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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of lip swelling that began 30 minutes ago. During her medical history, she mentions that her sister experienced a similar episode and was recently diagnosed with hereditary angioedema (HAE). What is the main treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: C1 Esterase Inhibitor Replacement Protein
Explanation:The explanation states that the increased activity of the enzyme kininogenase is caused by hormonal factors, specifically oestrogen, as well as genetic factors.
Further Reading:
Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.
Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.
HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.
The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.
The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.
In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling unwell in the Pediatric Emergency Department. Upon reviewing her urea & electrolytes, you observe that her potassium level is elevated at 6.7 mmol/l. An ECG is conducted, which reveals normal sinus rhythm. A nebulizer treatment with salbutamol is administered, and shortly after, an arterial blood gas is performed. The child's pH is 7.41, but her potassium level remains unchanged.
As per the APLS guidelines, which medication should be utilized next?Your Answer: Insulin and glucose infusion
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is when the level of potassium in the blood is higher than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be categorized as mild, moderate, or severe depending on the specific potassium levels. Mild hyperkalaemia is between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, moderate hyperkalaemia is between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l, and severe hyperkalaemia is above 6.5 mmol/l. The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can be acute or chronic. Other causes include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.
Calcium is used to counteract the harmful effects of hyperkalaemia on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane and preventing abnormal depolarization. It works quickly, usually within 15 minutes, but its effects are not long-lasting. Calcium is considered a first-line treatment for arrhythmias and significant ECG abnormalities caused by hyperkalaemia, such as widening of the QRS interval, loss of the P wave, and cardiac arrhythmias. However, arrhythmias are rare at potassium levels below 7.5 mmol/l.
It’s important to note that calcium does not lower the serum potassium level. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with other therapies that actually help reduce potassium levels, such as insulin and salbutamol. If the pH is measured to be above 7.35 and the potassium level remains high despite nebulized salbutamol, the APLS guidelines recommend the administration of an insulin and glucose infusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 3
Correct
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Following the passing of a young patient treated for an extended cardiac arrest after a near-drowning incident, your supervisor requests that you arrange a training session for the junior physicians. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the management of near-drowning patients?
Your Answer: Patients should be extricated from the water in the horizontal position
Explanation:When rescuing drowning patients, it is important to extricate them from the water in a horizontal position whenever possible. This is because the pressure of the water on the body when submerged increases the flow of blood back to the heart, which in turn increases cardiac output. However, when the patient is removed from the water, this pressure effect is lost, which can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure and circulatory collapse due to the loss of peripheral resistance and pooling of blood in the veins. By extricating the patient in a horizontal position, we can help counteract this effect.
It is worth noting that the amount of water in the lungs after drowning is typically small, usually less than 4 milliliters per kilogram of body weight. Therefore, attempting to drain the water from the lungs is ineffective and not recommended.
In cases of fresh water drowning, pneumonia may occur due to unusual pathogens such as aeromonas spp, burkholderia pseudomallei, chromobacterium spp, pseudomonas species, and leptospirosis.
If the patient experiences bronchospasm, nebulized bronchodilators can be used as a treatment.
To prevent secondary brain injury, it is important to prevent hyperthermia. This can be achieved by maintaining the patient’s core body temperature below 36 degrees Celsius during the rewarming process.
Further Reading:
Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.
When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.
Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.
Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.
Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You provide Entonox to a patient who has experienced a significant injury for temporary pain relief.
Which ONE statement about Entonox is accurate?Your Answer: It continues to work for approximately 10 minutes after inhalation has ceased
Correct Answer: It can cause inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis
Explanation:Entonox is a combination of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with equal parts of each. Its primary effects are pain relief and a decrease in activity within the central nervous system. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve the modulation of enkephalins and endorphins in the central nervous system.
When inhaled, Entonox takes about 30 seconds to take effect and its effects last for approximately 60 seconds after inhalation is stopped. It is stored in cylinders that are either white or blue, with blue and white sections on the shoulders. Entonox has various uses, including being used alongside general anesthesia, as a pain reliever during labor, and for painful medical procedures.
There are some known side effects of Entonox, which include nausea and vomiting in about 15% of patients, dizziness, euphoria, and inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis. It is important to note that there are certain situations where the use of Entonox is not recommended. These contraindications include reduced consciousness, diving injuries, pneumothorax, middle ear disease, sinus disease, bowel obstruction, documented allergy to nitrous oxide, hypoxia, and violent or disabled psychiatric patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with notable facial swelling following an assault. A facial fracture is suspected due to the patient losing consciousness during the incident. As a precaution, the decision is made to send him for CT scans of the brain and facial views. The CT results confirm a zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC) fracture, but no mandible fracture is observed. Upon examination, it is observed that the patient is experiencing difficulty fully opening or closing their mouth. What is the probable cause of this issue?
Your Answer: Temporalis muscle entrapment
Explanation:Injuries to the zygomatic arch that result in limited mouth opening or closing can occur when the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle becomes trapped. If this happens, it is important to seek immediate medical attention. It is worth noting that the muscles responsible for chewing (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid) are innervated by the mandibular nerve (V3).
Further Reading:
Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.
Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.
Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.
Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.
Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 6
Correct
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A toddler is brought in with a non-blanching rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of meningococcal disease.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following features is MOST indicative of this diagnosis?Your Answer: Capillary refill time >3 seconds or longer
Explanation:NICE has emphasized that certain symptoms and signs can indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of a fever. In the case of meningococcal disease, the presence of a rash that does not fade when pressed upon (non-blanching rash) is particularly suggestive, especially if the child appears unwell, the lesions are larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura), the capillary refill time is 3 seconds or longer, or there is neck stiffness. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A middle-aged patient experiences a stroke that leads to impairment in Broca's area. What will be the consequences of the damage to Broca's area?
Your Answer: Expressive aphasia
Explanation:Broca’s area is situated in the frontal lobe of the dominant cerebral hemisphere. Specifically, it can be located in the posterior section of the inferior frontal gyrus, and it comprises of the pars opercularis and the pars triangularis.
Broca’s area is responsible for regulating the motor functions involved in speech production. It facilitates the creation of words through its connections with neighboring motor areas, which stimulate the muscles of the larynx, mouth, tongue, and soft palate.
If there is damage to Broca’s area, it will lead to speech paralysis and expressive aphasia, commonly referred to as Broca’s aphasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A fourth-year medical student is studying subarachnoid hemorrhages (SAH).
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding subarachnoid hemorrhage?Your Answer: SAH is associated with polycystic kidneys
Explanation:A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) occurs when there is spontaneous bleeding into the subarachnoid space and is often a catastrophic event. The incidence of SAH is 9 cases per 100,000 people per year, and it typically affects individuals between the ages of 35 and 65.
The majority of SAH cases (80%) are caused by the rupture of berry (saccular) aneurysms, while 15% are caused by arteriovenous malformations (AVM). In less than 5% of cases, no specific cause can be found. Berry aneurysms are associated with polycystic kidneys, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and coarctation of the aorta.
There are several risk factors for SAH, including smoking, hypertension, bleeding disorders, alcohol misuse, mycotic aneurysm, and a family history of the condition.
Patients with SAH typically experience a sudden and severe occipital headache, often described as the worst headache of my life. This may be accompanied by vomiting, collapse, seizures, and coma. Clinical signs of SAH include neck stiffness, a positive Kernig’s sign, and focal neurological abnormalities. Fundoscopy may reveal subhyaloid retinal haemorrhages in approximately 25% of patients.
Re-bleeding occurs in 30-40% of patients who survive the initial episode, with the highest risk occurring between 7 and 14 days after the initial event.
Untreated SAH has a mortality rate of nearly 50% within the first eight weeks following presentation. Prolonged coma is associated with a 100% mortality rate.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the CT scan increases to nearly 100% if performed within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT scan is negative and there are no contraindications, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache to diagnose SAH. Approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had an SAH following an LP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a truck that had veered onto the sidewalk where the patient was standing. The patient has a significant bruise on the back of her head and seems lethargic.
You are worried about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following physical signs suggest elevated ICP?Your Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:Vomiting after a head injury should raise concerns about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Signs of elevated ICP include vomiting, changes in pupil size or shape in one eye, decreased cognitive function or consciousness, abnormal findings during fundoscopy (such as blurry optic discs or bleeding in the retina), cranial nerve dysfunction (most commonly affecting CN III and VI), weakness on one side of the body (a late sign), bradycardia (slow heart rate), high blood pressure, and a wide pulse pressure. Irregular breathing that may progress to respiratory distress, focal neurological deficits, and seizures can also be indicative of elevated ICP.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 38-year-old woman who was hit on the side of her leg by a soccer player while spectating the match from the sidelines. You suspect a tibial plateau fracture and order an X-ray of the affected knee. Besides the fracture line, what other radiographic indication is frequently observed in individuals with acute tibial plateau fractures?
Your Answer: High riding patella
Correct Answer: Lipohaemathrosis evident in suprapatellar pouch
Explanation:Lipohaemathrosis is commonly seen in the suprapatellar pouch in individuals who have tibial plateau fractures. Notable X-ray characteristics of tibial plateau fractures include a visible fracture of the tibial plateau and the presence of lipohaemathrosis in the suprapatellar pouch.
Further Reading:
Tibial plateau fractures are a type of traumatic lower limb and joint injury that can involve the medial or lateral tibial plateau, or both. These fractures are classified using the Schatzker classification, with higher grades indicating a worse prognosis. X-ray imaging can show visible fractures of the tibial plateau and the presence of lipohaemathrosis in the suprapatellar pouch. However, X-rays often underestimate the severity of these fractures, so CT scans are typically used for a more accurate assessment.
Tibial spine fractures, on the other hand, are separate from tibial plateau fractures. They occur when the tibial spine is avulsed by the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). This can happen due to forced knee hyperextension or a direct blow to the femur when the knee is flexed. These fractures are most common in children aged 8-14.
