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Question 1
Correct
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Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?
Your Answer: Posterior
Explanation:The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with BPH presents to the emergency department in significant pain secondary to urinary retention. What is the location of the neuronal cell bodies that are responsible for urinary bladder discomfort sensation?
Your Answer: Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord levels L1 - L4
Correct Answer: Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord levels S2, S3 and S4
Explanation:The activation of stretch receptors with visceral afferents relayed through the pelvic nerve plexus and into the pelvic splanchnic nerves causes bladder pain. The sensory fibres of spinal nerves S2 – S4 enter the dorsal root ganglia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: It is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: It assists with supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints
Explanation:Brachioradialis is a fusiform muscle located in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Along with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus, it comprises the radial group of forearm muscles, which belong to the superficial layer of posterior forearm muscles. Although anatomically part of the posterior forearm muscles, which are known to be forearm extensors, brachioradialis’ fibre orientation enables it to rather flex the forearm, and aids in supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joint.The brachioradialis muscle originates from the upper two-thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus and the anterior surface of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. It slides over the lateral surface of the elbow joint, entering the anterolateral cubital area. The muscle fibres course inferiorly down the radial part of the anterior forearm, forming a thick tendon in approximately the middle of the forearm. This tendon then traverses the remainder of the forearm, inserting near the wrist, just proximal to the styloid process of radius.Brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (from the root values C5-C6) that stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Blood supply to the brachioradialis muscle comes from branches of the radial artery, radial recurrent artery and the radial collateral branch of the deep brachial artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 44 year old woman is brought to ED having fallen down the stairs and injured her right arm. On examination she is unable to abduct her arm normally, and has weakness of lateral rotation. She has sensory loss over the lateral aspect of her upper arm. Which of the following injuries is most likely to produce this pattern of injury:
Your Answer: Midshaft humerus fracture
Correct Answer: Surgical neck of humerus fracture
Explanation:Damage to the axillary nerve will result in loss of abduction past about 15 degrees and weakness of lateral rotation due to paralysis of the deltoid and teres minor and loss of sensation over the regimental badge area on the upper lateral arm. The axillary nerve is most likely injured in fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus due to its course where it winds around this region together with the posterior humeral circumflex vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with retrosternal central chest pain that she has been complaining about for the past two days. Upon deep inspiration and while lying flat, the pain worsens but relieved by sitting forwards. The pain radiates to both of her shoulders. The result of her ECG shows widespread concave ST-elevation and PR depression. A diagnosis of pericarditis is suspected. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the pattern of her pain?
Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardial sac and is the most common pathologic process involving the pericardium. Frequently, pericardial inflammation can be accompanied by increased fluid accumulation within the pericardial sac forming a pericardial effusion, which may be serous, hemorrhagic or purulent depending on aetiology.The classic presentation is with chest pain that is central, severe, pleuritic (worse on deep inspiration) and positional (improved by sitting up and leaning forward). The pain may also be radiating and may involve the ridges of the trapezius muscle if the phrenic nerve is inflamed as it traverses the pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral three and a half digits. You suspect carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following clinical features would you most expect to see on examination:
Your Answer: Inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
Correct Answer: Inability to touch the pad of the little finger with the thumb
Explanation:Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel will result in weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles – resulting in weakness of opposition, abduction and flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint and anaesthesia or paraesthesia over the distribution of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve (skin over the palmar surface and fingertips of the lateral three and a half digits). The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and abduction of the fingers is produced by the interossei, also innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is produced by the flexor pollicis longus, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is produced by the flexor digitorum profundus. Median nerve injury at the wrist will not affect the long flexors of the forearm as these are innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve which arises in the proximal forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a neck injury which displays the following signs:- ability to extend the wrist against gravity- paralysis of the hands, trunk, and legs- absent sensation in the fingers and medial upper arms- normal sensation over the thumbs- absent sensation in chest, abdomen, and legsWhat is the neurological level of the injury?
