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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man visited his doctor with complaints of weakness in both legs...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visited his doctor with complaints of weakness in both legs that have been present for the past two months. Initially, he attributed it to his age, but he feels that it is getting worse. The man has difficulty standing up from a seated position, but his arms and shoulders feel fine. He also noticed that the weakness improves slightly when he keeps walking. The patient denies any eye-related symptoms or drooping of the eyelids. According to the patient's wife, he has lost a lot of weight recently despite not dieting or engaging in physical activity. The patient confirms this but says that he feels fine except for a dry cough that has been persistent. The patient has a medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and a smoking history of 40 pack-years. During the examination, the doctor observed slightly decreased air entry on the right side. What is the most likely mechanism underlying this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: CD8 positive T-cells-mediated inflammation of the endomysium

      Correct Answer: Antibodies directed towards presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, the two most likely diagnoses are polymyositis and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS), both of which involve weakness in the proximal muscles. However, the patient’s history of smoking, unintentional weight loss, and recent cough suggest a possible diagnosis of lung cancer, particularly small-cell lung cancer which can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome resulting in muscle weakness due to antibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. Unlike myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness in LEMS improves with repetitive use. Dermatomyositis is characterized by CD4 positive T-cells-mediated inflammation of the perimysium and skin symptoms such as a SLE-like malar rash and periorbital rash. Botulism, caused by ingestion of the toxin from Clostridium botulinum, results in dyspnea, dysarthria, dysphagia, and diplopia. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, is a neuromuscular junction disorder that causes muscle weakness with repetitive use and is associated with thymoma.

      Paraneoplastic Neurological Syndromes and their Associated Antibodies

      Paraneoplastic neurological syndromes are a group of disorders that occur in cancer patients and are caused by an immune response to the tumor. One such syndrome is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is commonly seen in small cell lung cancer patients. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic features such as dry mouth and impotence. The antibody responsible for this syndrome is directed against voltage-gated calcium channels and has similar features to myasthenia gravis.

      Other paraneoplastic neurological syndromes may be associated with detectable antibodies as well. For example, anti-Hu antibodies are associated with small cell lung cancer and can cause painful sensory neuropathy, cerebellar syndromes, and encephalitis. Anti-Yo antibodies are associated with ovarian and breast cancer and can cause a cerebellar syndrome. Anti-Ri antibodies are associated with small cell lung cancer and can cause retinal degeneration.

      In summary, paraneoplastic neurological syndromes are a group of disorders that occur in cancer patients and are caused by an immune response to the tumor. These syndromes can be associated with detectable antibodies, which can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      88.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following processes enables phagocytosis to occur? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following processes enables phagocytosis to occur?

      Your Answer: Opsonisation

      Explanation:

      Phagocytosis is facilitated by opsonisation, which involves coating the micro-organism with antibody, C3b, and specific acute phase proteins. This leads to an increase in phagocytic cell surface receptors on macrophages and neutrophils, which is mediated by pro-inflammatory cytokines. As a result, these cells are able to engulf the micro-organism.

      Phagocytosis: The Process of Cell Ingestion

      Phagocytosis is the process by which cells ingest foreign materials or pathogens. The first step in this process is opsonisation, where the organism is coated by an antibody. The second step is adhesion to the cell surface, followed by pseudopodial extension to form a phagocytic vacuole. Finally, lysosomes fuse with the vacuole and degrade its contents.

      Phagocytosis is an essential process for the immune system to fight off infections and diseases. It is a complex process that involves multiple steps, including opsonisation, adhesion, and pseudopodial extension. The end result is the degradation of the foreign material or pathogen by lysosomes. Understanding the process of phagocytosis is crucial for developing treatments for diseases that involve the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man with a history of Crohn's disease complains of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of Crohn's disease complains of fatigue and a burning sensation in his mouth. His blood work shows:

      Hb 11.2 g/dl
      MCV 110 fl
      Plt 190 * 10^9/l
      WBC 6.2 * 10^9/l

      What could be the possible reason for these symptoms and abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Vitamin E deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a history of gastrectomy and is experiencing macrocytic anaemia, it is likely that they are suffering from B12 deficiency.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following an injury sustained...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following an injury sustained during his weightlifting routine. He is an avid powerlifter and his training involves quick, forceful movements with heavy weights.

      During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in knee flexion and some localized swelling in the knee area. The doctor suspects a possible detachment of the biceps femoris from its insertion site and requests an orthopedic consultation.

      Can you identify the location of the insertion site for the long and short head of the biceps femoris?

      Your Answer: Medial surface of proximal tibia

      Correct Answer: Head of the fibula

      Explanation:

      The fibular head serves as the insertion point for both the long and short head of the biceps femoris muscle.