Tibial tuberosity avulsion fractures primarily affect adolescent boys and are often caused by jumping or landing from a jump. These fractures can be associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease. The treatment for these fractures depends on their grading. Low-grade fractures may be managed with immobilization for 4-6 weeks, while more significant avulsions are best treated with surgical fixation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's disease is brought to the Emergency Department with a nosebleed. She currently lives alone and receives a care package once a week. The nosebleed stops with minimal treatment, and all other tests and observations are normal. Just as you are finishing up her paperwork, her daughter brings up a few concerns that she wants to address before her mother is discharged home.
What would be the most appropriate step to take?Your Answer: Talk to the patient about their daughter's concerns and get their perspective
Explanation:This situation is potentially complicated and involves another family member. The patient currently lives alone and based on the given history, it seems to be a mild episode of epistaxis. Without any additional information, it would be reasonable to assume that the patient can continue living in his current conditions.
It is crucial to listen to the family’s concerns. However, it is important to keep the patient as the main focus. Out of the options provided, the most sensible approach would be to have a conversation with the patient regarding his son’s concerns and understand his perspective on those concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. During examination, she exhibits weakness in right knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the preferred investigation to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: MRI spine
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a fall. You observe that the patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis and conduct a Qfracture™ assessment. What is the threshold for conducting a DXA (DEXA) bone density scan?
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.
Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.
The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.
There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.
Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.
Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.
Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 14
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department by his father with a high temperature. NICE suggests using the traffic light system to evaluate the likelihood of a severe illness in children under 3 with a fever.
Based on the NICE traffic light system, which of the subsequent symptoms or signs are indicative of an intermediate-risk of a severe illness?Your Answer: Dry mucous membranes
Explanation:The traffic light system is a useful tool for evaluating the potential risk of serious illness in children. This system categorizes clinical features into three groups based on severity: red (high-risk), amber (intermediate-risk), and green (low-risk).
Children displaying any of the following symptoms or signs fall into the high-risk group for serious illness: pale/mottled/ashen/blue skin, lips or tongue; lack of response to social cues; appearing unwell to a healthcare professional; inability to wake or stay awake when roused; weak, high-pitched, or continuous cry; grunting; respiratory rate exceeding 60 breaths per minute; moderate or severe chest indrawing; reduced skin turgor; and bulging fontanelle.
Children exhibiting any of the following symptoms or signs are considered at least intermediate-risk for serious illness: pallor of skin, lips or tongue reported by parent or caregiver; abnormal response to social cues; absence of a smile; waking only with prolonged stimulation; decreased activity; nasal flaring; dry mucous membranes; poor feeding in infants; reduced urine output; and rigors.
Children displaying any of the following symptoms or signs are classified as low-risk for serious illness: normal color of skin, lips, and tongue; normal response to social cues; contentment and smiles; staying awake or quickly awakening; strong normal cry or absence of crying; normal skin and eyes; and moist mucous membranes.
To summarize, children with fever and any symptoms or signs in the red column are considered high-risk, while those with fever and any symptoms or signs in the amber column (but none in the red column) are considered intermediate-risk. Children with symptoms and signs in the green column (and none in the amber or red columns) are classified as low-risk.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For the past three days, she has been experiencing severe diarrhea. She has not had any wet diapers today and is lethargic and not behaving as usual. She was recently weighed by her pediatrician's nurse and was 9 kg. During examination, she has dry mucous membranes and decreased skin elasticity, but her capillary refill time (CRT) is normal and her vital signs are within normal range.
What is her approximate fluid loss?Your Answer: 300 ml
Correct Answer: 400 ml
Explanation:Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. When we say 5% dehydration, it means that the body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 ml of fluid per kilogram. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a fluid loss of 100 ml per kilogram of body weight.
In the case of this child, who is 5% dehydrated, we can estimate that she has lost 50 ml of fluid per kilogram. Considering her weight of 8 kilograms, her estimated fluid loss would be 400 ml.
The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:
Dehydration (5%):
– The child appears unwell
– Normal heart rate or tachycardia
– Normal respiratory rate or tachypnea
– Normal peripheral pulses
– Normal or mildly prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
– Normal blood pressure
– Warm extremities
– Decreased urine output
– Reduced skin turgor
– Sunken eyes
– Depressed fontanelle
– Dry mucous membranesClinical shock (10%):
– Pale, lethargic, mottled appearance
– Tachycardia
– Tachypnea
– Weak peripheral pulses
– Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
– Hypotension
– Cold extremities
– Decreased urine output
– Decreased level of consciousness -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 16
Correct
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You review a 72-year-old woman who is on the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall. Her son is present, and he is concerned about recent problems she has had with memory loss. He is very worried that she may be showing signs of developing dementia. You perform a mini-mental state examination (MMSE).
Which of the following scores is indicative of mild dementia?Your Answer: 23
Explanation:The mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is a tool consisting of 11 questions that is utilized to evaluate cognitive function. With a maximum score of 30, a score below 24 generally indicates impaired cognitive function. This assessment can be employed to categorize the severity of cognitive impairment in dementia. Mild dementia is typically associated with an MMSE score ranging from 20 to 24, while moderate dementia falls within the MMSE score range of 13 to 20. Severe dementia is characterized by an MMSE score below 12. For more information on testing and assessment for dementia, you can visit the Alzheimer’s Association website. Additionally, the RCEM syllabus references EIP9 for memory loss and EIC4 for dementia and cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 17
Correct
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You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. The patient is experiencing asystole, and adrenaline is given as part of the cardiac arrest protocol.