Your Answer: C8
Correct Answer: C6
Explanation:C1 – C4 INJURYMost severe of the spinal cord injury levels; paralysis in arms, hands, trunk and legs; patient may not be able to breathe on his or her own, cough, or control bowel or bladder movements; ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reducedC5 INJURYPerson can raise his or her arms and bend elbows; likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakenedC6 INJURYNerves affect wrist extension; paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically; should be able to bend wrists back; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakenedC7 INJURYNerves control elbow extension and some finger extension; most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shouldersC8 INJURYNerves control some hand movement; should be able to grasp and release objectsC5 – Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)C6 – Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)C7 – Elbow extensors (triceps)C8 – Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle fingerC5 – Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, arm at the patient’s side and forearm supinatedC6 – Wrist in full extensionC7 – Shoulder is neutral rotation, adducted and in 90 degrees of flexion with elbow in 45 degrees of flexionC8 –Full flexed position of the distal phalanx with the proximal finger joints stabilized in a extended position
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The 'pump handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:
Your Answer: The internal intercostal muscles elevating the ribs
Correct Answer: The anterior ends of the ribs moving upwards and forwards
Explanation:Because the anterior ends of the ribs are inferior to the posterior ends, when the ribs are elevated, the anterior end moves upwards and forwards, moving the sternum upwards and forwards in turn. This ‘pump handle’ upwards and forwards movement changes the anteroposterior (AP) dimension of the thorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 9
Correct
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The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is?
Your Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube
Explanation:Nearly 95% of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube and give rise to fimbrial, ampullary, isthmic, or interstitial tubal pregnancies. The ampulla is the most frequent site, followed by the isthmus. The remaining 5% of non tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior caesarean scar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis. Which of these blood vessels has most likely been occluded?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) occlusion is characterised by vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis. PICA occlusion causes infarction of the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis and lateral medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 11
Correct
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A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?
Your Answer: Zygomatic branch
Explanation:The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland. 1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth. 4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin. 5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Sensation to the penis is supplied by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
Correct Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.
Explanation:Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who is suspected of having meningitis. This patient, a 15-year-old female, presented to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Where should you aspirate a sample of CSF?
Your Answer: Space between the dura mater and the spinal canal
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid space
Explanation:A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the lower back’s lumbar region. A needle is inserted into the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, also known as the subarachnoid space, to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus brevis.Peroneus brevis receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation:Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 15
Correct
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CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures:
Your Answer: Arachnoid granulations
Explanation:From the subarachnoid cisterns in the subarachnoid space, CSF is reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations which protrude into the dura mater, into the dural venous sinuses and from here back into the circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Fourth cervical and fifth thoracic nerves
Correct Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves
Explanation:The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Needle thoracentesis in a patient with tension pneumothorax is performed at which anatomical landmark?
Your Answer: 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line
Correct Answer: 4-5th intercostal space mid-axillary line
Explanation:Pleural aspiration describes a procedure whereby pleural fluid or air may be aspirated via a system inserted temporarily into the pleural space. This may be for diagnostic purposes (usually removing 20–50 ml fluid) or therapeutic to relieve symptoms. In the literature it is varyingly called thoracocentesis, thoracentesis or pleural aspiration.
Cadaver studies have shown improved success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the fourth or fifth intercostal space mid-axillary line is used instead of the second intercostal space mid-clavicular line in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adult patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?
Your Answer: Vertebral artery
Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery
Explanation:Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip extension, but normal hip abduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?
Your Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old patient was brought to the ER after falling off of his skateboard. He is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. You suspect that he suffers from a supracondylar fracture. Which of the following conditions would confirm supracondylar fracture?
Your Answer: Loss of sensation over the lateral dorsum of the hand.
Correct Answer: Inability to oppose the thumb
Explanation:A supracondylar fracture is a fracture that occurs through the thin section of the distal humerus above the growth plate. A supracondylar fracture is most usually associated with median nerve injury. A medial nerve damage causes paralysis of the thenar muscles, as well as loss of thumb opposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following anatomic structures will gallstones most likely lodge into, and cause cholestasis?
