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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male visits his GP for an insurance medical. The GP observes that the patient has rough facial features, an enlarged tongue, and greasy skin. The patient is also experiencing profuse sweating. Which hormone excess is likely to be accountable for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Correct Answer: Growth hormone
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition that results from an excess of growth hormone, which can cause a person to have a coarse facial appearance, a larger tongue, and excessive sweating and oily skin. This condition is often caused by a pituitary adenoma.
If a person has an excess of insulin, they may experience hypoglycemia and confusion. This can occur in cases of factitious illness, over-administration of insulin in diabetics, and insulinomas (neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors).
An excess of glucagon can cause hyperglycemia. Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas and is often elevated in cases of glucagonomas (neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors).
An excess of thyroid-stimulating hormone can be seen in cases of primary hypothyroidism and secondary hyperthyroidism.
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, in some cases, it can be caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumors, such as those found in the pancreas. The condition is associated with a number of physical features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Other features include a large tongue, prognathism, interdental spaces, excessive sweating, and oily skin, which are caused by sweat gland hypertrophy. In some cases, patients may also experience hypopituitarism, headaches, bitemporal hemianopia, and raised prolactin levels, which can lead to galactorrhea. Approximately 6% of patients with acromegaly also have MEN-1.
Complications associated with acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (which affects over 10% of patients), cardiomyopathy, and colorectal cancer. It is important to diagnose and treat acromegaly early to prevent these complications from developing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of palpitations and dizziness that started a day ago. He has been experiencing weakness and fatigue for the past month. During the physical examination, you observe generalized hypotonia and hyporeflexia. After conducting an ECG, you notice indications of hypokalemia. What is an ECG manifestation of hypokalemia?
Your Answer: Broad QRS complexes
Correct Answer: Prominent U waves
Explanation:Hypokalaemia can be identified by the presence of U waves on an ECG. Other ECG signs of hypokalaemia include small or absent P waves, tall tented T waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia can be identified by ECG signs such as a long PR interval and a sine wave pattern, as well as small or absent P waves, tall tented T waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. A prolonged PR interval may be found in both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia, while a short PR interval suggests pre-excitation or an AV nodal rhythm. Abnormalities in serum potassium are often discovered incidentally, but symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and rarely paralysis. If a patient presents with palpitations and light-headedness, along with a history of weakness and fatigue, and examination findings of hypotonia and hyporeflexia, hypokalaemia should be considered as a possible cause.
Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient complains of lower abdominal pain and dysuria for the past 5 days. Upon examination, her GP orders cultures which reveal visible organism growth on Thayer-Martin agar plate. What is the probable pathogen responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer. The growth of this organism on Thayer-Martin agar, a heated blood agar plate that inhibits the growth of contaminating bacteria and fungi, is indicative of a possible infection. Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are all potential causes of urinary symptoms, but they are not cultured using Thayer-Martin agar. Escherichia coli is cultured using MacConkey’s agar, while Proteus mirabilis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are cultured using other types of agar.
Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department with concerns of pain in his right foot. Upon examination, you observe a slow capillary refill and a cold right foot. The patient is unable to move his toes, and the foot is tender. You can detect a pulse behind his medial malleolus and in his popliteal fossa, but there are no pulses in his foot. Which artery is likely affected in this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Fibular
Correct Answer: Anterior tibial
Explanation:The dorsalis pedis artery in the foot is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery. However, in a patient presenting with acute limb ischemia and an absent dorsalis pedis artery pulse, it is likely that the anterior tibial artery is occluded. This can cause severe ischemia, as evidenced by a cold and tender foot with decreased motor function. The presence of a palpable popliteal pulse suggests that the femoral artery is not occluded. Occlusion of the fibular artery would not typically result in an absent dorsalis pedis pulse, while occlusion of the posterior tibial artery would result in no pulse present posterior to the medial malleolus, where this artery runs.