Which ONE statement is NOT TRUE regarding the utilization of adrenaline in cardiac arrest?Your Answer: In VF arrest it should be given before the 3rd shock
Explanation:Adrenaline should be administered promptly once access to the circulatory system has been established in cases of non-shockable cardiac arrests such as PEA or asystole. The recommended dose is 1 mg, which can be given either as 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution or as 1 mL of a 1:1000 solution through the intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) routes.
In cases of shockable cardiac arrests like ventricular fibrillation (Vf) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT), adrenaline should be administered after the third shock has been delivered and chest compressions have been resumed. The same dose of 1 mg can be given using the same concentration options as mentioned earlier.
Subsequently, adrenaline should be administered every 3-5 minutes, alternating with chest compressions, without interrupting the compressions. The alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline cause constriction of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressures in the coronary and cerebral circulation.
The beta-adrenergic effects of adrenaline have positive effects on the heart, increasing its contractility (inotropic) and heart rate (chronotropic), which may also enhance blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these benefits may be counteracted by increased oxygen consumption by the heart, the potential for abnormal heart rhythms, temporary decrease in oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow in the lungs, impaired microcirculation, and increased dysfunction of the heart after the cardiac arrest.
While there is no evidence supporting the long-term benefits of adrenaline use in cardiac arrest cases, some studies have shown improved short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Correct
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Following a postnatal home visit, the community midwife refers a newborn baby with jaundice. The pediatric team conducts an assessment and investigations, revealing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The suspected underlying cause is extrinsic hemolysis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic disease of the newborn
Explanation:Neonatal jaundice is a complex subject, and it is crucial for candidates to have knowledge about the different causes, presentations, and management of conditions that lead to jaundice in newborns. Neonatal jaundice can be divided into two groups: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which can be either physiological or pathological, and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is always pathological.
The causes of neonatal jaundice can be categorized as follows:
Haemolytic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Intrinsic causes of haemolysis include hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, sickle-cell disease, and pyruvate kinase deficiency.
– Extrinsic causes of haemolysis include haemolytic disease of the newborn and Rhesus disease.Non-haemolytic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Breastmilk jaundice, cephalhaematoma, polycythemia, infection (particularly urinary tract infections), Gilbert syndrome.Hepatic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Hepatitis A and B, TORCH infections, galactosaemia, alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, drugs.Post-hepatic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Biliary atresia, bile duct obstruction, choledochal cysts.By understanding these different categories and their respective examples, candidates will be better equipped to handle neonatal jaundice cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department with wheezing and swelling of the lips. The patient's friend informs you that he has a nut allergy. Anaphylaxis is suspected. What is the underlying pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?
Your Answer: IgE mediated immediate reaction
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that is caused by the immune system overreaction to a specific allergen. This reaction is classified as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which means it is mediated by the IgE antibodies.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 20
Correct
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A parent brings their 10 year old child into the emergency department as they have been feeling sick and have now developed a rash. You diagnose chickenpox. The mother asks about school exclusion.
What is the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer: Exclude for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over
Explanation:Individuals who have chickenpox should refrain from coming into contact with others for a minimum of 5 days starting from when the rash first appears and continuing until all blisters have formed a crust.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.
Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.
Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.
Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.
Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type B Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You conduct an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type B Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer: QRS duration longer than 110 ms
Correct Answer: Dominant R wave in V1
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been involved in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You evaluate his airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to perform intubation on the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?Your Answer: Accessory respiratory muscle use
Correct Answer: Superficial partial-thickness circumferential neck burns
Explanation:Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.
There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.
In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.
The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.
Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You witness the sudden arrival of a baby in one of the rooms in the Emergency Department. Your supervisor evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
The entire body appears pale
The heart rate is 90 beats per minute
The baby reacts with a grimace when suctioned
There is some bending of the limbs
The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effortThe Apgar score criteria are as follows:
Score of 0:
Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
Pulse rate: Absent
Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
Activity: None
Respiratory effort: AbsentScore of 1:
Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
Activity: Some flexion
Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gaspingScore of 2:
Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 24
Correct
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A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a round of antibiotics comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After further examination, he is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
Which of the following antibiotics carries the highest risk of causing Clostridium Difficile diarrhea?Your Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in the bowel and allow C. difficile to multiply. This can lead to inflammation and bleeding in the mucosa of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct appearance known as pseudomembranous. The main symptoms of C. difficile infection (CDI) include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of CDI cases occur in individuals over the age of 65.
CDI is considered to be the most severe consequence of antibiotic treatment and is now a significant cause of illness and death. While CDI can occur after treatment with any antibiotic, the risk is particularly high with prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Recently, two research groups conducted a meta-analysis to assess the risk associated with different classes of antibiotics.