Your Answer: Common bile duct
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s pouch
Explanation:Hartmann’s pouch is a diverticulum that can occur at the neck of the gallbladder. It is one of the rarest congenital anomalies of the gallbladder. Hartmann’s gallbladder pouch is a frequent but inconsistent feature of normal and pathologic human gallbladders. It is caused by adhesions between the cystic duct and the neck of the gallbladder. As a result, it is classified as a morphologic rather than an anatomic entity.There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone pattern in leads V2, V3 and V4?
Your Answer: Left circumflex artery
Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Explanation:Tombstoning ST elevation myocardial infarction can be described as a STEMI characterized by tombstoning ST-segment elevation. This myocardial infarction is associated with extensive myocardial damage, reduced left ventricle function, serious hospital complications and poor prognosis. Tombstoning ECG pattern is a notion beyond morphological difference and is associated with more serious clinical results.Studies have shown that tombstoning is more commonly found in anterior than non-anterior STEMI, thus, higher rates of left anterior descending artery disease are observed in patients with tombstoning pattern.The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:ECG Leads Location Vessel involvedV1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descendingV3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descendingV5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex arteryII, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex arteryV1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary arteryV7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.The piriformis muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Femoral nerve
Correct Answer: Nerve to piriformis
Explanation:Piriformis is innervated by the nerve to piriformis, which is a direct branch from the sacral plexus (S1 and S2).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Carbamazepine is contraindicated in which of the following:
Your Answer: Hepatic impairment
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular block
Explanation:Carbamazepine is contraindicated in:- People with known hypersensitivity to carbamazepine or structurally related drugs- People with atrioventricular block (may suppress AV conduction and ventricular automaticity)- People with a history of bone marrow depression (risk of agranulocytosis and aplastic anaemia)- People with a history of acute porphyrias- People taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (risk of serotonin syndrome)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he had bilaterally enlarged tonsils that are covered in large amounts of exudate. A diagnosis of tonsillitis was made. The lymph from the tonsils will drain to which of the following nodes?
Your Answer: Submandibular lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Deep cervical lymph nodes
Explanation:The tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissue located within the pharynx. They collectively form a ringed arrangement, known as Waldeyer’s ring: pharyngeal tonsil, 2 tubal tonsils, 2 palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsil. Lymphatic fluid from the lingual tonsil drains into the jugulodigastric and deep cervical lymph nodes.Lymphatic fluid from the pharyngeal tonsil drains into the retropharyngeal nodes (which empty into the deep cervical chain), and directly into deep cervical nodes within the parapharyngeal space.The retropharyngeal and the deep cervical lymph nodes drain the tubal tonsils.The palatine tonsils drain to the jugulodigastric node, a node of the deep cervical lymph nodes, located inferior to the angle of the mandible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 26
Correct
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A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:
Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia
Explanation:Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex. The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin:
Your Answer: Increases production of prostaglandins
Correct Answer: Cyclo-oxygenase (COX) inhibitor
Explanation:Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and the resulting inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis results in analgesic, antipyretic and to a lesser extent anti-inflammatory actions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a side effect of phenytoin:
Your Answer: Acne and hirsutism
Correct Answer: Ototoxicity
Explanation:Adverse effects of phenytoin include:Nausea and vomitingDrowsiness, lethargy, and loss of concentrationHeadache, dizziness, tremor, nystagmus and ataxiaGum enlargement or overgrowthCoarsening of facial features, acne and hirsutismSkin rashesBlood disorders
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.
Explanation:Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient had sustained a supracondylar fracture due to falling from a skateboard. The frequency of acute nerve injuries accompanying supracondylar humeral fractures ranges from 10 to 20%. The most common complication is injury to which nerve?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:According to various studies, the frequency of acute nerve damage associated with supracondylar humeral fractures in children ranges from 10% to 20%. Median nerve injury and anterior interosseous nerve injury are the most common consequences. Damage to this nerve indicated weakening or abnormal extension of the index finger’s distal interphalangeal joint and the thumb’s interphalangeal joint. The absence of sensibility is a distinguishing attribute. A surgical neck humerus fracture may cause injury to the axillary nerve. A midshaft humerus fracture might cause injury to the radial nerve. A medial epicondylar fracture might cause injury to the ulnar nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
