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Question 1
Correct
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A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and skin blistering. During the examination, the doctor observes Nikolsky's sign. The doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disease where her body's own cells are being attacked by antibodies. What is the specific target for these antibodies in her condition?
Your Answer: Desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the presence of antibodies against desmoglein 3, while Grave’s disease is associated with antibodies against TSH receptors. Cardiac myopathy is linked to antibodies against desmoglein 2, while pemphigus foliaceus is associated with antibodies against desmoglein 1. Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism is characterized by the presence of antibodies against thyroid peroxidase.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Correct Answer: Peptic ulceration
Explanation:The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.
Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.
Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.
Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A resident working in geriatrics has designed a research study.
The null hypothesis of the study (H0) is that there is no difference in the mean age of patients with dementia who receive a new medication versus those who receive a placebo. The alternative hypothesis (Ha) is that there is a difference in the average age. There are 200 patients recruited to the trial with 100 in the treatment arm and 100 in the control arm.
The doctor running the study sets a significance level (alpha) of 5%. Upon completion of the trial, the P-value for the study is computed (0.03). A value of beta is calculated as 10%. The power of the study was calculated to be 90%. A 95% confidence interval is also calculated.
What is the probability of obtaining a result by chance at least as extreme as the one actually observed, assuming the null hypothesis was true?Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man undergoes a total knee replacement for severe osteoarthritis. He is seen two weeks later for a wound check and it is found that the surgical incision is healing poorly, however it is not painful or inflamed. He has been feeling generally unwell and has had some bleeding from his gums.
What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Defective collagen synthesis
Explanation:Vitamin C plays a crucial role as a cofactor for enzymes involved in the synthesis of collagen. A man displaying symptoms of poor wound healing, capillary fragility resulting in bleeding gums, and general malaise is likely suffering from a deficiency of this vitamin. In contrast, a deficiency of vitamin B12 would cause macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and peripheral neuropathy, while a deficiency of vitamin A would lead to night blindness. Although infection can also impair wound healing and cause malaise, there is no evidence of inflammation at the wound site, and it does not explain the bleeding gums.
Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.
However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Correct
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An 71-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe back pain that started 2 hours ago. The pain is radiating from his flank to his groin and comes and goes in waves. He had a kidney stone 2 months ago. A CT scan reveals a hyperdense calculus in his left ureter. His serum calcium level is 2.1 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.6) and his urine calcium level is 9.2 mmol/24hours (normal range: 2.5-7.5). What medication is the most appropriate to reduce the risk of further renal stones?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics, specifically bendroflumethiazide, can be used to decrease calcium excretion and stone formation in patients with hypercalciuria and renal stones. The patient’s urinary calcium levels indicate hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Bumetanide and furosemide, both loop diuretics, are not effective in managing hypercalciuria and renal stones. Denosumab, an antibody used for hypercalcaemia associated with malignancy, is not used in the management of renal stones.
Management and Prevention of Renal Stones
Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.
Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.
Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male visits his GP complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia that have persisted for 4 months. He has a medical history of OCD, which was diagnosed 2 years ago. After a series of tests, the patient is diagnosed with primary polydipsia.
What would be the probable outcome of this patient's water deprivation test?Your Answer: Low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin
Correct Answer: High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient with a history of Parkinson's disease visits your clinic to discuss their medications. During their recent neurology appointment, they were advised to increase the dosage of one of their medications due to worsening symptoms, but they cannot recall which one. To aid their memory, you initiate a conversation about the medications and their effects on neurotransmitters. Which neurotransmitter is predominantly impacted in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease primarily affects dopaminergic neurons that project from the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia striatum. This is important to note as the condition is commonly treated with medications that increase dopamine levels, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter with a wide range of functions and is commonly used in medications such as antidepressants, antiemetics, and antipsychotics.
GABA primarily acts on inhibitory neurons and is important in the mechanism of drugs like benzodiazepines and barbiturates.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter found at the neuromuscular junction and has roles within the central and autonomic nervous systems. It is important in conditions like myasthenia gravis and with drugs like atropine and neostigmine.
Noradrenaline is a catecholamine with various functions in the brain and activates the sympathetic nervous system outside of the brain. It is commonly used in anaesthetics and emergency situations and is an important mediator with drugs like beta-blockers.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following characteristics is atypical for Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Pseudopolyps on colonoscopy
Explanation:Pseudopolyps manifest in ulcerative colitis as a result of extensive mucosal ulceration. The remaining patches of mucosa can resemble individual polyps.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents to the physician with recurrent respiratory infections. He reports that his uncle had similar symptoms and passed away from a 'blood condition' three years ago. On physical examination, he has conjunctival pallor, a pulse of 110/min, and respirations of 19/min. Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin level of 100 g/L, platelets of 250 * 109/L, WBC of 7 * 109/L, a reticulocyte count of 6%, and an MCV of 84 fL. A peripheral smear shows numerous sickle-shaped red blood cells and Howell-jolly bodies. What additional investigation would be useful in confirming the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Coombs test
Correct Answer: Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Sickle cell disease can be definitively diagnosed through haemoglobin electrophoresis. In the case of a patient experiencing an acute haemolytic episode due to sickle cell disease, normocytic anaemia with a high reticulocyte count and the presence of Howell jolly bodies indicate hyposplenism. A peripheral smear showing sickle cells is also highly indicative of sickle cell disease, which is an autosomal recessive condition that may be present in other family members.
The osmotic fragility test is used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis by exposing red blood cells to varying osmolarity and observing their fragility. Plasma folate deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia, but this is not the case in sickle cell disease. Flow cytometry is not useful in diagnosing sickle cell disease, but it can be used to classify leukemias and diagnose paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria.
If an autoimmune cause is suspected, a Coombs test can be performed to confirm the pathogenesis, as in the case of haemolytic disease of the newborn. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is one of the definitive tests for diagnosing sickle cell trait and disease, as it shows a decrease in normal haemoglobin A and the presence of haemoglobin S. Genetic analysis can also confirm the diagnosis.
Understanding Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when an abnormal haemoglobin chain, known as HbS, is synthesized due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in people of African descent, as the heterozygous condition offers some protection against malaria. In the UK, around 10% of Afro-Caribbean individuals are carriers of HbS. Symptoms in homozygotes typically do not develop until 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules take over from fetal haemoglobin.
The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerize and sickle in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and can cause haemolysis, block small blood vessels, and lead to infarction.
To diagnose sickle-cell anaemia, haemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test. It is essential to understand the pathophysiology and symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia to provide appropriate care and management for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 10
Correct
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It is 11:30am and you are halfway through your shift. A 42-year-old male patient has been kept NBM for an endoscopy scheduled for later in the day. He expresses his hunger and experiences a drop in blood pressure. You suddenly remember that you forgot to submit the booking form. What steps should you take now?
Your Answer: Apologise to the lady, explained what happened and book her in for tomorrow
Explanation:According to the GMC, it is essential to be transparent with patients in case of any mishap. In the event of a patient experiencing harm or distress under your care, it is necessary to take corrective measures (if possible), express regret, and provide a comprehensive and timely explanation of the situation, including the potential short-term and long-term consequences.
Responding to Patient Complaints
When a patient makes a complaint, it is important for healthcare professionals to respond appropriately and with an open mind. Complaints may come in various forms, such as verbal complaints, informal or formal written complaints addressed to the doctor, complaints addressed to a managing body like a hospital trust or GP practice, or even complaints to the General Medical Council (GMC). However, it is important to note that not all complaints may be warranted or have a basis, and doctors may need to provide a formal reply to give their account of what happened.
To ensure that patients feel heard and their concerns are addressed, healthcare professionals must respond to complaints in a timely and respectful manner. This may involve acknowledging the complaint, investigating the issue, and providing a clear and concise response. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help to maintain trust and confidence in the healthcare system and improve patient satisfaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy visits his doctor with a complaint of dark brown urine for the past 2 days. He mentions feeling unwell for the past week with a fever and a sore throat. The doctor conducts a urinalysis and finds the following results:
- Glucose: Negative
- Ketones: Negative
- Blood: Positive
- Protein: Negative
- Leucocytes: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
The doctor explains to the patient that he likely had an upper respiratory tract infection last week. The most commonly produced immunoglobulin in his body has combined with infection cells and deposited in his kidneys, causing blood in his urine.