Their findings revealed that the risk of CDI increased nearly sevenfold after antibiotic treatment (odds ratio, 6.91). Among the various antibiotic classes, clindamycin posed the greatest risk (odds ratio, 20.43), followed by fluoroquinolones (odds ratio, 5.65), cephalosporins (odds ratio, 4.47), penicillins (odds ratio, 3.25), macrolides (odds ratio, 2.55), and trimethoprim/sulfonamides (odds ratio, 1.84). Tetracyclines, on the other hand, were not found to be associated with an increased risk of CDI (odds ratio, 0.91).
For more information on this topic, you may consider reading the article Antibiotic Classes and Risk for Clostridium difficile Infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department complaining of occasional right-sided facial swelling over the past 3 days. The patient describes the swelling as uncomfortable and it occurs after eating a meal, but then goes away within an hour or so. The patient mentions that the swelling has gone down since arriving at the department. Upon examination, there is no visible redness or tenderness when the face is touched. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 142/82 mmHg
Pulse rate: 86 bpm
Respiration rate: 15 bpm
Temperature: 36.5ºC
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Salivary gland stones often cause intermittent swelling that tends to worsen during meal times. This pattern of symptoms is indicative of Sialolithiasis, which refers to the presence of stones in the salivary glands. In cases of acute sialadenitis, the affected gland or duct would typically be enlarged and tender to touch, accompanied by signs of infection such as redness or fever. While mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common type of salivary gland cancer, malignant salivary gland tumors are rare. On the other hand, pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign neoplasm of the salivary glands, with an incidence rate of approximately 2-3.5 cases per 100,000 population. However, it is important to note that salivary gland stones are much more common than tumors, with an annual incidence rate that is 10 times higher.
Further Reading:
Salivary gland disease refers to various conditions that affect the salivary glands, which are responsible for producing saliva. Humans have three pairs of major salivary glands, including the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands, as well as numerous minor salivary glands. These glands produce around 1 to 1.5 liters of saliva each day, which serves several functions such as moistening and lubricating the mouth, dissolving food, aiding in swallowing, and protecting the mucosal lining.
There are several causes of salivary gland dysfunction, including infections (such as bacterial or viral infections like mumps), the presence of stones in the salivary ducts, benign or malignant tumors, dry mouth (xerostomia) due to medication, dehydration, or certain medical conditions like Sjögren’s syndrome, granulomatous diseases like sarcoidosis, and rare conditions like HIV-related lymphocytic infiltration. Mucoceles can also affect the minor salivary glands.
Salivary gland stones, known as sialolithiasis, are the most common salivary gland disorder. They typically occur in adults between the ages of 30 and 60, with a higher incidence in males. These stones can develop within the salivary glands or their ducts, leading to obstruction and swelling of the affected gland. Risk factors for stones include certain medications, dehydration, gout, smoking, chronic periodontal disease, and hyperparathyroidism. Diagnosis of salivary gland stones can be made through imaging techniques such as X-ray, ultrasound, sialography, CT, or MRI. Management options include conservative measures like pain relief, antibiotics if there is evidence of infection, hydration, warm compresses, and gland massage. Invasive options may be considered if conservative management fails.
Salivary gland infection, known as sialadenitis, can be caused by bacterial or viral pathogens. Decreased salivary flow, often due to factors like dehydration, malnutrition, immunosuppression, or certain medications, can contribute to the development of sialadenitis. Risk factors for sialadenitis include age over 40, recent dental procedures, Sjögren’s syndrome, immunosuppression, and conditions that decrease salivary flow. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common bacterial cause, while mumps is the most common viral cause. Ac
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife. He is experiencing multiple episodes of vertigo, each lasting almost all day, before resolving spontaneously. He usually vomits during the attacks and complains of a sensation of fullness in his ears. He also states that his hearing has been worse than usual recently, and he is also experiencing symptoms of tinnitus.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral labyrinthitis
Correct Answer: Meniere’s disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear due to changes in fluid volume within the vestibular labyrinth. This leads to the progressive distension of the labyrinth, known as endolymphatic hydrops, which causes damage to the vestibular system and the cochlea. The classic symptoms associated with Meniere’s disease are vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.
The main clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that typically last for 2-3 hours. These episodes are usually shorter than 24 hours in duration. Hearing loss, which is often gradual and affects only one ear, is also a common symptom. Tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, is frequently associated with Meniere’s disease. Other symptoms may include a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ears, as well as nausea and vomiting. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, may occur away from the side of the lesion. Meniere’s disease is more prevalent in individuals who suffer from migraines.
The management of Meniere’s disease aims to alleviate acute attacks, reduce their severity and frequency, and improve hearing while minimizing the impact of tinnitus. If Meniere’s disease is suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.
During acute attacks, medications such as prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, and cyclizine can help reduce nausea and vertigo symptoms. If vomiting is present, buccal or intramuscular administration of these medications may be necessary. In severe cases, hospital admission may be required to prevent dehydration.
For long-term prevention, lifestyle measures can be beneficial. Avoiding caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, and tobacco is recommended. Excessive fatigue should also be avoided. Following a low-salt diet may be helpful. Betahistine, a medication that initially starts at a dose of 16 mg three times a day, can be used for prophylaxis to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. Diuretics may also be beneficial, but they are typically not recommended for primary care use.
