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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor, feeling very distressed. He woke up that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor, feeling very distressed. He woke up that morning with a sensation that his right cheek was feeling heavy. He immediately saw himself in the mirror and was horrified to find that his face was twisted. He could not close his right eye. Saliva drooled from the angle of his mouth on the right side. He was extremely distressed to note that when he tried to smile his mouth deviated to the left side. There is some sense of dizziness and hearing is muffled on the right side. His father had had a stroke 4 weeks ago. The only medication of note is the antihypertensive medication.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg, his pulse is 80/min and he is anxious. Examination of his right ear reveals a few tense vesicles in his right ear and there is right-sided facial nerve palsy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infection of the left-side gasserian ganglion

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster infection

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: A Herpes Zoster Infection

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition characterized by a lower motor neurone facial palsy on one side of the face, often caused by herpes zoster infection of the geniculate ganglion. While a vesicular eruption in the external auditory canal, cranial integument, and oropharynx is typically present, it may not appear immediately or at all. The eighth cranial nerve may also be affected, leading to deafness and vertigo. The virus can be detected through exudates collected from the skin of the pinna and analyzed through PCR. Treatment with a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is effective if started within seven days of symptom onset. Left-sided acoustic neuroma is unlikely due to the absence of hearing loss and tinnitus, while herpes simplex infection leads to cold sores rather than facial palsy. Atypical migraine may cause paralysis, but the absence of headache and other symptoms rules it out as a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old male who is otherwise healthy presents to the clinic with dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male who is otherwise healthy presents to the clinic with dyspnoea on exertion. This symptom has been progressing over the past year to the point where he can only walk half a mile before needing to stop. He denies having a cough or chest pain. He has a history of smoking 15 cigarettes per day for 25 years. Although his father had a myocardial infarction at the age of 54, he reports no other family history of cardiac-related issues. His BMI is 24 kg/m², heart rate is 80/min, blood pressure is 130/77 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18/min, and he is saturating at 97% on air. Chest auscultation reveals occasional expiratory wheeze, and there is no pedal oedema. Auscultation of the heart reveals a fixed split S2, and his jugular venous pressure is not elevated.

      Based on the information provided, what is the most likely cause of this patient's dyspnoea on exertion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      The probable root cause of this condition is an atrial septal defect, which is often discovered incidentally in later life through the detection of RBBB. In infancy, a murmur may not be detectable, leading to a delayed diagnosis. Symptoms typically arise later in life as the right atrium enlarged, resulting in decreased cardiac efficiency. A fixed-split S2 is a typical finding in affected individuals.

      Understanding Atrial Septal Defects

      Atrial septal defects (ASDs) are a type of congenital heart defect that can be found in adulthood. They are associated with a high mortality rate, with 50% of patients dying by the age of 50. There are two types of ASDs: ostium secundum and ostium primum. Ostium secundum is the most common type, accounting for 70% of all ASDs.

      ASDs can be identified by certain features, such as an ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of S2. They can also lead to embolisms passing from the venous system to the left side of the heart, which can cause a stroke.

      Ostium secundum ASDs are often associated with Holt-Oram syndrome, which is characterized by tri-phalangeal thumbs. On an ECG, ostium secundum ASDs are typically identified by RBBB with RAD.

      Ostium primum ASDs, on the other hand, present earlier than ostium secundum defects and are often associated with abnormal AV valves. On an ECG, they are typically identified by RBBB with LAD and a prolonged PR interval.

      Understanding the different types of ASDs and their associated features can help with early identification and treatment, potentially improving outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man visits the general medical clinic to discuss his recent blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits the general medical clinic to discuss his recent blood test results. During a routine check-up, he was found to have low sodium levels. He has no symptoms of hyponatraemia and is clinically euvolaemic. However, a CT scan of his chest revealed radiological evidence of small cell lung cancer, which he has declined further investigation for. The medical team suspects he may have SIADH and wants to know what further investigations are necessary to confirm this.

      Na+ 122 mmol/l
      K+ 4.3 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 72 µmol/l
      Serum osmolality 240 mmol/kg

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary electrolytes and osmolality

      Explanation:

      To diagnose SIADH in a euvolaemic patient with hyponatraemia and low serum osmolality, the criteria include Na < 135, serum osmolality <271, and urinary osmolality >100. Therefore, it is important to confirm elevated urinary osmolality. While a morning cortisol test can help diagnose Addison’s disease, a random serum cortisol test is not very useful. An echocardiogram may be necessary to rule out heart failure as a cause of hyponatraemia in the presence of fluid overload, but it is unlikely to be needed if there is no peripheral oedema, raised JVP, or pulmonary oedema.

      SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A previously healthy 85-year-old male patient is brought to the Emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old male patient is brought to the Emergency department after feeling unwell for some time. While waiting, he suddenly collapses and becomes unresponsive. He is quickly transferred to the resuscitation area where he is attached to a defibrillator, gains IV access, and has his airway secured. The monitor shows VF and he is given a shock. Despite continued chest compressions, he remains in VF after the second shock. What is the next immediate step in management according to current resuscitation guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One shock and immediately restart chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Importance of Continuous Chest Compressions in Cardiac Arrest

      Current UK resuscitation guidelines highlight the significance of minimizing interruptions in chest compressions during a cardiac arrest. It is recommended to restart chest compressions immediately after each shock, before any other action is taken. The rhythm assessment and pulse check should be conducted after two minutes of continuous chest compressions. The guidelines also suggest a single shock strategy.

      In advanced life support, adrenaline should be administered every 3-5 minutes, and amiodarone should be given after three shocks. Additionally, brief periods of echo (10 seconds) are now supported during an arrest situation, but it should be performed at the end of two minutes of compressions.

      Therefore, the most appropriate immediate step in a cardiac arrest situation is to administer one shock and immediately restart chest compressions. This approach ensures that the patient receives continuous chest compressions, which is crucial for their survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male of African–Caribbean descent presented to the emergency department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male of African–Caribbean descent presented to the emergency department complaining of leg swelling, shortness of breath, and nausea that had been progressively worsening over the past 6 weeks. He had recently relocated to the UK from South Africa about 3 months ago. The patient had a history of mild peripheral vascular disease and was taking atorvastatin and clopidogrel.

      Upon examination, the patient was comfortable at rest but had significant pitting edema in both lower limbs and bilateral dullness to percussion at the lung bases. His blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg.

      The urine dipstick showed 2+ blood and 4+ protein. Blood test results revealed a urea level of 21 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), creatinine level of 256 µmol/L (55 - 120), and albumin level of 24 g/L (35 - 50). The 24-hour urine protein measurement was 8g/day.

      Further blood tests were conducted, including ANA, ANCA, complement (C3 and C4), hepatitis serology, HIV screening serology, and serum protein electrophoresis, which all came back negative. A renal ultrasound was performed, which showed an increased echogenicity bilaterally but no hydronephrosis. Peak flow velocities were normal and equal bilaterally. A renal biopsy was also performed, revealing segmental areas of scarring affecting some of the glomeruli, with no hypercellularity or crescents visible.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Supportive therapy should be given alongside active treatment for this patient, as there is a low chance of spontaneous remission. However, supportive therapy alone is not appropriate. Although the patient recently traveled from a TB-endemic area, there is no indication of TB infection that requires anti-tuberculous medication. While the patient has risk factors for renal artery stenosis, the biopsy findings and presentation do not support this as the cause of renal function decline. Additionally, the kidneys are of normal size and have equal peak flow velocities on doppler. Therefore, revascularization is not the correct treatment. There is no indication of urgent need for hemodialysis in this patient.

      Understanding Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

      Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) is a type of kidney disease that often leads to nephrotic syndrome and chronic kidney disease. It is commonly diagnosed in young adults and can be caused by various factors such as HIV, heroin, Alport’s syndrome, and sickle-cell. In some cases, it may also be idiopathic or secondary to other renal pathologies like IgA nephropathy or reflux nephropathy.

      To diagnose FSGS, a renal biopsy is usually performed, which shows focal and segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis on light microscopy and effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy. If left untreated, FSGS has a low chance of spontaneous remission, with less than 10% of cases experiencing it.

      Management of FSGS typically involves the use of steroids and immunosuppressants. However, it is important to note that FSGS has a high recurrence rate in renal transplants, making it a challenging condition to manage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man presents to the endocrinology outpatient department with resistant hypertension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the endocrinology outpatient department with resistant hypertension and hypokalaemia. He is currently asymptomatic and has a medical history of hypercholesterolaemia. He smokes five cigarettes daily and drinks 2-3 bottles of wine per week. He is a non-executive director of a large multinational company. His blood tests reveal an increased aldosterone:renin ratio and a CT scan shows bilateral adrenal enlargement. What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for primary hyperaldosteronism caused by bilateral adrenal hyperplasia is spironolactone, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist. Chemotherapy is not the correct answer as it is not the first-line treatment for this condition, but may be considered for disseminated malignancy caused by an adrenal carcinoma. IV hydrocortisone is not indicated as the patient’s cortisol levels are normal and there are no signs of hypoadrenalism. Radiotherapy is also not the correct answer as it is typically used for unilateral mass-like lesions, rather than bilateral diffuse enlargement.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain and a history of type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He underwent coronary angiography and a stent was inserted into his left coronary artery. However, he developed oliguria following the procedure. On examination, he had mottled skin changes over his legs and was euvolemic with a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg. His laboratory results showed elevated levels of creatinine, urea, and potassium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol emboli

      Explanation:

      AKI that occurs after angiography can be attributed to either contrast-induced nephropathy or cholesterol emboli. The most common cause is contrast-induced nephropathy, but if there is an elevated eosinophil count and skin rash (livedo reticularis), it is highly indicative of cholesterol emboli.

      While acute interstitial nephritis can cause eosinophilia, it is not associated with contrast. ANCA-associated vasculitis, such as Churg Strauss, can cause a rash and eosinophilia, but there are no other symptoms like anemia or systemic upset that match this condition.

      The elevated creatine kinase level suggests muscle injury, which aligns with an embolic phenomenon. However, the CK level is not high enough to diagnose rhabdomyolysis, which typically requires a level above 5000.

      Cholesterol embolisation is a condition where cholesterol deposits break off and can lead to renal disease. This condition is commonly seen as a result of vascular surgery or angiography, but can also occur due to severe atherosclerosis, especially in large arteries like the aorta. Symptoms of cholesterol embolisation include eosinophilia, purpura, renal failure, and livedo reticularis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a febrile illness lasting one week. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a febrile illness lasting one week. She was prescribed amoxicillin for cough and right-sided pleuritic pain but did not finish the course. She developed a severe headache and increased confusion one day ago. She has a history of diabetes mellitus managed with metformin and sitagliptin. On examination, she has herpes labialis, a BP of 100/80 mmHg, and a regular pulse of 88. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.8 °C. Her GCS is 13, and there is neck stiffness and meningism. Fundi are not visible. Basal crackles are heard at the right lung base. What is the most likely cause of the lung findings in this 68-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Febrile Illness with Signs of Consolidation and Meningitis

      When a patient presents with a febrile illness and signs of consolidation in the lung, the most common cause is community-acquired pneumonia, often caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. However, if the patient develops signs of bacterial meningitis and a deteriorating level of consciousness, further investigation is necessary. Herpes labialis is also commonly associated with S. pneumoniae infection.

      Other potential causes of meningitis include Cryptococcus, which is more common in immunocompromised patients, and Listeria monocytogenes, which primarily affects pregnant women and the elderly. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is typically seen in conjunction with influenza infection.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a rarer cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but it can cause more severe changes on chest X-ray than would be expected based on the physical exam. In cases where meningitis is suspected, a CT scan should be performed to rule out raised intracerebral pressure and assess the risks of lumbar puncture. This can help confirm a diagnosis of S. pneumoniae meningitis and rule out potential herpes encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female presents with worsening acne and hirsutism over the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with worsening acne and hirsutism over the past 3 years. She had her first period at age 11 and experiences irregular periods.

      During examination, her body mass index is 29 kg/m², heart rate is 80/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. Mild clitoromegaly, hirsutism, and acanthosis nigricans are observed.

      Blood tests on the 6th day after menstruation reveal:
      - Estradiol: 300 pmol/L (NR<300 pmol/L)
      - 17 OH-progesterone: 20 nmol/L (NR<10 nmol/L)
      - Free Testosterone: 3 nmol/L (NR<3 nmol/L)
      - LH: 4 IU/L (NR 1-9 IU/L)
      - FSH: 3 IU/L (NR 1-13 IU/L)
      - 9am cortisol: 150 nmol/L (NR 200-700 nmol/L)

      What is the most useful single test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short synacthen test

      Explanation:

      There are four types of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) that can be differentiated based on their hormone profiles. The first type, 21-hydroxylase deficiency, is the most common and results in low cortisol and aldosterone levels, as well as elevated androgens. The second type, 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, leads to elevated blood pressure due to some aldosterone activity from 11-deoxycortisol, as well as raised androgens. The third type, 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency, results in raised aldosterone but low androgens. The fourth type, 3-beta steroid dehydrogenase, leads to low levels of both aldosterone and androgens.

      The short synacthen test can be useful in cases where 17OH-progesterone levels are only slightly elevated. If levels are very high, it can be diagnostic for CAH. Measuring 17 OH-progesterone at 0 and 60 minutes after ACTH administration can cause elevated responses in patients with CAH, with levels exceeding 35 nmol/L.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of genetic disorders that affect the production of adrenal steroids. These disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The low levels of cortisol in response to this condition cause the anterior pituitary gland to secrete high levels of ACTH. This, in turn, stimulates the production of adrenal androgens that can cause virilization in female infants. The most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, accounting for 90% of cases. 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency is responsible for 5% of cases, while 17-hydroxylase deficiency is very rare.

      In many countries, newborns are screened for congenital adrenal hyperplasia by measuring the serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17 OHP). However, this screening is not yet done in the UK. To confirm the diagnosis, ACTH stimulation testing is used. This involves administering synthetic ACTH and measuring the levels of cortisol and other adrenal steroids in the blood before and after the administration. This test helps to determine the type and severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman complains of right upper quadrant pain, chills, a fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of right upper quadrant pain, chills, a fever of 38.5 °C and abnormal liver function tests. An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals no gallstones in the common bile duct, but there are enlarged intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Ascending Cholangitis and Differential Diagnosis of Extrahepatic Duct Dilatation

      Ascending cholangitis is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with extrahepatic duct dilatation and evidence of obstruction on ultrasound scanning. While gallstones may not be visualized on ultrasound, MRCP is superior for diagnosing and locating them with a sensitivity of around 93%. ERCP and sphincterotomy may be necessary in the acute setting if sepsis does not resolve with antibiotics. Cholecystitis is an unlikely explanation for extrahepatic duct dilatation, and a cholangiocarcinoma at the porta hepatis would not explain it either. While a tumour at the ampulla of Vater or in the head of the pancreas could cause distal biliary obstruction and ascending cholangitis, they are more likely to present with obstructive jaundice, weight loss, and dull abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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