What type of immunoglobulin is responsible for this patient's condition, based on the given information?Your Answer: IgA
Explanation:The most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body is IgA, which is also associated with Berger’s disease or IgA nephropathy. This condition is often characterized by macroscopic haematuria following an upper respiratory tract strep infection, with urinalysis revealing blood and sometimes protein. IgA is frequently involved in type 3 immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity reactions, along with IgG.
IgD’s specific role in immunology is still being studied, but it is believed to activate B cells. Meanwhile, IgE is primarily known for its role in preventing parasites, although it is also associated with type 1 hypersensitivity reactions like asthma, eczema, and hay-fever. IgG, on the other hand, is the immunoglobulin with the highest concentration in the blood, but it is not produced as much as IgA and is not implicated in Berger’s disease.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a cause of increased anion gap acidosis?
Your Answer: Uraemia
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide
Explanation:Causes of anion gap acidosis can be remembered using the acronym MUDPILES, which stands for Methanol, Uraemia, DKA/AKA, Paraldehyde/phenformin, Iron/INH, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, and Salicylates.
Disorders of Acid-Base Balance
The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old male has been referred to the clinic due to a family history of colorectal cancer. Genetic testing revealed a mutation of the APC gene, and a colonoscopy is recommended. What is the probable outcome of the procedure?
Your Answer: Multiple colonic adenomas
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis coli is characterized by the presence of multiple colonic adenomas, which are caused by mutations in the APC gene.
Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.
MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.
Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.
HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden dizziness and palpitations. His medical history reveals that he had infectious diarrhea a week ago and was prescribed a 10-day course of erythromycin. Upon examination, an ECG confirms fast atrial fibrillation. The physician decides to use amiodarone to convert the patient into sinus rhythm. What is one potential risk associated with the use of amiodarone in this patient?
Your Answer: Orange discoloration of body fluids
Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmias
Explanation:The risk of ventricular arrhythmias is increased when amiodarone and erythromycin are used together due to their ability to prolong the QT interval. Manufacturers advise against using multiple drugs that prolong QT interval to avoid this risk. WPW syndrome is a congenital condition that involves abnormal conductive cardiac tissue and can lead to reentrant tachycardia circuit in association with SVT. Amiodarone can cause a slate-grey appearance of the skin, while drugs like rifampicin can cause orange discoloration of body fluids. COPD is associated with multifocal atrial tachycardia.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is hospitalized for a COPD exacerbation. Upon admission, his SpO2 is 72% and blood analysis reveals lactic acidosis. What is the rate-limiting enzyme responsible for this process?
Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Phosphofructokinase (PFK1)
Explanation:The enzyme that limits the rate of glycolysis is phosphofructokinase (PFK1). In cases of hypoxia, the end product of glycolysis, pyruvate, can be utilized in anaerobic respiration. However, if oxygen is available, pyruvate can enter the TCA cycle for aerobic respiration, which generates more energy for the cell. Cholesterol synthesis is limited by HMG-CoA reductase, while gluconeogenesis is limited by fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. The rate limiting enzyme for glycogenesis is glycogen synthase.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A saturation curve is created to demonstrate the impact of cyanide on the function of cytochrome oxidase. As a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase, what will be the effect of cyanide on the enzyme's Km value?
Your Answer: Decrease Km if Vmax changes
Correct Answer: No effect on Km
Explanation:Enzyme kinetics is the study of how enzymes catalyze chemical reactions. Catalysts increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed or altering the position of equilibrium between substrates and products. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions display saturation kinetics, meaning that there is not a linear response to increasing levels of substrate. Vmax is the maximum rate of the catalyzed reaction, while Km is the concentration of substrate that leads to half-maximal velocity. Enzymes with a low Km have a high affinity for their substrate. The Michaelis-Menten model of a single substrate reaction demonstrates the saturation curve for an enzyme, showing the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate. Linear plots of the Michaelis-Menten model are used to estimate Vmax. The Lineweaver-Burk plot of kinetic data shows how the y-intercept equals 1/Vmax, and as the y-intercept increases, Vmax decreases. There are three types of inhibitors: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Each type has a different effect on Vmax and Km. Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active binding site, while non-competitive inhibitors bind outside the enzyme’s active binding site. Uncompetitive inhibitors are rare and bind to the enzyme, enhancing the binding of substrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A new screening test has been developed for detecting dementia in elderly patients. This was tested on a cohort of 500 patients above the age of 65. 150 of these 500 patients have an existing diagnosis of dementia. Amongst these patients, 120 of them were tested positive using this new screening test. Amongst the remaining patients who do not have dementia, 50 of them were found to be positive using the new screening test.
What is the specificity of this new screening test?Your Answer: 60%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:The specificity of the new screening test is calculated as the ratio of true negative results to the total number of true negative and false positive results, which is 80%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is admitted to the geriatric ward following a recent fall. As the on-call psychiatrist, you have been asked to review his medication. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, major depression, diverticulosis, and recurrent falls. Despite this, he reports feeling well. The patient's current medication list includes paracetamol, aspirin, phenelzine, codeine, naproxen, fluoxetine, lactulose, and senna.
What changes, if any, may need to be made to his medication regimen?Your Answer: Stop senna
Correct Answer: Remove phenelzine
Explanation:Due to the increased risk of central serotonin syndrome, fluoxetine should not be prescribed alongside phenelzine, a non-selective and irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
As the patient is not experiencing nausea or vomiting, there is no need to prescribe metoclopramide. Additionally, metoclopramide is not suitable for this patient with Parkinson’s disease as it can worsen their symptoms as a dopamine antagonist.
The patient’s senna should not be discontinued as it is likely necessary for regular bowel movements due to their history of diverticulosis. Lactulose may also be needed for this purpose.
As the patient is not reporting any pain, there is no need to increase their pain relief at this time.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of pain in her left hand. She reports experiencing occasional pins and needles in her left thumb and index fingers on the palm of her hand for the past two months. The pain is more severe at night and sometimes prevents her from sleeping.
Which nerve is responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The patient is experiencing paraesthesia (pins and needles) and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. This is likely due to nerve compression, specifically the median nerve, which supplies sensation to the palmar aspect of the lateral 3½ fingers.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left-sided chest pain following a fall from a ladder while doing some home repairs. During a chest X-ray, it is discovered that he has a cervical rib, which increases his risk of developing thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS).
What is the most precise information to provide to the patient regarding this condition?Your Answer: It is associated with breathing difficulties
Correct Answer: It involves compression of the vessels and/or nerves that supply his arm
Explanation:Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition where the brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein are compressed at the thoracic outlet. Those with cervical ribs are more likely to develop TOS.
TOS does not impact the lungs, so breathing problems or pneumothorax are not a concern for patients.
Regardless of which structure is affected, TOS typically causes pain in the arm rather than the shoulder.
If the thoracic duct becomes blocked, usually due to cancer, an enlarged left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow node) may occur.
Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
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What is the name of the protozoal infection that results in chronic diarrhoea, bloating, and weight loss, and is treated with metronidazole?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:Protozoan Infections of the Gastrointestinal Tract
Giardiasis is a gastrointestinal condition caused by the ingestion of water contaminated with cysts of the protozoan Giardia lamblia. This protozoan can exist in two forms, an inactive cyst form used for transmission and an active trophozoite form. Once ingested, Giardia invades the duodenal enterocytes and resides there, occasionally shedding cysts into the stool. The symptoms of giardiasis can mimic many other gastrointestinal conditions, including Coeliac disease, and may only be diagnosed by biopsy during endoscopy. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.
Cryptosporidium is another protozoan that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but only in immunocompromised individuals. Entamoeba histolytica, on the other hand, causes colitis with bloody diarrhoea and can lead to liver abscesses if it invades through to the portal vein. Treatment for Entamoeba histolytica involves the use of metronidazole and iodoquinol to clear colonisation in the liver.
Schistosoma species are not protozoa, but rather helminths that cause schistosomiasis. This condition can manifest in various ways, including intestinal, liver, and pulmonary symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 22
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A 23-year-old woman presents with clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism and is diagnosed with Graves disease. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of this condition?
Your Answer: Formation of IgG antibodies to the TSH receptors on the thyroid gland
Explanation:Graves disease typically results in the formation of IgG antibodies that target the TSH receptors located on the thyroid gland, leading to a significant decrease in TSH levels.
Thyroid Hormones and LATS in Graves Disease
Thyroid hormones are produced by the thyroid gland and include triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4), with T3 being the major hormone active in target cells. The synthesis and secretion of these hormones involves the active concentration of iodide by the thyroid, which is then oxidized and iodinated by peroxidase in the follicular cells. This process is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which is released by the pituitary gland. The normal thyroid has approximately three months’ worth of reserves of thyroid hormones.
In Graves disease, patients develop IgG antibodies to the TSH receptors on the thyroid gland. This results in chronic and long-term stimulation of the gland with the release of thyroid hormones. As a result, individuals with Graves disease typically have raised thyroid hormones and low TSH levels. It is important to check for thyroid receptor autoantibodies in individuals presenting with hyperthyroidism, as they are present in up to 85% of cases. This condition is known as LATS (long-acting thyroid stimulator) and can lead to a range of symptoms and complications if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 23
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A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, is admitted to the emergency obstetric assessment unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes at 31 weeks gestation. Her blood results reveal leukocytosis and an elevated C-reactive protein level. The consultant obstetrician discusses the possibility of immediate delivery with the patient. However, the mother expresses her worries about premature birth and the potential complications that may arise.
What is a known complication of premature birth?Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Necrotising enterocolitis is more likely to occur in infants who are born prematurely. However, premature birth does not increase the risk of haemolytic disease of the newborn, Turner’s syndrome, or transient tachypnoea of the newborn. The latter is more common in infants delivered by Caesarian section and is associated with factors such as male gender, umbilical cord prolapse, use of pain control or anaesthesia during labour, and maternal diabetes.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterised by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of key indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an abdominal x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, air may even be visible outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
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A 55-year-old man with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 has been experiencing indigestion for a long time. He recently had an endoscopy, during which biopsy samples of his oesophagus were taken. The pathology report revealed abnormal columnar epithelium in the distal samples. Can you identify the best answer that describes this adaptive cellular response to injury?
Your Answer: Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation:There are four adaptive cellular responses to injury: atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and metaplasia. Metaplasia is the reversible change of one fully differentiated cell type to another, usually in response to irritation. Examples include Barrett’s esophagus, bronchoalveolar epithelium undergoing squamous metaplasia due to cigarette smoke, and urinary bladder transitional epithelium undergoing squamous metaplasia due to a urinary calculi. Atrophy refers to a loss of cells, hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size, and hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell number. Apoptosis is a specialized form of programmed cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance. She reports experiencing painful episodes in her fingers for the past month, which turn white and then red. As a gardener, she requires a high level of manual dexterity for her job. The symptoms subside after she finishes her shift.
What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Exaggerated vasoconstriction
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest Raynaud’s disease, which is characterized by an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response to the cold in the digital and cutaneous arteries. As the patient is young and has no history or features of an underlying rheumatological disease, it is more likely to be primary Raynaud’s disease rather than Raynaud’s phenomenon. While a blood clot or rheumatoid arthritis can also cause similar symptoms, the patient’s age and lack of relevant history make these less likely. Carpal tunnel syndrome and Cushing’s disease are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s hand pain.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started 3 weeks ago and is localised to the back of the head. He rates it 8/10 on a pain scale and reports that it has gradually become worse. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
Unfortunately, the patient passes away after suffering a brainstem stroke.
During the autopsy, a vertebral artery dissection is discovered at the point of entry into the cranial cavity.
Where is this location?Your Answer: Foramen spinosum
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity.
Other foramina and their corresponding arteries include the stylomastoid foramen for the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch), the foramen ovale for the accessory meningeal artery, and the foramen spinosum for the middle meningeal artery.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has presented with a complicated urinary tract infection. She has been treated with the most appropriate antibiotic for 72-hours now and there is no improvement.
What is the appropriate action to take regarding an ultrasound scan?Your Answer: He will not need an ultrasound scan. He should have a urine sample taking for microscopy
Correct Answer: He will need an ultrasound scan during the course of the infection
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, an ultrasound scan should be performed on all children who present with a UTI and abnormal features during the acute phase of the infection. This is particularly important in cases of complicated UTIs, where there is no improvement in symptoms after 72 hours of appropriate treatment. It is crucial to perform the ultrasound scan during the infection rather than waiting for six weeks, as there could be underlying issues that need to be addressed. It is important to note that the need for an ultrasound scan should not compromise the need for further urine sampling or a change in antibiotics. Additionally, an ultrasound scan is a non-invasive procedure that poses no direct risk of infection and will not exacerbate the UTI.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.
Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteral reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
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A 33-year-old individual presents to the emergency department in an intoxicated state after a night of drinking. Although there are no immediate medical concerns, the patient is visibly under the influence of alcohol, exhibiting unsteady gait, reduced social inhibition, and mild slurring of speech. Additionally, the patient is observed to be urinating frequently.
What is the probable mechanism behind the increased frequency of urination in this patient?Your Answer: Suppression of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary gland
Explanation:Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 29
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A nursing student is concerned after hearing a voice calling her name while drifting off to sleep. She has no history of hearing voices and denies any symptoms of psychosis. There is no evidence of substance abuse or alcohol misuse.
What is the probable diagnosis for her encounter?Your Answer: Functional hallucination
Correct Answer: Hypnagogic hallucination
Explanation:Hypnagogic and Hypnopompic Hallucinations
Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are common experiences that have been known since ancient times. Hypnagogic hallucinations occur when falling asleep, while hypnopompic hallucinations occur when waking up in the morning and falling asleep again. These hallucinations are mostly auditory in nature, with individuals typically hearing their name being called. However, they can also occur in other modalities such as vision, smell, and touch.
It is important to note that hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations differ from illusions and elementary hallucinations. An illusion is the misperception of an actual stimulus, while an elementary hallucination is a simple noise such as knocking or tapping. On the other hand, a functional hallucination is triggered by a stimulus in the same modality. For example, hearing a doorbell may cause the individual to hear a voice.
the different types of hallucinations can help individuals recognize and cope with their experiences. It is also important to seek medical attention if these hallucinations become frequent or interfere with daily life. By these phenomena, individuals can better navigate their experiences and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is linked to inadequate wound healing?
Your Answer: Patients taking carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Jaundice
Explanation:A mnemonic to recall the factors that impact wound healing is DID NOT HEAL. This stands for Diabetes, Infection, Irradiation, Drugs (such as steroids and chemotherapy), Nutritional deficiencies (specifically vitamin A, C, and zinc, as well as manganese), Neoplasia, Object (foreign material), Tissue necrosis, Hypoxia, Excess tension on wound, Another wound, and Low temperature or Liver jaundice.
The Stages of Wound Healing and Common Problems with Scars
Wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, including haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling. During haemostasis, the body forms a clot to stop bleeding. Inflammation occurs next, where immune cells migrate to the wound and release growth factors to stimulate the production of new tissue. Regeneration involves the formation of new blood vessels and the production of collagen to rebuild the damaged tissue. Finally, during remodeling, the body remodels the new tissue to form a scar.
However, several factors can affect the wound healing process, including vascular disease, shock, sepsis, and jaundice. Additionally, some scars may develop problems, such as hypertrophic scars, which contain excessive amounts of collagen within the scar and may develop contractures. Keloid scars are another type of problematic scar that extends beyond the boundaries of the original injury and does not regress over time.
Several drugs can also impair wound healing, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, immunosuppressive agents, and anti-neoplastic drugs. Closure of the wound can occur through delayed primary closure or secondary closure, depending on the timing of the closure and the presence of granulation tissue.
In summary, wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, and several factors can affect the process and lead to problematic scars. Understanding the stages of wound healing and common problems with scars can help healthcare professionals provide better care for patients with wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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