Overall, the management of Meniere’s disease involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication to control symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 27
Correct
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A 25-year-old individual who was attacked with a baseball bat returns from the radiology department after undergoing a CT head scan. The CT images show the presence of intracranial bleeding, and after consulting with the on-call neurosurgical registrar, it is decided that the patient will be transferred to the nearby neurosurgical unit after intubation. How can you determine the amount of oxygen that will be required during the transfer?
Your Answer: 2 x Minute Volume (MV) x FiO2 x transfer time in minutes
Explanation:To determine the amount of oxygen needed for a transfer, you can use the formula: 2 x Minute Volume (MV) x FiO2 x transfer time in minutes. This formula calculates the volume of oxygen that should be taken on the transfer. The Minute Volume (MV) represents the expected oxygen consumption. It is recommended to double the expected consumption to account for any unforeseen delays or increased oxygen demand during the transfer. Therefore, the second equation is used to calculate the volume of oxygen that will be taken on the transfer.
Further Reading:
Transfer of critically ill patients in the emergency department is a common occurrence and can involve intra-hospital transfers or transfers to another hospital. However, there are several risks associated with these transfers that doctors need to be aware of and manage effectively.
Technical risks include equipment failure or inadequate equipment, unreliable power or oxygen supply, incompatible equipment, restricted positioning, and restricted monitoring equipment. These technical issues can hinder the ability to detect and treat problems with ventilation, blood pressure control, and arrhythmias during the transfer.
Non-technical risks involve limited personal and medical team during the transfer, isolation and lack of resources in the receiving hospital, and problems with communication and liaison between the origin and destination sites.
Organizational risks can be mitigated by having a dedicated consultant lead for transfers who is responsible for producing guidelines, training staff, standardizing protocols, equipment, and documentation, as well as capturing data and conducting audits.
To optimize the patient’s clinical condition before transfer, several key steps should be taken. These include ensuring a low threshold for intubation and anticipating airway and ventilation problems, securing the endotracheal tube (ETT) and verifying its position, calculating oxygen requirements and ensuring an adequate supply, monitoring for circulatory issues and inserting at least two IV accesses, providing ongoing analgesia and sedation, controlling seizures, and addressing any fractures or temperature changes.
It is also important to have the necessary equipment and personnel for the transfer. Standard monitoring equipment should include ECG, oxygen saturation, blood pressure, temperature, and capnographic monitoring for ventilated patients. Additional monitoring may be required depending on the level of care needed by the patient.
In terms of oxygen supply, it is standard practice to calculate the expected oxygen consumption during transfer and multiply it by two to ensure an additional supply in case of delays. The suggested oxygen supply for transfer can be calculated using the minute volume, fraction of inspired oxygen, and estimated transfer time.
Overall, managing the risks associated with patient transfers requires careful planning, communication, and coordination to ensure the safety and well-being of critically ill patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient states that he “wants to end it all” and refuses to stay in hospital and receive treatment. His wife insists that he must be treated because “he is not thinking clearly”.
Which blood test is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage in paracetamol overdose?Your Answer: ALT
Correct Answer: INR
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose is the most common overdose in the U.K. and is also the leading cause of acute liver failure. The liver damage occurs due to a metabolite of paracetamol called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s glutathione stores and directly harms liver cells. Severe liver damage and even death can result from an overdose of more than 12 g or > 150 mg/kg body weight.
The clinical manifestations of paracetamol overdose can be divided into four stages:
Stage 1 (0-24 hours): Patients may not show any symptoms, but common signs include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.
Stage 2 (24-48 hours): Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness develop, along with the possibility of hypoglycemia and reduced consciousness.
Stage 3 (48-96 hours): Hepatic failure begins, characterized by jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Loin pain, haematuria, and proteinuria may indicate early renal failure.
Stage 4 (> 96 hours): Hepatic failure worsens progressively, leading to cerebral edema, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and ultimately death.
The earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage is a prolonged INR, which starts to rise approximately 24 hours after the overdose. Liver function tests (LFTs) typically remain normal until 18 hours after the overdose. However, AST and ALT levels then sharply increase and can exceed 10,000 units/L by 72-96 hours. Bilirubin levels rise more slowly and peak around 5 days.
The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is a highly effective antidote, but its efficacy diminishes rapidly if administered more than 8 hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions exceeding 75 mg/kg are considered significant.
Acetylcysteine should be given based on a 4-hour level or administered empirically if the presentation occurs more than 8 hours after a significant overdose. If the overdose is staggered or the timing is uncertain, empirical treatment is also recommended. The treatment regimen is as follows:
– First dose: 150 mg/kg in 200 mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
– Second dose 50 mg/kg in 500 mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
– Third dose 100 mg/kg in 1000 mL 5% glucose over 16 hours -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
- Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
- ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
- ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
- LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)
How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?Your Answer: X-linked dominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.
The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.
The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 30
Correct
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You are getting ready to administer Propofol to a patient for cardioversion and anticipate a potential side effect. What is a common adverse reaction associated with Propofol?
Your Answer: Hypotension
Explanation:Propofol often leads to hypotension as a common side effect. Other common side effects of Propofol include apnoea, arrhythmias, headache, and nausea with vomiting.
Further Reading:
Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.
There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.
Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.
The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.
Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.
After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 31
Correct
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A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a significant laceration on his right forearm. You suggest that this can be stitched up using local anesthesia. Bupivacaine 0.5% is accessible in the suture room. What is the maximum dosage of Bupivacaine 0.5% that can be administered?
Your Answer: 2 mg/kg
Explanation:The maximum dose of adrenaline is 2 mg/kg, regardless of its concentration or addition. However, when calculating the volume requirements, the concentration of adrenaline becomes a factor.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 32
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe and continuous nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She is struggling to retain any food and has experienced slight weight loss over the past two weeks. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 103 beats per minute, respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute, blood pressure 113/70 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft and not tender, and a urine dipstick test shows 3+ ketones.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting. This condition can lead to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, malnutrition, and weight loss. It is relatively rare, affecting less than 1% of pregnancies.
For mild cases of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, dietary adjustments and non-pharmacological measures like consuming ginger or using P6 wrist acupressure can often provide relief.
In severe cases where heavy ketonuria and severe dehydration are present, hospital admission is usually necessary for intravenous fluid rehydration. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary (CKS) on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy recommends using oral promethazine, oral cyclizine, or oral prochlorperazine as the first-line treatment if an antiemetic is needed. After 24 hours, the situation should be reassessed to determine if the initial treatment is effective. If not, a second-line drug like metoclopramide or ondansetron should be considered.
It’s important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in patients under the age of 20 due to the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) and histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) can be beneficial for women experiencing significant dyspepsia alongside their nausea and vomiting.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE CKS on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Correct Answer: Rash
Explanation:Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.
Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.
During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.
Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.
Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.
Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 34
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg laceration. After assessing the wound, it is determined that suturing under anesthesia is necessary. You intend to supervise one of the medical students in closing the wound. Before beginning the procedure, you have a discussion about the risks associated with local anesthesia. Methemoglobinemia is primarily associated with which type of anesthetic agent?
Your Answer: Prilocaine
Explanation:Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition that can occur when prilocaine is used, particularly when administered at doses higher than 16 mg/kg.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 35
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing sudden difficulty breathing. Shortly after her arrival, she loses consciousness. The cardiac monitor displays ventricular fibrillation, confirming cardiac arrest.
Which of the following statements about cardiac arrest during pregnancy is correct?Your Answer: Early tracheal intubation should be performed
Explanation:Cardiac arrest during pregnancy is a rare occurrence, happening in approximately 16 out of every 100,000 live births. It is crucial to consider both the mother and the fetus when dealing with cardiac arrest in pregnancy, as the best way to ensure a positive outcome for the fetus is by effectively resuscitating the mother.
The main causes of cardiac arrest during pregnancy include pre-existing cardiac disease, pulmonary embolism, hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, amniotic fluid embolism, and suicide. Many cardiovascular problems associated with pregnancy are caused by compression of the inferior vena cava.
To prevent decompensation or potential cardiac arrest during pregnancy, it is important to follow these steps when dealing with a distressed or compromised pregnant patient:
– Place the patient in the left lateral position or manually displace the uterus to the left.
– Administer high-flow oxygen, guided by pulse oximetry.
– Give a fluid bolus if there is low blood pressure or signs of hypovolemia.
– Re-evaluate the need for any medications currently being administered.
– Seek expert help and involve obstetric and neonatal specialists early.
– Identify and treat the underlying cause.In the event of cardiac arrest during pregnancy, in addition to following the standard guidelines for basic and advanced life support, the following modifications should be made:
– Immediately call for expert help, including an obstetrician, anesthetist, and neonatologist.
– Start CPR according to the standard ALS guidelines, but adjust the hand position slightly higher on the sternum.
– Ideally establish IV or IO access above the diaphragm to account for potential compression of the inferior vena cava.
– Manually displace the uterus to the left to relieve caval compression.
– Tilt the table to the left side (around 15-30 degrees of tilt).
– Perform early tracheal intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration (seek assistance from an expert anesthetist).
– Begin preparations for an emergency Caesarean section.A perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest. This delivery will alleviate caval compression and increase the chances of successful resuscitation by improving venous return during CPR. It will also maximize the chances of the infant’s survival, as the best survival rate occurs when delivery is achieved within 5 minutes of the mother’s cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 36
Correct
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You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old man who has presented to the ER after experiencing a sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, the patient's heart rate is found to be 44 beats per minute, indicating bradycardia. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing asystole?