The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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During a block dissection of the thigh, the sartorius muscle is identified. What is the nerve supply to this muscle?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Anterior division of the femoral nerve
Explanation:The superficial femoral nerve primarily provides cutaneous branches, but it also innervates the sartorius muscle.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic with her husband after attempting a dehydration detox. She appears confused and drowsy, and reports having vomited three times in the past 12 hours without passing urine. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis, anxiety, hypothyroidism, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic lower back pain.
During the examination, you observe dry mucous membranes, a pulse rate of 112/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, a blood pressure of 97/65 mmHg, a temperature of 37.1ºC, and O2 saturation of 98%.
Given the patient's condition, you suspect that she requires immediate hospital care and refer her to the emergency department.
What medication should be stopped immediately for this patient?Your Answer: Losartan
Explanation:In cases of AKI, it is recommended to discontinue the use of angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as Losartan as they can worsen renal function by reducing renal perfusion. This is because angiotensin II plays a role in constricting systemic blood vessels and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus, which increases GFR. Blocking angiotensin II can lead to a drop in systemic blood pressure and dilation of the efferent glomerular arteriole, which can exacerbate kidney impairment.
Cetirizine is not the most important medication to discontinue in AKI, as it is a non-sedating antihistamine and is unlikely to be a major cause of drowsiness. Diazepam may be contributing to drowsiness and is excreted in the urine, but sudden discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Levothyroxine does not need to be stopped in AKI as thyroid hormones are primarily metabolized in the liver and are not considered high risk in renal impairment.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.
Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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How can cardiac output be defined?
Your Answer: The rate at which the ventricle beat per minute
Correct Answer: The amount of blood ejected from the heart in one minute
Explanation:Cardiac Output
Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart by either ventricle, typically the left ventricle, in one minute. This is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume, which is the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle in one contraction, by the heart rate, which is the frequency of the cardiac cycle. At rest, the typical adult has a cardiac output of approximately 5 liters per minute. However, during extreme exercise, the cardiac output can increase up to 6 times due to the increased heart rate and need for more blood circulation throughout the body.
The heart rate is the speed at which the heart beats per minute, while the stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from the heart in one beat or contraction. The total peripheral resistance is the force that the ventricles must work against to pump an adequate volume of blood around the body. cardiac output is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue. Upon further inquiry, the doctor learns that she has been experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 8 months. To investigate further, the doctor orders a complete blood count and iron level test. What is the typical lifespan of a red blood cell?
Your Answer: 110 days
Correct Answer: 120 days
Explanation:The bone marrow in large bones is responsible for the production of human red blood cells through erythropoiesis. Stem cells undergo a 7-day development process to become red blood cells, which then circulate for around 120 days before being eliminated by the spleen. Eryptosis, or programmed red cell death, occurs at the same rate as production.
However, certain diseases can increase the rate of eryptosis, resulting in a shorter lifespan for red blood cells. These diseases include haemolytic uraemic syndrome, sepsis, malaria, sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, iron deficiency, and Wilson’s disease.
Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.
The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.
The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the primary cell-cell interaction necessary for the development of granulomas?
Your Answer: Th1 CD4+ T cell and macrophages
Explanation:The Formation of Granulomas
Granulomas are formed when bacteria that cannot be killed are ingested by macrophages. These macrophages, which are filled with resistant bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Mycobacterium leprae, receive assistance from Th1 CD4+ T cells in the form of IFN-gamma. The macrophage then releases IL-12 to maintain its association with the T cell, and IFN-gamma helps activate the macrophage’s killing mechanisms. However, if this fails to clear the bacteria, the response moves to a more protective role. Fibroblasts seal off the area, forming a capsule that may become calcified. In TB infection, it is common for the macrophages within to undergo necrosis.
FDC and B cells interact to produce high-affinity antibody, while NK cells and macrophages do not directly interact with any particular response. Th2 CD4+ T cells provide stimulatory signals to B cells for the production of antibody. Th2 CD4+ T cells and CD8+ T cells do not directly interact for any specific response. Th1 CD4+ cells are part of the antiviral response, along with CD8+ T cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Mr Stent is a 56-year-old man who has been scheduled for a laparoscopic right hemicolectomy. However, he has several comorbidities that were discovered during the anaesthetic clinic. These include constipation, a latex allergy, coronary artery disease, moderately raised intracranial pressure due to a benign space occupying brain tumour, and a protein C deficiency. Considering his medical history, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to laparoscopic surgery?
Your Answer: Coronary artery disease
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Laparoscopic surgery should not be performed in patients with significantly raised intracranial pressure. It is important to understand the indications, complications, and contraindications of both laparoscopic and open surgery. Thrombophilia can be managed with anticoagulation, constipation is not a contraindication but may increase the risk of bowel perforation, a patient with a latex allergy should have all latex equipment removed and the theatre cleaned, and a patient with coronary artery disease may be at higher risk during anaesthesia but this will be assessed before surgery in the anaesthetics clinic.
Risks and Complications of Laparoscopy
Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that involves the insertion of a small camera and instruments through small incisions in the abdomen. While it is generally considered safe, there are some risks and complications associated with the procedure.
One of the general risks of laparoscopy is the use of anaesthetic, which can cause complications such as allergic reactions or breathing difficulties. Additionally, some patients may experience a vasovagal reaction, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate in response to abdominal distension.
Another potential complication of laparoscopy is extra-peritoneal gas insufflation, which can cause surgical emphysema. This occurs when gas used to inflate the abdomen during the procedure leaks into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and discomfort.
Injuries to the gastro-intestinal tract and blood vessels are also possible complications of laparoscopy. These can include damage to the common iliacs or deep inferior epigastric artery, which can cause bleeding and other serious complications.
Overall, while laparoscopy is generally considered safe, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and complications associated with the procedure. Patients should discuss these risks with their healthcare provider before undergoing laparoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female visits her doctor with concerns about her drinking habits and a desire to quit. She acknowledges that alcohol provides a temporary sense of relief but acknowledges its harmful effects. She also inquires about the mechanism by which alcohol produces this sensation.
The doctor informs her that alcohol imitates the impact of the primary inhibitory neurotransmitters that operate on the spinal cord and central nervous system.
What is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycine
Explanation:The Role of Glycine in the Body
Glycine is an amino acid that is essential for the production of proteins in the body. While it is not considered an essential amino acid, as it can be synthesized from serine, it plays a crucial role in the body’s functions. Glycine is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and brainstem, where it prevents glutamate-mediated depolarization of the postsynaptic terminal via NMDA receptors. It is also used as an intermediate in the synthesis of porphyrins and purines.
The glycine cleavage system is the major pathway for glycine breakdown, which largely occurs in the liver. However, a defect in this system can lead to glycine encephalopathy, a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by myoclonic seizures soon after birth. This disorder is caused by high levels of glycine in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid. While glycine is usually only found in small amounts in proteins, it makes up 35% of collagen. Overall, glycine plays a vital role in the body’s functions and is necessary for maintaining proper health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man has been admitted to the ICU through the ED with reduced consciousness and cyanosis. Despite an oxygen saturation of 94% in the ED, both peripheral and central cyanosis were present. Arterial blood gas monitoring revealed significant hypoxia, but no evidence of methaemoglobin. The suspected diagnosis is carbon monoxide poisoning, and the patient is intubated and ventilated to prevent further leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve. What factors can cause this shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocapnia
Explanation:The oxygen dissociation curve can be shifted to the left by low pCO2, which increases haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen and makes it less likely to release oxygen to the tissues. In contrast, acidosis, hypercapnia, and hyperthermia cause a right shift of the curve, making it easier for oxygen to be released to the tissues. Raised levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate also shift the curve to the right by inhibiting oxygen binding to haemoglobin.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Surgery can trigger a significant stress response in individuals, leading to the release of high levels of adrenaline from the adrenal glands. This adrenaline has the potential to activate various adrenergic receptors, including the α1 receptor. What happens when this receptor is activated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction
Explanation:Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a wrist injury sustained from a fall. Upon examination, the physician notes tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, as well as localized swelling and bruising. The physician suspects a fracture in one of the carpal bones and orders a series of plain x-rays to confirm the diagnosis. The physician is concerned about the potential consequences of leaving this fracture untreated due to its precarious blood supply.
Which blood supply could be compromised as a result of this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrograde blood supply to the scaphoid through the tubercle
Explanation:Fractures to the scaphoid bone can result in avascular necrosis due to its sole blood supply through the tubercle. The healing process may be complicated by non-union as well. It is important to note that blood supply to the scaphoid is not anterograde and pain in the anatomical snuffbox is indicative of a scaphoid fracture, not a trapezium fracture. Additionally, the scaphoid bone receives blood supply through the tubercle, not the lunate surface.
The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident. During the ABCDE assessment, it is discovered that the patient has suffered a penetrating injury at the T9 level.
Following an MRI of the spine and consultation with a neurologist, the patient is diagnosed with Brown-Sequard syndrome on the left side.
What symptoms can be expected from this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided loss of motor, vibration and proprioception, with right-sided loss of pain and temperature sensation
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract crosses over at the same level where the nerve root enters the spinal cord, while the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus, and spinocerebellar tracts cross over at the medulla.
Brown-Sequard syndrome affects one entire side of the spinal cord, resulting in the loss of motor function, vibration, and proprioception on the left side, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side.
In Brown-Sequard syndrome, the loss of motor function, vibration, and proprioception occurs on the same side due to the corticospinal tract and dorsal column medial meniscus crossing over at the medulla. The loss of pain and temperature sensation occurs on the opposite side due to the crossing over of the tract at the nerve root.
Anterior cord syndrome affects the descending corticospinal tract and ascending spinothalamic tract, leading to the loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation below the injury site. However, proprioception and vibration sensation remain unaffected as the dorsal columns are spared.
Central cord syndrome results in the loss of motor function on both sides, as well as some loss of vibration and proprioception.
Posterior cord syndrome affects the dorsal column medial lemniscus, leading to the loss of proprioception and vibration sensation on the same side. This condition can be caused by neck hyperflexion, disc compression, ischaemia, vitamin B12 deficiency, or multiple sclerosis.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.
What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacillus
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath that started 2 hours ago. She has no medical history. The results of her arterial blood gas (ABG) test are as follows:
Normal range
pH: 7.49 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 12.2 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.4 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 22 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: +2 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
Her temperature is 37ºC, and her pulse is 98 beats/minute and regular. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anxiety hyperventilation
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms and ABG results consistent with respiratory alkalosis. However, it is important to conduct a thorough history and physical examination to rule out any underlying pulmonary pathology or infection. Based on the patient’s history, anxiety-induced hyperventilation is the most probable cause of her condition.
Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Examples
Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when the blood pH level rises above the normal range due to excessive breathing. This can be caused by various factors, including anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders, altitude, and pregnancy. Salicylate poisoning can also lead to respiratory alkalosis, but it may also cause metabolic acidosis in the later stages. In this case, the respiratory centre is stimulated early, leading to respiratory alkalosis, while the direct acid effects of salicylates combined with acute renal failure may cause acidosis later on. It is important to identify the underlying cause of respiratory alkalosis to determine the appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to assess the accuracy of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure. The researchers are worried that some patients may not undergo the established gold-standard test. What kind of bias does this indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Work-up bias
Explanation:Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents with a six month history of weight loss and tiredness. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 10 units of alcohol daily.
On examination, he appears slightly plethoric, but otherwise has no obvious abnormality. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 202 g/L (130-180), platelets of 310 ×109/L (150-400), and a white cell count of 9.2 ×109/L (4-11). His U+Es are normal and his glucose level is 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). Urine analysis reveals blood 2+.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient that will aid in the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Salient Features and Possible Causes of Polycythaemia
The patient presents with weight loss, no obvious physical abnormalities, and a polycythaemia with 2+ blood on dipstick analysis. These symptoms suggest the need for investigation of a genitourinary (GU) malignancy, with an ultrasound abdomen being the most appropriate test. It is important to note that smoking may cause polycythaemia, but it could also be caused by a hypernephroma that produces ectopic erythropoietin. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s polycythaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are an FY2 on the gastroenterology ward. A 35-year-old patient being treated for Crohn's disease complains of nausea. After considering various anti-emetics, your consultant instructs you to initiate metoclopramide as he believes it will be beneficial in this case due to its distinct mechanism of action.
What is the unique mechanism of action of metoclopramide as an anti-emetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks dopamine receptors at the CTZ and acts on 5-HT receptors
Explanation:Anti-emetics have different mechanisms of action and are used based on the cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors in the CTZ and acting on 5-HT receptors in the GI tract. On the other hand, 5-HT antagonists like ondansetron block 5-HT3 serotonin receptors in the GI tract, solitary tract nucleus, and CTZ to prevent nausea and vomiting. NK-1 receptor antagonists such as aprepitant reduce substance P to prevent emesis. Somatostatin analogues like octreotide relieve nausea and vomiting caused by bowel obstruction. Vasodilators can produce nitric oxide, which activates guanylyl cyclase and leads to protein kinase G production and subsequent vasodilation.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder after playing basketball. The joint is relocated, but he experiences pain and limited mobility in his affected arm. During the examination, it is observed that his right shoulder's flexion, extension, abduction, and external rotation are weakened. Additionally, he reports a loss of sensation in the lateral upper arm on the right side.
Which muscle/s receive innervation from the affected nerve in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deltoid and teres minor
Explanation:The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the deltoid and teres minor muscles, which allow for flexion, extension, abduction, and external rotation of the shoulder joint. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of sensation over the ‘regimental badge’ area of the upper arm and impaired shoulder movement.
The biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles are innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and are responsible for forearm flexion and shoulder adduction. Damage to this nerve would cause sensory impairment of the lateral aspect of the forearm.
The serratus anterior muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve and is responsible for stabilizing and upwardly rotating the scapula. Damage to this nerve would cause ‘winging’ of the scapula.
The supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles are innervated by the suprascapular nerve and are responsible for initiating the first 15 degrees of abduction at the shoulder joint and externally rotating the shoulder, respectively.
The trapezius muscle is innervated by the accessory nerve and the ventral rami of the C3 and C4 spinal nerves. It acts to rotate and stabilize the scapula to enable movements of the upper limb.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with HIV and is now taking a drug regimen that includes multiple medications. One of these drugs is designed to inhibit the virus from integrating its DNA into cells.
What drug is most likely being taken by this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raltegravir
Explanation:Integrating HIV drugs that end with -gravir is significant because they are integrase inhibitors, while enfuvirtide functions as an entry inhibitor.
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a 3 year history of poorly controlled Crohn's disease presents to the gastroenterology clinic for review. Despite trials of multiple agents, he was referred for an ileocaecal resection 12 months ago, which he reports 'went well', and his symptoms have now largely subsided.
However, he is now reporting new symptoms of fatigue and decreased ability to exercise.
What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B12 deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin deficiency may occur after an ileocaecal resection.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man has contracted an RNA flavivirus due to his intravenous drug use. He has been given a medication 'X' that is a guanine purine nucleoside analogue. This medication obstructs an enzyme in the de novo purine synthesis pathway, which impedes the capping of viral mRNA and its production.
What is the probable identity of drug 'X'?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ribavarin
Explanation:The correct answer is Ribavirin, which is an antiviral drug that acts as a guanosine analogue. It inhibits the de-novo purine synthesis pathway by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMP), leading to reduced viral replication and preventing the capping of viral mRNA. Ribavirin is commonly used to treat hepatitis C and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
Nevirapine is an incorrect answer as it is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) used to treat HIV, and it does not affect the de-novo purine synthesis pathway.
Oseltamivir is also an incorrect answer as it is not a guanosine analogue. It is a neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat influenzae A and B.
Remdesivir is another incorrect answer as it is an adenosine analogue that inhibits viral-RNA-dependent-RNA polymerase, leading to reduced viral RNA production. It was recently approved for use in treating specific cases of COVID-19.
Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.
In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old white woman visits her GP with complaints of stiffness, pain, and swelling in her hands. The symptoms are more severe in the morning and gradually improve throughout the day. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout. She admits to taking her husband's prednisolone tablets occasionally to manage her symptoms.
What risk factors does this patient have for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Female sex
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is more prevalent in female patients, with a 3-fold higher incidence compared to males. It is characterized by symmetrical pain and stiffness, particularly in the morning. Rheumatoid arthritis can affect individuals of any age and is treated with medications such as prednisolone. Contrary to popular belief, gout does not increase the likelihood of developing rheumatoid arthritis. Additionally, ethnicity, specifically being of white descent, is not considered a risk factor for this condition.
Understanding the Epidemiology of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects people of all ages, but it typically peaks between the ages of 30 and 50. The condition is more common in women, with a female-to-male ratio of 3:1. The prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis is estimated to be around 1% of the population. However, there are some ethnic differences in the incidence of the disease, with Native Americans having a higher prevalence than other groups.
Researchers have identified a genetic link to rheumatoid arthritis, with the HLA-DR4 gene being associated with the development of the condition. This gene is particularly linked to a subtype of rheumatoid arthritis known as Felty’s syndrome. Understanding the epidemiology of rheumatoid arthritis is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support to those affected by the disease. By identifying risk factors and understanding the prevalence of the condition, healthcare providers can better tailor their treatment plans to meet the needs of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are working in the emergency department when a 78-year-old female is brought in having been found on her bedroom floor in the morning by her carers. She has a recent diagnosis of dementia but her carers report her to seem much more muddled than usual. Her past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and hypertension. Her medications include ramipril, warfarin, and colecalciferol. A CT scan of her head is done which confirms the diagnosis of subdural hemorrhage.
What is the most likely cause of this abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to bridging veins
Explanation:Subdural haemorrhage occurs when there is damage to the bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses, resulting in a collection of blood between the dural and arachnoid coverings of the brain. The most common cause of subdural haemorrhage is trauma, with risk factors including a history of trauma, vulnerability to falls (such as in patients with dementia), increasing age, and use of anticoagulants. In this case, the patient’s fall and dementia put her at risk for subdural haemorrhage due to shearing forces causing a tear in the bridging veins, which may be exacerbated by cerebral atrophy.
Other types of haemorrhage include extradural haemorrhage, which occurs between the skull and dura mater due to rupture of the middle meningeal artery on the temporal surface, and subarachnoid haemorrhage, which occurs between the arachnoid and pia mater due to rupture of a berry aneurysm. Intracerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage occurs within the brain parenchyma and is typically caused by a haemorrhagic stroke, presenting with sudden onset neurological deficits. CT findings for each type of haemorrhage differ, with subdural haemorrhage presenting as a collection of blood with a crescent shape, extradural haemorrhage as a convex shape, subarachnoid haemorrhage as hyper-attenuation around the circle of Willis, and intracerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage as hyperattenuation in the brain parenchyma.
Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage
Subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates beneath the dural layer of the meninges. This type of bleeding is not within the brain tissue and is referred to as an extra-axial or extrinsic lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified into three types based on their age: acute, subacute, and chronic.
Acute subdural haematomas are caused by high-impact trauma and are associated with other brain injuries. Symptoms and severity of presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.
Chronic subdural haematomas, on the other hand, are collections of blood within the subdural space that have been present for weeks to months. They are caused by the rupture of small bridging veins within the subdural space, which leads to slow bleeding. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas due to brain atrophy and fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants can also experience subdural haematomas due to fragile bridging veins rupturing in shaken baby syndrome.
Chronic subdural haematomas typically present with a progressive history of confusion, reduced consciousness, or neurological deficit. CT imaging shows a crescentic shape, not restricted by suture lines, and compresses the brain. Unlike acute subdurals, chronic subdurals are hypodense compared to the substance of the brain. Treatment options depend on the size and severity of the haematoma, with conservative management or surgical decompression with burr holes being the main options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been prescribed dapagliflozin by his physician to improve management of his pre-existing type 2 diabetes mellitus following a raised HbA1c reading.
What is the main site of action for this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:The proximal convoluted tubule in the nephron is responsible for the majority of glucose reabsorption. Dapagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor, acts on this area to reduce glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. While this can aid in glycaemic control and weight loss, it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections. Other SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin and empagliflozin. The distal convoluted tubule is important for ion absorption, while the cortical collecting duct regulates water reabsorption. Sulfonylureas act on pancreatic beta cells, not acinar cells, which are responsible for exocrine function and are not targeted by SGLT-2 inhibitors.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man undergoes a colonoscopy and a colonic polyp is identified. It is located on a stalk in the sigmoid colon and has a lobular appearance. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysplasia
Explanation:The majority of colonic polyps mentioned earlier are adenomas, which can be accompanied by dysplasia. The severity of dysplasia is directly proportional to the level of clinical apprehension.
Understanding Colonic Polyps and Follow-Up Procedures
Colonic polyps can occur in isolation or as part of polyposis syndromes, with greater than 100 polyps typically present in FAP. The risk of malignancy is related to size, with a 10% risk in a 1 cm adenoma. While isolated adenomas seldom cause symptoms, distally sited villous lesions may produce mucous and electrolyte disturbances if very large.
Follow-up procedures for colonic polyps depend on the number and size of the polyps. Low-risk cases with 1 or 2 adenomas less than 1 cm require no follow-up or re-colonoscopy for 5 years. Moderate-risk cases with 3 or 4 small adenomas or 1 adenoma greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 3 years. High-risk cases with more than 5 small adenomas or more than 3 with 1 of them greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 1 year.
Segmental resection or complete colectomy may be necessary in cases of incomplete excision of malignant polyps, malignant sessile polyps, malignant pedunculated polyps with submucosal invasion, polyps with poorly differentiated carcinoma, or familial polyposis coli. Screening from teenager up to 40 years by 2 yearly sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy is recommended. Rectal polypoidal lesions may be treated with trans anal endoscopic microsurgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female presents to the two-week wait colonoscopy clinic with a positive FIT result. She reports a 4-month history of altered bowel habit and incomplete bowel emptying. During colonoscopy, an adenocarcinoma is found in the lower rectum and upper third of the anal canal. What is the most likely lymph node region for initial metastatic spread in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes
Explanation:The internal iliac lymph nodes are responsible for draining the lower part of the rectum, as well as the pelvic viscera and the anal canal above the pectinate line. The ileocolic nodes primarily drain the ileum and proximal ascending colon, while the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the hindgut structures from the transverse colon down to the superior portion of the rectum. The para-aortic nodes do not directly drain the lower part of the rectum, but they do receive drainage from the testes and ovaries.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to your clinic with his mother. He has been diagnosed with asthma for two years and is currently on a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and reliever inhaler. However, his mother is concerned as he still experiences symptoms and needs to use his reliever inhaler four to five times per week. You plan to prescribe a medication that targets leukotrienes, which are known to contribute to bronchoconstriction. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It blocks leukotriene binding to and activating smooth muscle, preventing leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction
Explanation:Montelukast is a drug that works as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the activation of smooth muscle by leukotrienes and prevents bronchoconstriction. Mast cell stabilising drugs, on the other hand, do not have any effect on leukotriene-induced bronchoconstriction as they only prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory cell mediators. Nedocromil is an example of a mast cell stabiliser used for asthma. Montelukast does not affect mucus production or leukotriene synthesis or recycling. It specifically blocks leukotriene binding to smooth muscle receptors in the airways.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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