      Muscle Insertion Site
      Sartorius Medial surface of the proximal tibia
      Rectus femoris Tibial tuberosity
      Biceps femoris Fibular head
      Semimembranosus Medial tibial condyle
      Pectineus

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A nine-year-old tumbles from the climbing equipment at the park and is taken...

    Correct

    • A nine-year-old tumbles from the climbing equipment at the park and is taken to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a supracondylar fracture of the left distal humerus. During the examination, the child exhibits weakened finger flexion in the left hand, inability to perform opposition of the left thumb and little finger, and altered sensation over the lateral aspect of the palm and first three digits. Can you identify the location of the damaged structure in the antecubital fossa?

      Your Answer: Medial to the brachial artery

      Explanation:

      The cubital fossa contains the following structures in order from lateral to medial: radial nerve, brachial tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve. In this case, the damaged nerve is the median nerve, which is located most medially in the cubital fossa, next to the brachial artery.

      In the antecubital fossa, the radial nerve is located deep and laterally, next to the biceps tendon. The biceps tendon serves as a marker for finding the brachial artery, which is located medially to it.

      It is incorrect to say that there is a nerve located between the biceps tendon and the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa.

      The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.

      There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.

      The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      159.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman in her mid-thirties, who is HIV positive, seeks advice on starting...

    Correct

    • A woman in her mid-thirties, who is HIV positive, seeks advice on starting a family. She expresses her desire to become pregnant but is concerned about the risk of transmitting the virus to her baby. What guidance should be provided to her?

      Your Answer: With treatment and correct advice, the rate of vertical transmission of HIV is 2%

      Explanation:

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man was admitted to the surgical team for an elective repair...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man was admitted to the surgical team for an elective repair of an inguinal hernia. Before his surgery, he was prescribed subcutaneous enoxaparin injections for the prevention of venous thromboembolism. What is the mode of action of enoxaparin?

      Your Answer: Binds to antithrombin III and inactivates Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Enoxaparin, a subcutaneously administered LMWH, activates antithrombin III to mainly inhibit Factor Xa. In contrast, unfractionated heparin activates antithrombin III to inhibit both Factors Xa and IIa. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K, while aspirin inhibits the production of thromboxane A2.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man has been discharged after an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy and his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been discharged after an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy and his GP is reviewing his discharge letter. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin to reduce the risk of stroke. The GP notices an abnormality in the coagulation screen that was performed before surgery. The discharge letter confirms that this is expected with warfarin use.

      What is the most likely abnormality on this patient's coagulation blood results?

      Reference ranges:
      International normalised ratio (INR) 0.9-1.2
      Prothrombin time (PT) 10-14 secs

      Your Answer: PT 13 secs, INR 1

      Correct Answer: PT 21 secs, INR 2.5

      Explanation:

      Warfarin causes an increase in prothrombin-time (PT) and international normalised ratio (INR) by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. An increase in PT will cause an increase in INR, and a decrease in PT and INR is a prothrombotic state.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-years-old man with a history of gout and seasonal allergies visits his...

    Correct

    • A 67-years-old man with a history of gout and seasonal allergies visits his primary care physician. He reports experiencing a burning sensation on the left side of his chest for the past three days, which has been disrupting his sleep. He has also had a fever for the last three days.

      During the examination, the physician observes erythema and occasional vesicles on the left side of the patient's chest. The affected area extends from above his nipple to under his axilla.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Shingles

      Explanation:

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman has recently begun her career as a graphic designer. Her...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman has recently begun her career as a graphic designer. Her partner has observed that she spends extensive amounts of time working on what she believes will be the most innovative design project ever created that will transform the industry. Despite acknowledging that she may not succeed, she remains highly motivated. How would you describe her thought process?

      Your Answer: Overvalued idea

      Explanation:

      Overvalued Ideas

      An overvalued idea is a comprehensible and acceptable belief that dominates a person’s life and preoccupies their mind. It is not a delusion, and the person acknowledges the possibility that their belief may or may not be true. However, they pursue their aim with an overwhelming desire. Despite the intensity of their belief, the person remains functioning, and there is no evidence of psychotic symptoms.

      According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV), an overvalued idea is an unreasonable and sustained belief that is maintained with less than delusional intensity. This means that the person is aware that their belief may not be accepted by others in their culture or subculture.

      In summary, an overvalued idea is a strong belief that is not firmly fixed as true, but still dominates a person’s life. It is not a delusion, and the person remains functioning. overvalued ideas is important in distinguishing them from delusions and other mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/3) 67%
Reproductive System (1/1) 100%
General Principles (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed