dysfunction during pregnancy. Ultrasound scans can confirm a normal fetus, ruling out ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage as potential causes of the symptoms.
Understanding Symphysis Pubis Dysfunction in Pregnancy
Symphysis pubis dysfunction (SPD), also known as pelvic girdle pain, is a common condition experienced by pregnant women. It is caused by the hormone relaxin, which affects the laxity of ligaments in the pelvic girdle and other parts of the body. This increased laxity can result in pain and instability in the symphysis pubis joint and/or sacroiliac joint. Around 20% of women suffer from SPD by 33 weeks of gestation, and it can occur at any time during pregnancy or in the postnatal period.
Multiple risk factors have been identified, including a previous history of low back pain, multiparity, previous trauma to the back or pelvis, heavy workload, higher levels of stress, and job dissatisfaction. Patients typically present with discomfort and pain in the suprapubic or low back area, which may radiate to the upper thighs and perineum. Pain can range from mild to severe and is often exacerbated by walking, climbing stairs, turning in bed, standing on one leg, or weight-bearing activities.
Physical examination may reveal tenderness of the symphysis pubis and/or sacroiliac joint, pain on hip abduction, pain at the symphysis when standing on one leg, and a waddling gait. Positive Faber and active straight leg raise tests, as well as palpation of the anterior surface of the symphysis pubis, can also indicate SPD. Imaging, such as ultrasound or MRI, is necessary to confirm separation of the symphysis pubis.
Conservative management with physiotherapy is the primary treatment for SPD. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of SPD can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for pregnant women experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class Ib agent
Explanation:The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectum
Explanation:The rectum can produce potassium-rich secretions, which is why resins are given to treat hyperkalemia and why patients with villous adenoma of the rectum may experience hypokalemia.
Potassium Secretions in the GI Tract
Potassium is secreted in various parts of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The salivary glands can secrete up to 60mmol/L of potassium, while the stomach secretes only 10 mmol/L. The bile, pancreas, and small bowel also secrete potassium, with average figures of 5 mmol/L, 4-5 mmol/L, and 10 mmol/L, respectively. The rectum has the highest potassium secretion, with an average of 30 mmol/L. However, the exact composition of potassium secretions varies depending on factors such as disease, serum aldosterone levels, and serum pH.
It is important to note that gastric potassium secretions are low, and hypokalaemia (low potassium levels) may occur in vomiting. However, this is usually due to renal wasting of potassium rather than potassium loss in vomit. Understanding the different levels of potassium secretion in the GI tract can be helpful in diagnosing and treating potassium-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man is undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The aneurysm is located in a juxtarenal location and surgical access to the neck of aneurysm is difficult. Which one of the following structures may be divided to improve access?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:During juxtarenal aortic surgery, the neck of the aneurysm can cause stretching of the left renal vein, which may lead to its division. This can worsen the nephrotoxic effects of the surgery, especially when a suprarenal clamp is also used. However, intentionally dividing the Cisterna Chyli will not enhance access and can result in chyle leakage. Similarly, dividing the transverse colon is not beneficial and can increase the risk of graft infection. Lastly, dividing the SMA is unnecessary for a juxtarenal procedure.
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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