Your Answer: Mobitz II AV block
Explanation:Having Mobitz II AV block increases the risk of developing asystole. Other risk factors for asystole include recent asystole, third degree AV block (complete heart block) with a broad QRS complex, and a ventricular pause lasting longer than 3 seconds.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with visible jaundice, fatigue, and intense itching. He has noticed that his stools float and that they have become pale, foul-smelling, and oily in appearance. He has no history of abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of Crohn's disease, which has been controlled with mesalazine. On examination, you notice yellowish pigmentation of the skin, sclerae, and mucous membranes. His abdomen is soft but can palpate a firm liver edge 5 cm below the costal margin. He also has numerous scratch marks covering his abdomen and upper thighs. His liver function tests are shown below:
Bilirubin 102 mmol (3-20)
ALT 235 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 1501 IU/L (20-140)
pANCA: positive
cANCA: negative
ANA: negative
SMA: negative
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:This woman is showing signs of obstructive jaundice along with a history of ulcerative colitis. The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is a condition that causes inflammation and blockage of the bile ducts, leading to progressive damage. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of cholangitis and the development of scar tissue in the bile ducts. In severe cases, it can lead to liver cirrhosis, liver failure, and even liver cancer. PSC is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, with more than 80% of PSC patients also having ulcerative colitis.
The underlying cause of PSC is believed to be autoimmune in nature. Around 80% of patients with PSC test positive for p-ANCA antibodies, which are associated with autoimmune diseases. Other antibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-smooth muscle antibodies may also be present, but they are only found in about one-third of PSC patients.
Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is a liver inflammation caused by a decrease in regulatory T-cells (Treg cells), leading to the production of autoantibodies against hepatocyte surface antigens. It primarily affects women (70%) between the ages of 15 and 40. The condition causes chronic and progressive hepatitis, often presenting in the later stages when the patient is severely unwell and jaundiced. Liver function tests typically show significantly elevated levels of transaminases (ALT and AST), often more than ten times the normal range. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels may be normal or slightly elevated. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive in approximately 80% of cases, while smooth muscle antibodies (SMA) are positive in about 70% of cases. Antimitochondrial antibodies are usually low or absent.
Primary biliary cirrhosis is another autoimmune liver disease that leads to the progressive destruction of the small bile ducts in the liver, primarily affecting the intralobular ducts. This results in cholestatic jaundice, liver fibrosis, and eventually cirrhosis. The condition is more common in women (90%) and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 65. Liver function tests show predominantly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), often before any symptoms or signs of the disease appear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a suddenly painful right eye and sensitivity to light. She describes her eye as feeling gritty and it is noticeably watery. The patient has been experiencing a mild cold for the past few days. You administer fluorescein drops to her eye, which reveal the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Acyclovir ointment
Explanation:There are two types of infectious agents that can lead to the development of a dendritic ulcer. The majority of cases (80%) are caused by the herpes simplex virus (type I), while the remaining cases (20%) are caused by the herpes zoster virus. To effectively treat this condition, the patient should follow a specific treatment plan. This includes applying acyclovir ointment topically five times a day for a duration of 10 days. Additionally, prednisolone 0.5% drops should be used 2-4 times daily. It is also recommended to take oral high dose vitamin C, as it has been shown to reduce the healing time of dendritic ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 39
Correct
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Which of the following organizations is classified as a Category 2 entity according to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004 in the UK?
Your Answer: The Health and Safety Executive
Explanation:The Civil Contingencies Act 2004 establishes a framework for civil protection in the United Kingdom. This legislation categorizes local responders to major incidents into two groups, each with their own set of responsibilities.
Category 1 responders consist of organizations that play a central role in responding to most emergencies, such as the emergency services, local authorities, and NHS bodies. These Category 1 responders are obligated to fulfill a comprehensive range of civil protection duties. These duties include assessing the likelihood of emergencies occurring and using this information to inform contingency planning. They must also develop emergency plans, establish business continuity management arrangements, and ensure that information regarding civil protection matters is readily available to the public. Additionally, Category 1 responders are responsible for maintaining systems to warn, inform, and advise the public in the event of an emergency. They are expected to share information with other local responders to enhance coordination and efficiency. Furthermore, local authorities within this category are required to provide guidance and support to businesses and voluntary organizations regarding business continuity management.
On the other hand, Category 2 organizations, such as the Health and Safety Executive, transport companies, and utility companies, are considered co-operating bodies. While they may not be directly involved in the core planning work, they play a crucial role in incidents that impact their respective sectors. Category 2 responders have a more limited set of duties, primarily focused on cooperating and sharing relevant information with both Category 1 and Category 2 responders.
For more information on this topic, please refer to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 40
Correct
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A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very casually and have a strong smell of alcohol. Looking at their medical records, you notice that they have had multiple similar presentations in the past few months. You decide to administer a screening questionnaire to assess for potential alcohol dependency.
According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following screening tests is recommended for this purpose?Your Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:The Alcohol Use Disorder Identification Test (AUDIT) has been developed by the World Health Organization as a straightforward screening tool to detect early signs of hazardous and harmful drinking, as well as mild dependence. This assessment is more comprehensive than the CAGE questionnaire and is currently recommended by NICE for identifying alcohol misuse.
NICE, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, suggests the use of specific assessment tools to evaluate the nature and severity of alcohol misuse. These tools include AUDIT for identification and as a routine outcome measure, SADQ or LDQ for assessing the severity of dependence, CIWA-Ar for evaluating the severity of withdrawal symptoms, and APQ for understanding the nature and extent of problems resulting from alcohol misuse.
For more information on this topic, you can refer to the NICE guidance titled Alcohol-use disorders: diagnosis, assessment and management of harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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